Indian Polity PYQ – Fundamental Rights – Part 1 (Q 1–49)
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Article 21A and the RTE Act 2009 guarantee free and compulsory education to children aged 6 to 14 years.
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Indian Polity PYQ – Fundamental Rights – Part 1 (Q 1–49) – 49 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.
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1.
ARGS – 2020
According to A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras case which of the following Act was challenged as invalid?
Correct Answer: B [Preventive Detention Act 1950]
Explanation:
A.K. Gopalan challenged his detention under the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 as invalid in the Supreme Court.
2.
VAS AHGS – 2020
How many fundamental freedoms are guaranteed by Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer: B [6]
Explanation:
Article 19 now guarantees six freedoms, since the right to property, 19(1)(f), was dropped by the 44th Amendment.
3.
ADGS – 2021
Which part of Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: C [Part III]
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights are contained in Part III of the Constitution, Articles 12 to 35.
4.
AGGS – 2021
Assertion (A): Most of the crimes committed against the SCs/STs go unreported.
Reason (R): Though the Government has set up courts for preventing untouchability and other offences committed against them, yet these provisions lack 'teeth' and an effective machinery for firmly imparting justice to SCs/STs.
Correct Answer: B [Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)]
Explanation:
Both are true and R explains A: SC/ST atrocities go unreported because the laws against untouchability lack effective enforcement machinery.
5.
AHGS – 2021
Consider the following statements:
(I) The Indian fundamental rights are absolute.
(II) The fundamental rights are enforceable.
Which of the above statements are true?
Correct Answer: B [(II) only]
Explanation:
Only (II) is correct: fundamental rights are enforceable in court but not absolute, since they are subject to reasonable restrictions.
6.
Consider the following statements:
(I) The doctrine of Eclipse is applied in relation to a pre-constitutional law enacted before 26th January 1950.
(II) The Act is eclipsed when the Constitution came into force and a shadow falls on it because it is inconsistent with the Constitution.
(III) All laws governed by Articles 13(1) and 13(2) are pre-constitutional laws.
Which of the above mentioned are correct?
Correct Answer: A [(I) and (II) are correct]
Explanation:
The Doctrine of Eclipse applies to pre-constitutional laws that become dormant when inconsistent with fundamental rights; (III) is wrong as Article 13(2) covers post-constitutional laws.
7.
GROUP 1 – 2021
Which article of Constitution of India mentions the abolition of untouchability?
Correct Answer: B [Article 17]
Explanation:
Article 17 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
8.
Which of the following fundamental rights was converted as legal right?
Correct Answer: D [Right to Property]
Explanation:
The right to property was removed from the fundamental rights by the 44th Amendment (1978) and made a legal right under Article 300A.
9.
CAGS – 2022
In India the constitutionally guaranteed fundamental right to "freedom of speech and expression" is subject to the conditions of
(i) not offending decency and morality
(ii) not committing any contempt of court
(iii) not undermining the security of the State
(iv) not against any religious sentiments
Correct Answer: C [(i), (ii) and (iii)]
Explanation:
Article 19(2) allows restrictions on free speech for decency or morality, contempt of court and security of the State, but 'religious sentiments' is not a separate ground.
10.
Which article says that, "No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or in any hazardous employment"?
Correct Answer: C [Article 24]
Explanation:
Article 24 prohibits employing children below 14 in factories, mines or other hazardous work.
11.
CAGS – 2022 · DPSP – 2022
Preventive detention beyond three months requires authorization from
Correct Answer: D [Advisory Board]
Explanation:
Under Article 22(4), preventive detention beyond three months requires the approval of an Advisory Board of High Court judges.
12.
DPSP – 2022
The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are
(i) They are enforceable in Court of law
(ii) These rights are absolute
(iii) They can be suspended during National Emergency except rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21
(iv) They are available only to Indian Citizens
Correct Answer: B [1 and 3]
Explanation:
Fundamental rights are enforceable in court and can be suspended in a National Emergency except Articles 20 and 21, but they are not absolute nor only for citizens.
