Indian Geography PYQ – Environmental Pollution

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Indian Geography PYQ – Environmental Pollution – 29 questions, subject: Geography. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  
AHGS 2021
Which among the following is regarded as the leading cause of air pollution?

Correct Answer: D [Motor Vehicle Emissions]

Explanation:

Motor vehicle emissions (carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, hydrocarbons, particulates) are regarded as the leading cause of air pollution.

2.  
GSCE 2021
Name the application recommended by the Central Pollution Control Board of India to know about the "quality of air"

Correct Answer: A [Sameer]

Explanation:

The CPCB's SAMEER app gives the air quality index of cities; Umang, Diksha and Aarogya Setu serve other purposes.

3.  
Group 1 2021
The major cause for the depletion of Ozone is

Correct Answer: A [Aerosol]

Explanation:

Aerosol propellants and refrigerants release CFCs that rise to the stratosphere and release chlorine atoms that destroy ozone.

4.  
PTGS 2021 · Group 1 2021
Which among the following is known to be prime effect of thermal pollution on aquatic systems?

Correct Answer: A [decrease in dissolved oxygen]

Explanation:

Warm discharge water from power plants lowers the dissolved oxygen in water, harming aquatic life, which is the main effect of thermal pollution.

5.  
PTGS 2021 · Group 1 2021
The pollutant which causes impairment in plant metabolism is

Correct Answer: C [Sulphur di oxide]

Explanation:

Sulphur dioxide enters leaf pores and destroys chlorophyll, causing chlorosis and impairing plant metabolism, and also causes acid rain.

6.  
Group 1 2022
Assignment of ecological or biological significance of a contaminant's effect based primarily on statements of statistical significance but contrary to biological probability

Correct Answer: C [Maulstick incongruity]

Explanation:

Maulstick incongruity is the ecotoxicology term for giving biological significance to an effect merely because it is statistically significant, against biological probability.

7.  
Group 1 2024
The abundant growth of algae in water reservoirs is due to

Correct Answer: A [Eutrophication]

Explanation:

Eutrophication is nutrient enrichment of water by fertiliser and sewage runoff, causing abundant algal growth.

8.  
CTS (Interview Posts-II) 2024
BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) measures the

Correct Answer: D [Amount of oxygen required for bacteria to decompose organic matter in water samples in fixed time and temperature]

Explanation:

BOD is the oxygen needed by bacteria to decompose organic matter in water under standard conditions, so higher BOD means more pollution.

9.  
Group 2/2A 2024
Densification and compaction are unit operations that are used to increase the density of recovered materials to reduce transportation costs and simplify storage. This method is used in

Correct Answer: D [Processing and the Recovery of waste components from MSW]

Explanation:

Densification and compaction increase the density of recovered materials like plastic, paper and metal for recycling, which is part of processing and recovery of waste components.

10.  
Group 2/2A 2024
Match the following :
(a) CO2 – 1. Ground water pollution and particulate in air
(b) NOx – 2. Global warming
(c) Lead (Pb) – 3. Acid rain
(d) Hydrocarbons (HC) – 4. An ingredient for the formation of photochemical smog

Correct Answer: A [2 3 1 4]

Explanation:

CO2 causes global warming, NOx acid rain, lead pollutes groundwater and air particulates, and hydrocarbons help form photochemical smog: 2 3 1 4.

11.  
Group 1 2024
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(1) World Water Day – 22nd March
(2) World Environment Day – 22nd April
(3) Earth Day – 5th June
(4) World Energy Conservation Day – 14th December

Correct Answer: A [(2) and (3)]

Explanation:

World Environment Day is 5 June and Earth Day is 22 April, so pairs 2 and 3 have their dates swapped.

12.  
CTS (Interview Posts) 2024
Choose the right matches among type :
(1) Water pollution – Domestic sewage
(2) Air pollution – Eutrophication
(3) Radioactive pollution – Vehicle emission
(4) Noise – Unwanted sound

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (4) are correct]

Explanation:

Domestic sewage pollutes water and unwanted sound is noise pollution, whereas eutrophication is a water effect and vehicle emission is air pollution.

13.  
CTS (Interview Posts) 2024
Choose the incorrect answer :
(1) CMSP – Coastal and Marine Spatial Programme
(2) NBA – The National Biodiversity Agency
(3) BMC – Bio-diversity Management Commission
(4) CCPA – Central Consumer Protection Authority

Correct Answer: D [(1), (2) and (3) only incorrect]

Explanation:

The correct expansions are Coastal and Marine Spatial Planning, National Biodiversity Authority and Biodiversity Management Committee, so items 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.

