Indian Polity PYQ – Fundamental Rights – Part 2 (Q 50–97) | Online Quiz

1.

Match the following:

(a) Article 15 — 1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, gender, etc.

(b) Article 16 — 2. Equality of opportunity in public employment

(c) Article 26 — 3. Freedom to manage religious affairs

(d) Article 29(2) — 4. A ban on discrimination in State-aided educational institutions

Correct Answer: C [1 2 3 4]

Explanation:

All four pairs match in order: Article 15 bans discrimination, 16 gives equal employment opportunity, 26 covers managing religious affairs, and 29(2) bars discrimination in aided institutions.

2.

________ article of the Indian Constitution forbids imparting religious education in any State-funded institution.

Correct Answer: B [28th]

Explanation:

Article 28 forbids religious instruction in educational institutions wholly maintained out of State funds.

3.

AAO & AHO – 2024

Match correctly the rights with their categories respectively:

(a) Right to vote — 1. Cultural rights

(b) Right to form union — 2. Right against exploitation

(c) Right to preserve tradition — 3. Political rights

(d) Child labour — 4. Right to freedom

Correct Answer: A [3 4 1 2]

Explanation:

Voting is a political right, forming a union a freedom, preserving tradition a cultural right, and child labour falls under the right against exploitation: 3 4 1 2.

4.

"It is against the law to employ children below 14 years of age in mines, factories or other occupations". This comes under which category of rights?

Correct Answer: C [Right against exploitation]

Explanation:

Article 24 bans employing children below 14 in mines, factories or hazardous work, and it falls under the Right against Exploitation.

5.

Right to education was inserted in which of the following articles?

Correct Answer: A [Article 21A]

Explanation:

The right to education was inserted as Article 21A by the 86th Amendment (2002).

6.

GROUP 2 & 2A – 2024

Find out the incorrectly matched.

(i) Article 18 – Abolition of Titles

(ii) Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty

(iii) Article 23 – Protection against arrest

(iv) Article 20 – Right to free movement

Correct Answer: A [(iii) and (iv) are incorrectly matched]

Explanation:

Pairs (iii) and (iv) are wrong: protection against arrest is Article 22 (not 23) and the right to free movement is Article 19(1)(d) (not 20).

7.

Assertion [A]: Backward Class Commission under the chairmanship of B.P. Mandal was appointed by the President in exercise of the powers conferred by Article 240.

Reason [R]: The Commission developed eleven indicators to determine backwardness.

Correct Answer: C [[A] is false, [R] is true]

Explanation:

A is false because the Mandal Commission was appointed under Article 340, not Article 240, while R is true as it used eleven indicators of backwardness.

8.

GROUP 1 – 2024

The First Amendment incorporated ________ in the Constitution of India in 1951.

Correct Answer: A [Article 15(4)]

Explanation:

The First Amendment (1951) inserted Article 15(4) after the Champakam Dorairajan case, allowing special provisions for backward classes.

9.

'Free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine' – through ________ Constitutional Amendment Act.

Correct Answer: B [86th]

Explanation:

Article 21A, which provides free and compulsory education for ages 6 to 14, was inserted by the 86th Amendment (2002).

10.

Which are the constitutional provisions for the protection of Other Backward Classes (OBCs)?

(1) Article 15(4)

(2) Article 16(4)

(3) Article 17(1)

(4) Article 19(2)

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (2) are correct]

Explanation:

Article 15(4) and Article 16(4) provide for educational and employment protection of OBCs, while Article 17 and 19(2) are unrelated.

11.

Consider the following statements on Right against Exploitation and find out the correct statements.

(i) Protection of language, script and culture of minorities

(ii) Prohibition of traffic in human beings

(iii) Protection of life

(iv) Prohibition of employment of children in factories

Correct Answer: C [(ii) and (iv) only correct]

Explanation:

The Right against Exploitation covers Article 23 (prohibition of human trafficking) and Article 24 (ban on child labour in factories), so (ii) and (iv) are correct.

12.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2024

Right to Education (RTE) is guaranteed under Article ________ of the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answer: B [Article 21A]

Explanation:

The Right to Education is guaranteed under Article 21A of the Constitution.

13.

CTS (ITI) – 2024

Which Article of the Constitution of India declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years?

Correct Answer: A [Article 21A]

Explanation:

Article 21A says the State shall provide free and compulsory education to children aged 6 to 14 as the State may determine by law.

14.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST-II) – 2024

The Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution are in general considered to be

Correct Answer: D [Negative obligations of the State not to encroach on individual liberty]

Explanation:

Most fundamental rights are negative obligations restraining the State from encroaching on individual liberty.