13.
EO – 2022
Which article is related with 'Abolition of Untouchability'?
Correct Answer: D [Article 17]
Explanation:
Article 17 deals with the abolition of untouchability.
14.
GROUP 2 – 2022
Which one of the following fundamental rights has been wrongly listed?
Correct Answer: C [Right to Exploitation]
Explanation:
The correct name is the Right against Exploitation (Articles 23-24), not 'Right to Exploitation'.
15.
JAILOR – 2022
(i) The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Article 12 to 35.
(ii) Part III of the Constitution is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India.
Which of the above statement is/are true?
Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii)]
Explanation:
Both are true: Part III (Articles 12-35) contains the Fundamental Rights and is called the Magna Carta of India.
16.
TNPSC – 2022
Which article of Indian Constitution prohibits traffic in human beings and forced labour?
Correct Answer: C [Article 23]
Explanation:
Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and other forms of forced labour.
17.
VAGS – 2022
Which article deals with the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth?
Correct Answer: B [Article 15]
Explanation:
Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
18.
Which fundamental right was deleted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer: C [Right to property]
Explanation:
The 44th Amendment (1978) deleted the right to property from the Fundamental Rights and made it a legal right under Article 300A.
19.
GROUP 4 – 2022
Which is incorrectly matched?
Correct Answer: B [Article 17 — Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment]
Explanation:
Article 17 abolishes untouchability, whereas equality of opportunity in public employment is Article 16, so that pair is mismatched.
20.
GROUP 1 – 2022
Choose the correct answer:
The fundamental rights have been described as
(i) The Magna Carta of India
(ii) The Conscience of the Constitution
(iii) The soul of the Constitution
(iv) Inspiration from Bill of Rights of American Constitution
Correct Answer: D [(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)]
Explanation:
Fundamental rights are called the Magna Carta of India, the conscience and soul of the Constitution, and were inspired by the American Bill of Rights, so all four are correct.
21.
BURSAR – 2023
The fundamental rights are enshrined in ________ of the Indian Constitution.
Correct Answer: B [Part III]
Explanation:
Fundamental rights are in Part III of the Constitution, Articles 12 to 35.
22.
CESGS – 2023
Choose the correct answer.
Elementary education is a fundamental right under Article
Correct Answer: D [Article 21A]
Explanation:
Article 21A, added by the 86th Amendment (2002), makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14.
23.
CSSE – 2023 · CESGS – 2023
Find the odd one out.
Correct Answer: D [Right to property]
Explanation:
Right to property is the odd one out because it ceased to be a fundamental right in 1978, whereas the other three remain fundamental rights.
24.
CSSE – 2023 · CESGS – 2023 · HOSTEL SUPERINTENDENT CUM PTO – 2024
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
Correct Answer: C [If the President orders it during the National Emergency]
Explanation:
Fundamental rights can be suspended only by the President's order during a National Emergency, not by the Supreme Court or Prime Minister.
25.
CBT – 2023
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: D [Right to constitutional remedies]
Explanation:
Dr. Ambedkar called the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) the heart and soul of the Constitution.
26.
GROUP 3A – 2023
In which year was the right to property removed from the list of Fundamental Rights?
Correct Answer: C [1978]
Explanation:
The right to property was removed from the Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act in 1978.
27.
VETERINARY ASSISTANT – 2023
Match the constitutional article with the respective rights of women for their social justice:
(a) Article 14 — 1. Equal opportunity of employment
(b) Article 15 — 2. Freedom of speech
(c) Article 16 — 3. Non-discrimination
(d) Article 19 — 4. Equality
Correct Answer: B [4 3 1 2]
Explanation:
Article 14 gives equality, 15 non-discrimination, 16 equal employment opportunity and 19 freedom of speech, which together support women's social justice: 4 3 1 2.
