Indian Polity PYQ – Union, States & Its Union Territories | Online Quiz

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Indian Polity PYQ – Union, States & Its Union Territories – 37 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

PTGS – 2021

The first Article of the Constitution declares that India is

Correct Answer: B [Union of States]

Explanation:

Article 1(1) declares that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.

GROUP 1 – 2021

By what name or names is our country mentioned in the Indian Constitution?

Correct Answer: B [India and Bharat]

Explanation:

Article 1(1) says 'India, that is Bharat', so the Constitution names the country India and Bharat only.

CAGS – 2022

Match the following and choose the correct answer from the options below:

States — Formation (Year)

(a) Kerala — 1. 1963

(b) Nagaland — 2. 1966

(d) Haryana — 4. 1960

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Correct Answer: B [3 1 4 2]

Explanation:

Kerala was formed in 1956, Nagaland in 1963, Maharashtra in 1960 and Haryana in 1966, giving the code 3 1 4 2.

When was the Punjab state bifurcated into Punjab and Haryana?

Correct Answer: A [1966]

Explanation:

The Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 split Punjab into Punjab and Haryana on 1 November 1966.

AFG6 – 2022

Arunachal Pradesh became a full fledged State on

Correct Answer: A [20 February 1987]

Explanation:

Arunachal Pradesh became a full-fledged state on 20 February 1987 under the State of Arunachal Pradesh Act, 1986.

GROUP 2 – 2022

Which among the following was not a nomenclature for "Union Territory" previously?

Correct Answer: D [Peculiar central enclaves]

Explanation:

Peculiar central enclaves was never a name for Union Territories, whereas Scheduled Districts, Chief Commissioner's Provinces and Part C and D states were.

JAILOR – 2022

Delhi has emerged as the National Capital Territory with a legislature and a council of ministers by

Correct Answer: C [69th Constitutional Amendment]

Explanation:

The 69th Amendment (1991) inserted Articles 239AA and 239AB, making Delhi the National Capital Territory with a legislature and council of ministers.

CBT – 2022

Modern Odisha was formed in year?

Correct Answer: C [1936]

Explanation:

Modern Odisha was formed on 1 April 1936 when Odia-speaking areas were separated from Bihar and Orissa province.

GROUP 1 – 2022

Which constitutional amendment incorporated Puducherry in the Union of India?

Correct Answer: C [Fourteenth]

Explanation:

The 14th Amendment (1962) incorporated Puducherry into the Union of India after the French territories were legally transferred.

10.

Which of the following statement(s) is true about the union territories of India?

1. From 26th Jan. 2020, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu are combined to a single territory.

2. Articles 239 to 241 in Part VII of the constitution deal with union territories.

3. The two union territories from the former state of Jammu and Kashmir are Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir.

4. The largest union territory of India is Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Correct Answer: B [1 and 3 are correct]

Explanation:

Statements 1 and 3 are true: Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu merged on 26 January 2020, and Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir are the two UTs.

11.

Choose the correct matches

1. Art 371 — Provision with respect to the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat

2. Art 371 A — Provision with respect to the state of Nagaland

3. Art 371 D — Provision with respect to the state of Andhra Pradesh

4. Art 371 H — Provision with respect to the state of Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3 are correct]

Explanation:

Article 371 covers Maharashtra and Gujarat, 371A Nagaland and 371D Andhra Pradesh, whereas 371H relates to Arunachal Pradesh, not Tamil Nadu.

12.

BURSAR – 2023

By which Act the name Uttaranchal was changed into Uttarakhand?

Correct Answer: A [The Uttaranchal (Alteration of Name) Act, 2006]

Explanation:

The Uttaranchal (Alteration of Name) Act, 2006 changed the state's name from Uttaranchal to Uttarakhand.

13.

Name the states in which no tribes have been scheduled

Correct Answer: A [Punjab and Haryana]

Explanation:

No tribes have been scheduled under Article 342 in Punjab and Haryana.