15.

GROUP 1B & 1C – 2024

Which of the following statements is correct about the RTE Act?

1. To ensure equitable access to quality education for all.

2. The right of children to free and compulsory education.

3. To focus on education for girls and children belonging to weaker sections.

4. To ensure the safety and security of the girls studying in schools.

Correct Answer: C [Only (2)]

Explanation:

Only statement 2 is correct, since the RTE Act's core purpose is the child's right to free and compulsory education for ages 6 to 14.

16.

In which year was the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act passed?

Correct Answer: B [2009]

Explanation:

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act was passed in 2009 and came into force on 1 April 2010.

17.

ASSISTANT PUBLIC PROSECUTOR GRADE II – 2025

Right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights by

Correct Answer: C [44th Amendment Act 1978]

Explanation:

The 44th Amendment Act (1978) removed the right to property from the list of fundamental rights.

18.

SPECIAL COMPETITIVE – 2025

In the Indian Constitution, which Amendment Act repealed Article 31 and added Article 300A?

Correct Answer: D [44th Amendment Act]

Explanation:

The 44th Amendment Act (1978) repealed Article 31 and added Article 300A.

19.

GROUP 1 & 1A – 2025

Which of the following articles on Fundamental Rights is incorrectly paired?

1. Article 12 – Definition of State

2. Article 21 – Right to Education

3. Article 34 – Power of the Parliament to modify the rights

4. Article 35 – Legislation to give effect to the provisions of the fundamental rights

Correct Answer: C [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Pairs 2 and 3 are wrong: the right to education is Article 21A (not 21), and Parliament's power to modify rights for the forces is Article 33, not 34.

20.

Which of the following statements is true about Article 21?

(i) This article reminds us of one of the famous clauses in Magna Carta.

(ii) The Constitution does not confer right to die.

(iii) Custodial death is perhaps one of the worst crimes in a civilised society governed by Administrative Law.

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

Article 21 echoes a Magna Carta clause and the Constitution does not confer a right to die, but custodial death is condemned in D.K. Basu in different words, so (i) and (ii) hold.

21.

GROUP 4 – 2025

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about "The Mandal Commission Report"?

(i) The Commission used three indicators, i.e. Social, Educational and Economic.

(ii) In the social indicator there were five criteria and in the educational indicator there were two criteria.

(iii) In the economic indicator there were four criteria. Thus there were 11 criteria used in the Mandal Commission Report.

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (iii) only]

Explanation:

The Mandal Commission used social, educational and economic indicators with 11 criteria in all, but the social indicator had four and education three, so (ii) is wrong.

22.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

Choose the incorrect pairs:

(1) MISA – Maintenance of Internal Security Act

(2) NASA – National Security Act

(3) TADA – Terrorist and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act

(4) POTA – Prediction of Terrorism Act

Correct Answer: D [(2) and (4)]

Explanation:

NSA is the correct short form for the National Security Act, not NASA, and POTA stands for Prevention (not Prediction) of Terrorism Act, so (2) and (4) are incorrect.

23.

CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

Which among the following is correct, considering the Fundamental Rights given under the Indian Constitution?

(i) They act as limitations upon the powers of the Executive and Legislature.

(ii) They confer powers upon the Executive and Legislature.

(iii) Fundamental Rights originate from the Judiciary.

Correct Answer: A [(i) only]

Explanation:

Fundamental rights limit the powers of the Executive and Legislature; they do not confer powers and originate in the Constitution, not the Judiciary.

24.

Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous occupation?

Correct Answer: D [Article 24]

Explanation:

Article 24 prohibits the employment of children in any factory, mine or other hazardous occupation.

25.

CTS (ITI) – 2025

Match the following:

(a) Abolition of untouchability — 1. Article 326

(b) Abolition of non-educational titles — 2. Article 39

(c) Adult suffrage — 3. Article 17

(d) Directive principles of State policy — 4. Article 18

Correct Answer: A [3 4 1 2]

Explanation:

Untouchability is abolished by Article 17, titles by Article 18, adult suffrage is in Article 326, and the Directive Principles include Article 39: 3 4 1 2.

26.

GROUP 2 & 2A – 2025

"No man shall be taken or imprisoned, disseised or outlawed, or exiled, or in any way destroyed save ... by the law of the land."

This famous clause is in ...

Correct Answer: C [Magna Carta]

Explanation:

This line is a famous clause of Magna Carta (1215), which Article 21's 'procedure established by law' recalls.