14.  
CTS (Non-Interview Posts) 2024
Match correctly the world / national environmental important dates used to commemorate and spread awareness :
(a) World Environment Day – 1. April 22
(b) Earth Day – 2. December 2
(c) World Water Day – 3. June 5
(d) National Pollution Prevention Day – 4. March 22

Correct Answer: A [3 1 4 2]

Explanation:

World Environment Day is 5 June, Earth Day 22 April, World Water Day 22 March and National Pollution Prevention Day 2 December: 3 1 4 2.

15.  
CTS (ITI Posts) 2024
"World No Tobacco Day" is celebrated on the 31st of ________ every year.

Correct Answer: D [May]

Explanation:

World No Tobacco Day is observed by WHO on 31 May every year.

16.  
Group 1B/1C 2024
World Earth Day is on

Correct Answer: D [22nd April 1970]

Explanation:

The first Earth Day was held on 22 April 1970 in the United States, and it is observed on 22 April every year.

17.  
Group 1B/1C 2024
Which among the following is a primary air pollutant?

Correct Answer: B [Sulphur dioxide]

Explanation:

Sulphur dioxide is emitted directly from sources, so it is a primary pollutant, while ozone, smog and PAN form by reactions and are secondary pollutants.

18.  
Group 1B/1C 2024
The acceptable limit of free residual chlorine in drinking water as per Indian standards

Correct Answer: C [0.2 mg/l]

Explanation:

Indian drinking water standards require free residual chlorine of at least 0.2 mg/l to prevent regrowth of microbes in supply.

19.  
Asst. Public Prosecutor Gr. II 2025
Name the pollutant which is called "Silent Killer" if it exceeds 100 ppm concentration

Correct Answer: D [Carbon Monoxide (CO)]

Explanation:

Carbon monoxide binds haemoglobin far more strongly than oxygen and is odourless, so it kills without warning and is called the silent killer.

20.  
Special Competitive Exam 2025
The Stockholm conference in the year ________ declared man as both a creator and moulder of his environment.

Correct Answer: A [1972]

Explanation:

The 1972 Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment declared that man is both creature and moulder of his environment.

21.  
CTS (Non-Interview Posts) 2025
Man-made sources of pollutants are called as

Correct Answer: A [Anthropogenic pollutants]

Explanation:

Anthropogenic pollutants are those from man-made sources such as vehicles, industry and agriculture; industrial, leather and cement pollutants are only subsets.

22.  
Group 2A Mains 2025
The title of the Brundtland report is

Correct Answer: C [Our common future]

Explanation:

The Brundtland Commission report of 1987 is titled Our Common Future and defined sustainable development.

23.  
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
The sustainable development has three main aspects namely

Correct Answer: B [Social, Environment, Economy]

Explanation:

The three pillars of sustainable development are social, environmental and economic aspects.

24.  
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
The National Environment Tribunal Act was passed in the year

Correct Answer: C [1995]

Explanation:

The National Environment Tribunal Act was passed in 1995 to provide compensation for accidents involving hazardous substances.

25.  
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
The Union Government unveiled the green credits programme on

Correct Answer: B [October, 2023]

Explanation:

The Union Environment Ministry notified the Green Credit Programme rules on 12 October 2023 to reward voluntary environment-positive actions.

26.  
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
Arrange the following gases in ascending order of their Global Warming Potential (GWP)
(i) CO2
(ii) CH4
(iii) SF6
(iv) CFC – 11
(v) N2O

Correct Answer: B [(i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)]

Explanation:

By 100-year GWP the order is CO2 (1), CH4 (about 28), N2O (about 265), CFC-11 (about 4,660) and SF6 (about 23,500).

27.  
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : Detergent induced soil pollution depresses the growth of soil micro organisms.
Reason [R] : The presence of detergents makes the soil acidic.

Correct Answer: B [[A] is true but [R] is false]

Explanation:

Detergents in soil depress soil micro-organisms (A true), but detergents are mostly alkaline and do not make soil acidic (R false).

28.  
Group 2A Mains (Revoked) 2026
The Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is a framework designed for which of the following?

Correct Answer: A [Emergency alert system of air pollution]

Explanation:

GRAP is a graded emergency action plan for Delhi-NCR that imposes stepwise restrictions as air quality worsens.

29.  
Group 2A Mains (Revoked) 2026
Match the diseases to the causative pollutants.
(a) Nitrates – 1. Minamata disease
(b) Mercury – 2. Blue baby syndrome
(c) Coal dust – 3. Itai-Itai disease
(d) Cadmium – 4. Black lung disease

Correct Answer: C [2 1 4 3]

Explanation:

Nitrates cause blue baby syndrome, mercury Minamata disease, coal dust black lung disease and cadmium Itai-Itai disease: 2 1 4 3.

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