Online Quiz

← Back
Get daily current affairs & exam alerts – follow us YouTube WhatsApp Channel Telegram Channel Facebook Page Instagram
Share with friends & study groups
Link to this page from your website / blog (HTML code)
1.  
The recommendation to create the RBI came from the:

Correct Answer: B [Hilton Young Commission]

Explanation:

The Hilton Young Commission (1926) recommended creating the RBI.

2.  
The minimum reserve that the RBI must hold against note issue (since 1957) is:

Correct Answer: D [₹ 200 crore, of which gold at least ₹ 115 crore]

Explanation:

₹ 200 crore, of which gold at least ₹ 115 crore.

3.  
One-rupee notes are issued by:

Correct Answer: E [Government of India (signed by the Finance Secretary)]

Explanation:

Government of India – signed by the Finance Secretary.

4.  
Who has the casting vote in the Monetary Policy Committee in case of a tie?

Correct Answer: C [Governor (second or casting vote)]

Explanation:

The Governor (second or casting vote).

5.  
External members of the MPC hold office for:

Correct Answer: A [4 years]

Explanation:

4 years; they are appointed by the Central Government.

6.  
At its October 2026 meeting, the MPC changed the policy repo rate by:

Correct Answer: A [+25 bps (to 5.50%)]

Explanation:

+25 bps to 5.50% (RBI, October 2026).

7.  
Banks can borrow under MSF by dipping into their SLR holdings up to:

Correct Answer: E [2 per cent]

Explanation:

2 per cent of NDTL.

8.  
Under the flexible inflation targeting framework, the RBI is deemed to have failed to meet the target when there is:

Correct Answer: C [average inflation above 6% or below 2% for any three consecutive quarters]

Explanation:

Any three consecutive quarters.

9.  
Under the PCA framework, which bank category is NOT excluded?

Correct Answer: D [Public sector banks]

Explanation:

PCA excludes SFBs, payments banks and RRBs; it applies to commercial banks such as PSBs.

10.  
As on the RBI's 2025 list, the D-SIB bucket of HDFC Bank and its additional CET1 requirement are:

Correct Answer: B [bucket 2, additional CET1 0.40%]

Explanation:

Bucket 2, 0.40% (list of 2 December 2025); SBI bucket 4.

11.  
Under the Basel III norms of the RBI, the Capital Conservation Buffer is:

Correct Answer: D [2.5%]

Explanation:

2.5% of RWAs in CET1.

12.  
A short-duration crop loan becomes an NPA if instalment or interest remains overdue for:

Correct Answer: A [two crop seasons]

Explanation:

Two crop seasons (long-duration crops: one season).

13.  
The minimum capital for a universal bank under the 2016 on-tap guidelines is:

Correct Answer: E [₹ 500 crore]

Explanation:

₹ 500 crore (guidelines of 1 August 2016).

14.  
IRDAI was constituted under the:

Correct Answer: B [IRDA Act, 1999]

Explanation:

IRDA Act, 1999.

15.  
Retail CBDC (e-rupee) was piloted by the RBI from:

Correct Answer: C [December 2022]

Explanation:

December 2022; the e-rupee is legal tender and earns no interest.

16.  
Banks may make Positive Pay mandatory for cheques of:

Correct Answer: A [₹ 5,00,000 and above]

Explanation:

₹ 5 lakh and above (banks may make it mandatory); it is available for ₹ 50,000 and above.

17.  
CTS was brought to a single national grid ('one nation, one grid') on:

Correct Answer: C [13 October 2023]

Explanation:

13 October 2023 (RBI FAQ on cheque clearing).

18.  
The share of UPI in India's digital payment volumes (PIB, 24 August 2026) is about:

Correct Answer: D [84%]

Explanation:

About 84%; UPI handles nearly 49% of the world's real-time digital payments.

19.  
For a new enrolment under PMJJBY, the lien period is:

Correct Answer: E [30 days]

Explanation:

30 days.

20.  
Atal Pension Yojana is open to citizens in the age group:

Correct Answer: B [18–40 years]

Explanation:

18–40 years; not for income-tax payers.

21.  
PM-KISAN was launched on:

Correct Answer: D [24 February 2019]

Explanation:

24 February 2019; ₹ 6,000 a year in three equal instalments.

22.  
General insurance was nationalised by the:

Correct Answer: A [General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972]

Explanation:

General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Act, 1972.