27.

CTS (ITI LEVEL II) – 2025

Match the following:

(a) Freedom of religion — 1. Article 28

(b) Freedom to manage religious affairs — 2. Article 27

(c) Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion — 3. Article 25

(d) Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions — 4. Article 26

Correct Answer: A [(3) (4) (2) (1)]

Explanation:

Article 25 is freedom of religion, 26 managing religious affairs, 27 no tax for promoting a religion, and 28 religious instruction: (3) (4) (2) (1).

28.

Choose the correct answer:

Arrange the following days in chronological order on the monthly basis:

1. Equality Day

2. National Integration Day

3. National Science Day

4. Anti-Terrorism Day

Correct Answer: D [3, 1, 4, 2]

Explanation:

By date the order is National Science Day (28 Feb), Equality Day (14 April), Anti-Terrorism Day (21 May), then National Integration Day (19 November): 3, 1, 4, 2.

29.

Identify the correct statement(s) about Fundamental Rights:

(i) The Right to property was removed from the fundamental rights.

(ii) Right to property is not a legal right under Article 300A.

(iii) At present, there are only six Fundamental Rights.

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (iii) only]

Explanation:

The right to property was removed from the fundamental rights and now only six remain, but it is still a legal right under Article 300A, so (i) and (iii) are correct.

30.

Match the following:

(1) 86th Amendment — (i) Inter-State sales tax

(2) 42nd Amendment — (ii) Extension of the state of emergency in Punjab

(3) 48th Amendment — (iii) Fundamental duties

(4) 46th Amendment — (iv) Compulsory free education to children between ages 6 and 14

Correct Answer: C [(iv) (iii) (ii) (i)]

Explanation:

The 86th Amendment is compulsory education, the 42nd fundamental duties, the 48th extension of emergency in Punjab, and the 46th inter-state sales tax: (iv) (iii) (ii) (i).

31.

ASSISTANT PUBLIC PROSECUTOR GRADE II – 2026

Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

(a) Constitution 86th Amendment — 1. 31C

(b) Constitution 44th Amendment — 2. 31A, 31B

(c) Constitution 1st Amendment — 3. 300A

(d) Constitution 25th Amendment — 4. 21A

Correct Answer: D [4 3 2 1]

Explanation:

The 86th Amendment added Article 21A, the 44th added 300A, the 1st added 31A and 31B, and the 25th added 31C: 4 3 2 1.

32.

Choose the right matches:

1. Protection of Civil Rights Act – 1989

2. Second Backward Classes Commission – 1953

3. Untouchability Offences Act – 1955

4. National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation – 1992

Correct Answer: D [3 and 4 are correct]

Explanation:

Untouchability Offences Act was passed in 1955 and the National Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation set up in 1992, so only 3 and 4 are right.

33.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2026

The doctrine of Judicial Review was propounded by

Correct Answer: B [John Marshall]

Explanation:

John Marshall, Chief Justice of the US Supreme Court, propounded judicial review in Marbury v. Madison (1803).

34.

In India, judicial review is carried out on the basis of

(i) fundamental rights

(ii) basic structure of the Constitution

(iii) survey of opinion

(iv) referendum

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

In India courts review laws against fundamental rights and constitutional amendments against the basic structure, not on opinion surveys or referendums.

35.

The following Constitutional Amendments envisage the equality of opportunity for all citizens relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State:

(1) 17th Constitutional Amendment Act 1964

(2) 77th Constitutional Amendment Act 1995

(3) 85th Constitutional Amendment Act 2001

(4) 1st Constitutional Amendment Act 1951

Correct Answer: C [(2) and (3) only]

Explanation:

The 77th and 85th Amendments amended Article 16(4A) on reservation in promotions, relating to equality of opportunity in public employment.

36.

GROUP 2A MAINS – 2025

Article ________ of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children in factories, mines or any other hazardous occupation.

Correct Answer: B [24]

Explanation:

Article 24 prohibits employment of children in factories, mines or other hazardous occupations.

37.

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.

List I (Writs) — List II (Literal meaning)

(a) Habeas Corpus — 1. By what authority

(b) Mandamus — 2. To be certified

(c) Certiorari — 3. We command

(d) Quo Warranto — 4. To have the body of

Correct Answer: A [4 3 2 1]

Explanation:

Habeas corpus means to have the body, mandamus we command, certiorari to be certified, and quo warranto by what authority: 4 3 2 1.

38.

Choose the incorrect one from those given below.

(1) Fundamental freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 are automatically suspended during emergency.

