Indian Economy PYQ – Health
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Aarogya Setu (April 2020) is the government's health service app used for Covid-19 contact tracing and health services.
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Indian Economy PYQ – Health – 27 questions, subject: Economy. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.
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1.
CBT 2022
Choose the right matches from the following :(1) Sex ratio – Number of females per 1000 males
(2) IMR – Mother's death at the time of delivery per one lakh
(3) MMR – Mortality before completing one year
(4) Density of population – Population per square kilometre
Correct Answer: B [(1) and (4) are correct]
Explanation:
Sex ratio is females per 1,000 males and IMR is deaths of infants under one year per 1,000 live births, while MMR is maternal deaths per 100,000 live births; statements (1) and (4) are correct.
2.
ACF 2023
How is IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) calculated?Correct Answer: B [Per 1000 births, deaths below 1 year in a particular period]
Explanation:
The infant mortality rate is the number of deaths of children under one year of age per 1,000 live births in a given period.
3.
DEO 2023
Total fertility rate measuresCorrect Answer: D [The number of children born to a woman during her entire reproductive period]
Explanation:
The total fertility rate measures the average number of children born to a woman during her entire reproductive span; replacement level is 2.1.
4.
Group 2 2022
According to NITI Aayog's Health Index (2021), ________ emerged as the top three states in India.Correct Answer: B [Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana]
Explanation:
In NITI Aayog's Health Index (2021, round IV, 2019-20 data), Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana were the top three large states.
5.
VCGS 2022
Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana is providing Rs. ________ for health coverage per family for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization to poor and vulnerable families.Correct Answer: C [Rs. 5 lakhs]
Explanation:
Ayushman Bharat PM-JAY provides Rs 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary hospitalisation to poor and vulnerable families.
6.
Group 1 2022
Which one of the following is not addressed in Mission POSHAN 2.0?Correct Answer: D [Malnutrition in elderly]
Explanation:
Mission Poshan 2.0 addresses nutrition of children (0-6), adolescent girls and pregnant and lactating mothers, not malnutrition in the elderly.
7.
DEO 2023
Which among the following is / are correctly paired?I. Mission Vatsalya – Comprehensive rehabilitation of transgender persons
II. Mission Shakti – Provision of citizen-centric life cycle support to women
III. Mission Poshan 2.0 – Addressing the challenges of malnutrition in children and girls
IV. SMILE Scheme – Comprehensive rehabilitation of persons engaged in begging
Correct Answer: C [II, III and IV only]
Explanation:
Mission Vatsalya is about child protection, not transgender rehabilitation, so statement I is wrong, while the pairs in II, III and IV are correct.
8.
Fisheries Dept. 2023
Which of the following statements are correct about MKSP (Mahila Kisan Sashaktikaran Pariyojana)?(1) It was initiated in the year 2019
(2) To empower women by making systematic investment
(3) To involve women in sports activities
(4) To ensure food and nutrition security at household level
Correct Answer: A [2 and 4 are correct]
Explanation:
MKSP began in 2011 under NRLM to empower women in agriculture through systematic investment to raise their participation and productivity, so statements 2 and 4 are correct.
9.
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026 · Bursar 2023
Match the following :(a) The Integrated Child Development Services Scheme – 1. 1982
(b) Nutritious Meal Programme – 2. 2006
(c) National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education – 3. 1975
(d) Food Safety and Standards Act – 4. 1995
Correct Answer: C [3 1 4 2]
Explanation:
ICDS began in 1975, the Tamil Nadu Nutritious Meal Programme in 1982, the national mid-day meal programme in 1995 and the Food Safety and Standards Act in 2006, giving 3 1 4 2.
10.
Geology Service 2023
Which of the following schemes is related to improving the nutritional and health status of children in the age group 0–6 years?Correct Answer: A [Integrated Child Development Scheme]
Explanation:
The Integrated Child Development Services scheme improves the nutrition and health of children aged 0-6 years through anganwadi centres.
11.
Group 1 2024
Consider the following statements related to Janani Suraksha Yojana and choose the correct answer.(1) The scheme was introduced to reduce Maternal Mortality and Infant Mortality Rate
(2) It is 100% centrally sponsored
(3) It is 100% state sponsored
Correct Answer: A [(1) and (2)]
Explanation:
Janani Suraksha Yojana (2005, under NRHM) promotes institutional delivery among poor pregnant women to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality, so (1) and (2) are correct.
12.
CTS (ITI Posts – Level II) 2025
________ mission focuses on maternal and child health care.Correct Answer: C [National Rural Health Mission 2005]
Explanation:
The National Rural Health Mission (2005) focuses on rural health, especially maternal and child health care, with ASHA workers and the Janani Suraksha Yojana.
13.
Veterinary Asst. 2023
"ASHA" stands forCorrect Answer: A [Accredited Social Health Activist]
Explanation:
ASHA stands for Accredited Social Health Activist, a community health worker chosen for each village under the NRHM of 2005.
14.
JR 2023
Kayakalp award is related to which field?Correct Answer: B [Public health care]
Explanation:
The Kayakalp award (2015) rewards public health facilities for cleanliness, hygiene and infection control, so it relates to public health care.
15.