28.
"No person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law". Which article of the Indian Constitution says like this?
Correct Answer: B [Article 21]
Explanation:
Article 21 states that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
29.
ACF – 2023
Match correctly the writs with their meanings:
(a) Mandamus — (1) To stop
(b) Habeas corpus — (2) To certify
(c) Certiorari — (3) To command
(d) Prohibition — (4) To have the body
Correct Answer: B [(3) (4) (2) (1)]
Explanation:
Mandamus means 'we command', habeas corpus 'to have the body', certiorari 'to certify' and prohibition 'to stop': (3) (4) (2) (1).
30.
GROUP 1C (DEO) – 2023
Match the following Statement I and II:
(a) Heart and Soul of Constitution — 1. Article 24
(b) Protection in respect of conviction for offences — 2. Article 23
(c) Prohibition on human trafficking and forced labour — 3. Article 20
(d) Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc. — 4. Article 32
Correct Answer: D [4 3 2 1]
Explanation:
Article 32 is the heart and soul, Article 20 protects against conviction, Article 23 bans trafficking, and Article 24 bans child labour: 4 3 2 1.
31.
Which of the following are correctly matched?
(1) Habeas Corpus — To command
(2) Certiorari — To certify
(3) Mandamus — To bring the body
(4) Prohibition — To prevent
Correct Answer: D [(2) and (4) are correct]
Explanation:
Certiorari means to certify and prohibition means to prevent, whereas habeas corpus means 'to have the body' and mandamus 'we command', so (2) and (4) are correct.
32.
The 86th Amendment of the Constitution led to the inclusion of a new ________ that made free and compulsory education to all children of 6 – 14 years of age.
(i) Article 21-A
(ii) Article 22-B
(iii) Article 23-C
Correct Answer: A [(i) only]
Explanation:
The 86th Amendment inserted only Article 21A, giving free and compulsory education to children aged 6 to 14; Articles 22-B and 23-C do not exist.
33.
Article that deals with prohibition of trafficking in human beings and forced labour:
Correct Answer: D [Article 23]
Explanation:
Article 23 prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour.
34.
Article 15(4) clearly speaks about
Correct Answer: A [Socially and educationally backward classes]
Explanation:
Article 15(4), added by the First Amendment (1951), allows special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes.
35.
AJ – 2023
Which of the following Amendments made Elementary Education a fundamental right?
Correct Answer: C [86th Amendment Act]
Explanation:
The 86th Amendment Act (2002) inserted Article 21A, making elementary education a fundamental right.
36.
Which one of the following is incorrectly paired?
1. Abolition of Titles — Article 18
2. Supremacy of Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights — Article 31B
3. Abolition of Untouchability — Article 17
4. All are equal before law and equal protection of law — Article 14
Correct Answer: B [2 only]
Explanation:
Article 31B protects Ninth Schedule laws from challenge, whereas the supremacy of Directive Principles over fundamental rights relates to Article 31C, so pair 2 is wrong.
37.
Match correctly the articles of the Indian Constitution with their corresponding constitutional doctrines:
(a) Article 13 — 1. Doctrine of Territorial Nexus
(b) Article 31 — 2. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
(c) Article 245 — 3. Doctrine of Eclipse and Severability
(d) Article 246 — 4. Doctrine of Eminent Domain
Correct Answer: C [3 4 1 2]
Explanation:
Article 13 relates to Eclipse and Severability, Article 31 to Eminent Domain, Article 245 to Territorial Nexus, and Article 246 to Pith and Substance: 3 4 1 2.
38.