(2) The President has the power to suspend a few rights under Article 359.

(3) Some of the fundamental rights are available only to citizens of India.

(4) The Parliament has power to grant fundamental rights to persons serving in the armed forces.

Correct Answer: D [(4) only]

Explanation:

Statement 4 is incorrect because under Article 33 Parliament can restrict or abrogate the rights of armed forces personnel, not grant them.

39.

GROUP 2A MAINS (RE-EXAM) – 2026

Consider the following statements:

Assertion [A]: Religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.

Reason [R]: A State should maintain a neutral and impartial attitude towards all religions.

Correct Answer: C [[A] is false, [R] is true]

Explanation:

A is false because Article 28(1) bars religious instruction in wholly State-funded institutions, while R is true as the secular State stays neutral toward all religions.

40.

Choose the correct pairs:

(1) Right to Equality – Articles 14 – 18

(2) Right to Freedom – Articles 25 – 28

(3) Right against Exploitation – Articles 23 – 24

(4) Cultural and Educational Rights – Articles 25 – 26

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (3) are correct]

Explanation:

Right to Equality is in Articles 14-18 and Right against Exploitation in 23-24, whereas Right to Freedom is 19-22 and cultural-educational rights 29-30.

41.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) B.P. Mandal was the Chairman of the Second Backward Classes Commission.

(ii) The Commission submitted its report in 1982.

(iii) The Commission did not recommend reservation of 27% Government jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Correct Answer: A [(i) only]

Explanation:

Only (i) is correct: B.P. Mandal chaired the Second Backward Classes Commission, which reported in December 1980 and did recommend 27 percent OBC reservation.

42.

GROUP 2A MAINS (REVOKED) – 2026

Assertion [A]: According to Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, everyone enjoys the right to follow the religion of their choice.

Reason [R]: In India, everyone is free to choose a religion and practise that religion. India does not have any official religion. It means that the Government will not favour any particular religion. The Government can impose restrictions on the practice of religion.

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Both are true and R explains A: Article 25 gives everyone freedom to choose and practise a religion because India is secular with no official religion.

43.

The incorrect statements regarding Article 20 of the Constitution of India are

(i) If an act is not an offence at the date of its commission, no future law can make it an offence.

(ii) A person shall not be brought into danger for one and the same offence more than twice.

(iii) The constitutionality of the Lie-Detector test was dealt with in Pritam Singh vs State of Punjab.

Correct Answer: D [(ii) and (iii) only]

Explanation:

Statements (ii) and (iii) are incorrect: Article 20(2) bars double jeopardy more than once, and lie-detector tests were examined in Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010).

44.

CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2026

Choose the correct answer by using Assertion [A] and Reason [R].

Assertion [A]: Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are in Part III of the Indian Constitution.

Reason [R]: The framers took inspiration from the Bill of Rights of the American Constitution to frame the fundamental rights.

Correct Answer: B [[A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Both are true, but the American Bill of Rights inspired the rights themselves; it does not explain why they are placed in Part III.

45.

GROUP 1 – 2026

Which among the following is correct with regard to Fundamental Rights in India?

(i) Fundamental Rights uphold equality of certain individuals.

(ii) They establish a Government of laws and not of men.

(iii) They promote the ideal of political democracy.

Correct Answer: C [(ii) and (iii) are correct]

Explanation:

Fundamental rights ensure equality of all individuals, not only certain ones, so (i) is wrong; they establish rule of law and promote political democracy.

46.

Which of the following lay the foundation of an egalitarian social order under the Constitution of India?

(i) Abolition of untouchability

(ii) Protection from social injustice and exploitation

(iii) Prohibition of illegal migrants

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

Abolition of untouchability and protection from social injustice and exploitation lay the foundation of an egalitarian social order, whereas barring illegal migrants does not.

47.

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act ensures quality education to which age group?

Correct Answer: D [6 – 14 years]

Explanation:

The RTE Act 2009, under Article 21A, ensures free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years.

48.

GROUP 1C (DEO) – 2023

Match the following judgement with its pair:

"A caste is also a class of citizens and if the caste as a whole is socially and educationally backward, reservation can be made in favour of such a caste on the ground that it is a socially and educationally backward class of citizens within the meaning of Art. 15(4)."

Correct Answer: C [P. Rajendran v. State of Tamil Nadu]

Explanation:

P. Rajendran v. State of Madras (1968) held that a caste can be a socially and educationally backward class under Article 15(4) if the whole caste is backward.

? Full explanations with tables – Indian Polity PYQ book (₹149): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/tnpsc-indian-polity-pyq