23.  
BSE was recognised as a stock exchange under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act on:

Correct Answer: C [31 August 1957]

Explanation:

31 August 1957 – the first in India.

24.  
SEBI classifies mutual-fund schemes into how many broad categories?

Correct Answer: B [5]

Explanation:

5 – Equity, Debt, Hybrid, Solution-oriented, Other.

25.  
Full rollout of T+1 settlement in Indian equity markets was completed in:

Correct Answer: E [January 2023]

Explanation:

January 2023.

26.  
As per the Provisional Estimates released on 5 June 2026, nominal GDP for 2025-26 is:

Correct Answer: D [₹ 346.36 lakh crore]

Explanation:

₹ 346.36 lakh crore; real GDP ₹ 323.12 lakh crore.

27.  
Real GDP growth in Q1 (April–June) of 2026-27, released on 31 August 2026, was:

Correct Answer: A [7.8%]

Explanation:

7.8%; Q1 of 2025-26 was 6.9%.

28.  
The new base year adopted for the GDP series is:

Correct Answer: B [2022-23]

Explanation:

2022-23 (old base 2011-12).

29.  
Gross market borrowing of the Centre budgeted for 2026-27 is:

Correct Answer: E [₹ 17.2 lakh crore]

Explanation:

₹ 17.2 lakh crore; net ₹ 11.7 lakh crore.

30.  
Per the Economic Survey 2025-26, India's forex reserves on 16 January 2026 were:

Correct Answer: C [USD 701.4 billion]

Explanation:

Forex reserves were USD 701.4 billion on 16 January 2026 (Economic Survey 2025-26).

31.  
How many countries attended the Bretton Woods Conference of July 1944?

Correct Answer: D [44]

Explanation:

44.

32.  
The founding members of ASEAN (1967) were Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and:

Correct Answer: B [Thailand]

Explanation:

Thailand – ASEAN was founded in Bangkok on 8 August 1967.

33.  
National Panchayati Raj Day is observed on:

Correct Answer: A [24 April]

Explanation:

24 April – the 73rd Amendment came into force in 1993.

34.  
The capital of Tanzania is:

Correct Answer: C [Dodoma]

Explanation:

Dodoma; Dar es Salaam is the port city.

35.  
Which award ranks second among wartime gallantry awards?

Correct Answer: E [Maha Vir Chakra]

Explanation:

Param Vir → Maha Vir → Vir Chakra.

36.  
The Nobel Prize in Literature is awarded by the:

Correct Answer: C [Swedish Academy]

Explanation:

Swedish Academy; Peace – Norwegian Nobel Committee.

37.  
About credit information companies (CICs), which is/are correct?
I. CICs are regulated under the Credit Information Companies (Regulation) Act, 2005.
II. Experian and Equifax are among the CICs registered with the RBI.
III. Five CICs are registered with the RBI.

Correct Answer: B [Only I and II]

Explanation:

I and II true; four CICs – CIBIL, Equifax, Experian and CRIF High Mark (RBI).

38.  
Match the institution with its head (as on 16 October 2026):
(i) IMF (ii) ADB (iii) NDB (iv) SIDBI
(p) Dilma Rousseff (q) Kristalina Georgieva (r) Masato Kanda (s) Manoj Mittal

Correct Answer: A [i-q, ii-r, iii-p, iv-s]

Explanation:

IMF – Georgieva (MD); ADB – Kanda (President); NDB – Rousseff (President); SIDBI – Mittal (CMD).

39.  
In NDTL, the letters stand for:

Correct Answer: E [Net Demand and Time Liabilities]

Explanation:

Net Demand and Time Liabilities – base for CRR and SLR.

40.  
NaBFID stands for:

Correct Answer: D [National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development]

Explanation:

National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development (NaBFID Act, 2021).

📘 IBPS Clerk 2026 – B5 Banking & Financial Awareness + Static GK (PDF book)
Here you get the answer with a one-line explanation. 745 questions, each with a full step-by-step explanation · shortcuts, tables, trap alerts · Prelims + Mains sectional mocks. All 5 books together: ₹599.
Get the book – ₹149 →
Score: 0 Answered: 0 / 0