14.

CBT – 2023

The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in the year

Correct Answer: A [1953]

Explanation:

The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed in December 1953, after the formation of Andhra State intensified linguistic demands.

15.

HEALTH OFFICER – 2023

Which among the following commissions recommended the reorganisation of Indian States on linguistic basis?

Correct Answer: A [Fazal Ali Commission]

Explanation:

The Fazl Ali Commission (States Reorganisation Commission, 1953-55) accepted language as a major basis for reorganising Indian states.

16.

VETERINARY ASSISTANT SURGEON – 2023

Meghalaya state came into existence in the year

Correct Answer: C [1972]

Explanation:

Meghalaya became a full state in 1972 (21 January), after being an autonomous state within Assam from 1970.

17.

ACF – 2023

The states in India were re-organised on which of the following basis?

Correct Answer: D [Language of the people]

Explanation:

States were reorganised in 1956 mainly on the basis of the language of the people.

18.

Modern Odisha was formed in the year

Correct Answer: C [1936]

Explanation:

Modern Odisha was formed on 1 April 1936, the first province created on a linguistic basis.

19.

GROUP 1C (DEO) – 2023

———— of the Constitution gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir from 1954 to 2019.

Correct Answer: B [Article 370]

Explanation:

Article 370 gave Jammu and Kashmir special status until it was rendered inoperative in 2019.

20.

AJ – 2023

When was Daman and Diu merged with Dadra and Nagar Haveli?

Correct Answer: C [January, 2020]

Explanation:

Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were merged into one Union Territory in January 2020 under the 2019 Act.

21.

GEOLOGY – 2023

———— became the 23rd state of the Indian Union in February 1987.

Correct Answer: A [Mizoram]

Explanation:

Mizoram became the 23rd state of India on 20 February 1987 under the State of Mizoram Act, 1986.

22.

COMBINED RESEARCH ASSISTANT – 2023

Which of the following statements is true regarding Indian states?

(i) Bombay and Gujarat were separated in 1960

(ii) Junagadh was ruled by a Hindu King

(iii) Tara Singh fought for Haryana

(iv) Sikkim became the 22nd state of the union

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (iv) true (ii) and (iii) false]

Explanation:

Bombay was split into Maharashtra and Gujarat in 1960 and Sikkim became the 22nd state, but Junagadh had a Muslim ruler and Tara Singh fought for a Punjabi Suba, not Haryana.

23.

Match the following:

Amendment — Subject

(a) 53 — 1. Statehood for Goa

(b) 56 — 2. Statehood for Sikkim

(d) 36 — 4. Statehood for Arunachal Pradesh

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Correct Answer: A [3 1 4 2]

Explanation:

Mizoram is the 53rd Amendment, Goa the 56th, Arunachal Pradesh the 55th and Sikkim the 36th, giving the code 3 1 4 2.

24.

COMBINED ACCOUNTS SERVICES (TN TREASURIES) – 2024

Who was the Chairman of States Reorganisation Commission, 1953?

Correct Answer: D [Fazal Ali]

Explanation:

Justice Fazl Ali chaired the three-member States Reorganisation Commission of 1953.

25.

CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2024

JVP committee is related to

Correct Answer: A [Formation of New States on linguistic basis]

Explanation:

The JVP Committee (Jawaharlal, Vallabhbhai, Pattabhi), set up in 1948, examined the formation of linguistic states.

26.

GROUP 1B & 1C – 2024

Which commission observed "the Union of India is the basis of our nationality, but States are the limbs of the Union"?

Correct Answer: A [State Reorganisation Commission]

Explanation:

The States Reorganisation Commission's 1955 report said the Union of India is the basis of our nationality while the states are the limbs of the Union.

27.

SPECIAL COMPETITIVE – 2025

How many days did Thiyagi Sankaralinganar involve himself in an indefinite hunger strike to rename the Madras state as Tamil Nadu?