CTS (ITI Posts) 2024
Which of the following statements are true about National Deworming Day?I. This programme is an initiative of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
II. It covers every child in the age group of 1 to 19 years
III. This programme is implemented every year on 15 February
Correct Answer: B [I and II]
Explanation:
National Deworming Day is a Health Ministry initiative held on 10 February and 10 August, giving albendazole tablets to children aged 1-19, so statements I and II are true.
16.
Group 2/2A 2025
Choose the right matches :(1) NHS – National Health Service
(2) CBHI – Central Bureau of Health Insurance
(3) PHC – Primary Health Centre
(4) NRHM – National Real Health Mission
Correct Answer: A [(1) and (3) are correct]
Explanation:
NHS means National Health Service and PHC Primary Health Centre, while CBHI is the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence and NRHM the National Rural Health Mission, so (1) and (3) are correct.
17.
Group 2A Mains 2025
Choose the right matches :(1) PMSSY – Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana
(2) NTEP – National Tobacco Elimination Programme
(3) NVBDCP – National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme
(4) JSSK – Janani Shiksha Suraksha Karyakram (Mother Education Protection Programme)
Correct Answer: C [(1) and (3) are correct]
Explanation:
PMSSY is Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana and NVBDCP the vector borne disease programme, while NTEP is the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme, so (1) and (3) are correct.
18.
CTS (Non-Interview Posts) 2025
Arrange the following health programmes in chronological order :(1) The National Malaria Eradication Programme
(2) The National Filaria Control Programme
(3) The National Family Planning Programme
(4) National Smallpox Eradication Programme
Correct Answer: B [(3), (2), (1), (4)]
Explanation:
In order: family planning (1952), filaria control (1955), malaria eradication (1958) and smallpox eradication (1962), giving (3), (2), (1), (4).
19.
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
Match the following :(a) Anemia Mukt Bharat – 1. 2021
(b) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan – 2. 2017
(c) The Mental Healthcare Act – 3. 2018
(d) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act – 4. 2016
Correct Answer: C [3 4 2 1]
Explanation:
Anemia Mukt Bharat began in 2018, PM Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan in 2016, the Mental Healthcare Act in 2017 and the MTP Amendment Act in 2021, giving 3 4 2 1.
20.
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
Which of the following statements are true about the National Tobacco Control Programme (NTCP)?(i) It was launched during the Tenth Five Year Plan
(ii) The programme is implemented through a three-tier structure
(iii) The National Tobacco Quit Line Services has been established under this programme
(iv) A youth centric initiative called "Tobacco Free Youth Campaign" was launched in 2023
Correct Answer: B [(ii), (iii) and (iv) only]
Explanation:
The National Tobacco Control Programme began in 2007-08 in the Eleventh Plan, not the Tenth, so (i) is false and (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true.
21.
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
Choose the correct statement(s) pertaining to the key objectives of Sustainable Development Goal 2.(1) Eliminate all forms of malnutrition, focusing on stunting and wasting in children and anaemia in women
(2) Maintain the genetic diversity of alien seeds, cultivated invasive plants and farmed animals
(3) Ensure modern agricultural practices to enhance food production
Correct Answer: C [Only (1) is correct]
Explanation:
SDG 2 (Zero Hunger) aims to end all forms of malnutrition, but its target on genetic diversity concerns seeds, cultivated plants and farmed animals, not alien invasive species, so only (1) is correct.
22.
Group 2A Mains (Re-exam) 2026
Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions Act. Which one is true?Correct Answer: C [Regulating the standards of education and services of allied and healthcare professionals]
Explanation:
The National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions Act 2021 sets up a commission to regulate standards of education and services of allied and healthcare professionals.
23.
Group 1 2024
What is the recent addition to the existing family of AYUSH systems?Correct Answer: B [Sowa Rigpa]
Explanation:
Sowa Rigpa, the traditional Himalayan medicine system, was recently added to the AYUSH family of Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha and Homoeopathy.
24.
Group 1 2024
Which of the following is correctly paired?(1) AIIMS – All India Institute of Medical Sciences
(2) ICCW – International Council for Child Welfare
(3) NIPCCD – National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development
(4) ICDS – Institute of Child Development Service
Correct Answer: B [(1) and (3) are correct]
Explanation:
AIIMS is the All India Institute of Medical Sciences and ICCW is the Indian (not International) Council for Child Welfare, so (1) and (3) are the correct pairs.
25.
Group 1 2024
The prime duty of the Central Health Education Bureau (1956) wasCorrect Answer: D [Coordinate and promote health education through various divisions]
Explanation:
The Central Health Education Bureau (1956) coordinates and promotes health education activities in the country through its various divisions.
26.
Fisheries Dept. 2023
In the report released by the US-based Health Effects Institute on air quality and health in more than 7000 cities, Delhi is ranked first forCorrect Answer: A [PM 2.5]
Explanation:
The Health Effects Institute's 2022 report on over 7,000 cities ranked Delhi first in the world for average PM 2.5 exposure.
27.
CTS (Non-Interview Posts) 2024 · CTS (Interview Posts-II) 2024 · Group 2/2A 2025
The service app for health isCorrect Answer: C [Aarogya Setu]
Explanation:
Aarogya Setu (April 2020) is the government's health service app used for Covid-19 contact tracing and health services.
? Full explanations with tables – Indian Economy PYQ book (₹149): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/tnpsc-indian-economy-pyq
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