GEOLOGY – 2023
Match the following:
(a) Bandhua Mukti Morcha Vs Union of India — 1. The difference between Article 32 and Article 226 explained
(b) Salem Advocate Bar Association Vs Union of India — 2. Environmental directions issued
(c) M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India — 3. Speedy trial applies to civil matters
(d) Smt. Poonam Vs Sumit Tanwar — 4. Healthy environment included in Right to life
Correct Answer: C [4 3 2 1]
Explanation:
M.C. Mehta cases gave environmental directions, and the other pairs match the decisions on Article 32 versus 226, speedy civil trial and a healthy environment under the code 4 3 2 1.
39.
COMBINED RESEARCH ASSISTANT – 2023
The objective of Article 15 of the Indian Constitution is
Correct Answer: A [The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds of race, caste, sex, place of birth etc.]
Explanation:
Article 15 prohibits the State from discriminating against citizens on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
40.
RESEARCH ASSISTANT (ANIMAL HUSBANDRY) – 2023
Which article declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age 6 – 14 years?
Correct Answer: C [Article 21A]
Explanation:
Article 21A provides free and compulsory education to all children aged 6 to 14 years.
41.
Article 30 of the Indian Constitution assures the right of minorities to establish ________ of their choice.
Correct Answer: B [Educational institutions]
Explanation:
Article 30(1) gives religious and linguistic minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
42.
JUNIOR ANALYST (TN MEDICAL SERVICE) – 2023
Match the following:
(a) Art 350A — 1. Mother tongue at primary school level
(b) Art 351 — 2. Spread and development of Hindi
(c) Art 335 — 3. Appointments of SC and ST
(d) Art 51 — 4. Promotion of international peace
Correct Answer: A [1 2 3 4]
Explanation:
Article 350A provides mother-tongue instruction at primary level and Article 351 the spread of Hindi, matching the code 1 2 3 4.
43.
The right to property was taken away as a Fundamental Right by the 44th Amendment Act 1978 and converted as a legal right under Article:
Correct Answer: A [300A]
Explanation:
The 44th Amendment (1978) made the right to property a legal right under Article 300A.
44.
CEGS – 2024
What is the meaning of the term 'State' under Article 12 of the Constitution of India?
1. Government of India and Parliament.
2. State Government and Legislature.
3. All local authorities.
4. All local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.
Correct Answer: D [1, 2, 3 and 4]
Explanation:
Article 12 defines the 'State' to include the Government and Parliament of India, state governments and legislatures, and all local and other authorities, so all four apply.
45.
Select the correct statement(s) with respect to Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution:
(i) Fundamental Rights can be waived by a citizen.
(ii) Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the Supreme Court.
(iii) Fundamental Rights cannot be waived by a citizen.
(iv) Fundamental Rights are the basis of Judicial Review.
Correct Answer: D [(iii) and (iv) only]
Explanation:
Fundamental rights cannot be waived (Basheshar Nath, 1959) and form the basis of judicial review, so (iii) and (iv) are correct.
46.
HINDU RELIGIOUS EO G1 – 2024
With respect to the 9th Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is not correct?
Correct Answer: C [Art. 31 declares that all the Acts under the 9th Schedule are not immune from judicial review]
Explanation:
Option C is wrong because Ninth Schedule protection comes from Article 31B, not Article 31 (deleted in 1978), and such laws are reviewable after I.R. Coelho (2007).
47.
The Indian Constitution does not define OBC, but makes a reference. Identify the article.
Correct Answer: A [Article 16(4)]
Explanation:
Article 16(4) refers to backward classes inadequately represented in state services, and this is where the Constitution mentions OBCs without defining them.
48.
HOSTEL SUPERINTENDENT CUM PTO – 2024
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, which of the following Articles is known as "the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution"?
Correct Answer: D [Article 32]
Explanation:
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32, the right to constitutional remedies, the heart and soul of the Indian Constitution.
49.
The Right to Education provides for free and compulsory education to all the children from the age group of
Correct Answer: C [6 – 14 years]
Explanation:
Article 21A and the RTE Act 2009 guarantee free and compulsory education to children aged 6 to 14 years.
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