Correct Answer: B [76 days]

Explanation:

Thyagi Sankaralinganar fasted indefinitely for 76 days in 1956 demanding that Madras State be renamed Tamil Nadu, and died.

28.

GROUP 1 & 1A – 2025

The word "Union" in the "Union of States" in our Constitution was inspired by the

Correct Answer: A [Canadian Constitution]

Explanation:

The term Union in 'Union of States' was inspired by the Canadian Constitution (British North America Act, 1867).

29.

GROUP 4 – 2025

Match the following:

Name of the States — States in Part

(a) Himachal Pradesh — 1. A

(b) Rajasthan — 2. D

(d) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands — 4. C

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Correct Answer: A [4 3 1 2]

Explanation:

In the 1950 First Schedule, Himachal Pradesh was a Part C state, Rajasthan Part B, West Bengal Part A, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Part D: 4 3 1 2.

30.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

The power to change the boundaries of the states rests with the

Correct Answer: A [Parliament]

Explanation:

Under Article 3, only Parliament, by law, can alter the boundaries of states; state legislatures merely give their views.

31.

CTS (ITI LEVEL II) – 2025

Match the following:

(a) B.C. Roy's Proposal — 1. 1948

(b) Fazl Ali Commission — 2. 1956

(d) J.V.P. Committee — 4. 1928

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Correct Answer: B [(2) (3) (4) (1)]

Explanation:

B.C. Roy's proposal was in 1956, the Fazl Ali Commission in 1953, the Motilal Nehru Committee in 1928 and the JVP Committee in 1948: (2) (3) (4) (1).

32.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2026

Arrange the following constitutional amendments suitably:

(a) Control over property rights — 1. 13th Amendment Act

(b) Creation of Nagaland state — 2. 11th Amendment Act

(d) Declaration of Pondicherry as Union Territory — 4. 4th Amendment Act

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Correct Answer: C [4 1 2 3]

Explanation:

The 4th Amendment curbed property rights, the 11th changed the Vice-President's election, the 13th created Nagaland, and the 14th made Pondicherry a UT: 4 1 2 3.

33.

GROUP 2A MAINS – 2025

Assertion [A]: An autonomous sub-state called Meghalaya was established within the state of Assam by the Assam Reorganisation (Meghalaya) Act 1969.

Reason [R]: The state executive and legislature can alter or redistribute the territories of the units of the federation if they so desire.

Correct Answer: A [[A] is true but [R] is false]

Explanation:

A is true as Meghalaya was an autonomous state within Assam from 1970, but R is false since only Parliament, not state legislatures, can alter state territories.

34.

GROUP 2A MAINS (RE-EXAM) – 2026

Match the newly created state with the parent state:

(a) Haryana — 1. Uttar Pradesh

(b) Uttarakhand — 2. Punjab

(d) Chhattisgarh — 4. Bombay

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Correct Answer: A [2 1 4 3]

Explanation:

Haryana was carved out of Punjab, Uttarakhand out of Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat out of Bombay and Telangana out of Andhra Pradesh: 2 1 4 3.

35.

GROUP 2A MAINS (REVOKED) – 2026

Arrange the following states in chronological order by its creation:

(1) Haryana

(2) Goa

(3) Gujarat

(4) Jharkhand

Correct Answer: B [(3), (1), (2), (4)]

Explanation:

The order of creation is Gujarat (1960), Haryana (1966), Goa (1987), and Jharkhand (2000).

36.

Assertion [A]: Telangana state came into existence as the 29th state of the Indian Union.

Reason [R]: The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act of 2014 bifurcated Andhra Pradesh into two separate states, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

Correct Answer: C [Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Telangana became the 29th state in 2014 under the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014, which created it from Andhra Pradesh.

37.

GROUP 1 – 2026

How many members were there in the States Reorganisation Commission (1956)?

Correct Answer: D [Three]

Explanation:

The States Reorganisation Commission had three members: Fazl Ali (chairman), K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru.

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