Indian Polity PYQ – Union Executive – Part 2 (Q 35–68) | Online Quiz

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Indian Polity PYQ – Union Executive – Part 2 (Q 35–68) – 34 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

In India the real executive authority rests with

Correct Answer: C [The Council of Ministers]

Explanation:

In the parliamentary system the President is a nominal head, and real executive authority rests with the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Match the following:

President – Tenure

(a) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed – 1. 24.08.1969 – 24.08.1974

(b) V.V. Giri – 2. 25.07.1977 – 25.07.1982

(d) Zakir Hussain – 4. 13.05.1967 – 03.05.1969

Correct Answer: C [3 1 2 4]

Explanation:

Zakir Hussain served 1967-69, V.V. Giri 1969-74, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed 1974-77 and Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy 1977-82, giving the code 3 1 2 4.

AJ – 2023

The office of the Directorate of Public Grievances is situated in the

Correct Answer: B [Cabinet Secretariat]

Explanation:

The Directorate of Public Grievances works under the Cabinet Secretariat, to which it was attached in 1988.

Assertion [A]: The Union Executive can transform the federation into a Unitary State.

Reason [R]: The Central Government is vested with a variety of powers to extend its authority over the states.

Read and choose the correct option given below:

Correct Answer: C [Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Both are true and R explains A: through emergency and other powers over the states, the Centre can turn the federation into a unitary state.

JSO – 2023

Consider the following statements and choose the incorrect answer:

(a) The President is a constituent part of Parliament.

(b) He may sit or participate in the discussion in either of the two Houses.

(d) When both the Houses of Parliament are not in session, the President can promulgate ordinances.

Correct Answer: A [(b) and (c) only]

Explanation:

Statements (b) and (c) are incorrect: the President is not a member of either House, and under Article 123 he can promulgate ordinances with the force of law.

Arrange the following Presidents of India in chronological order:

1. K.R. Narayanan

2. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

3. Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

4. R. Venkataraman

Correct Answer: C [4, 3, 1, 2]

Explanation:

The order is R. Venkataraman (1987-92), Shankar Dayal Sharma (1992-97), K.R. Narayanan (1997-2002), then A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (2002-07): 4, 3, 1, 2.

GEOLOGY – 2023

Which of the following statements are true about the Cabinet?

(i) Cabinet system enforces responsibility of the executive to the Legislature

(ii) Cabinet consists of the Prime Minister and his/her senior ministers with important portfolios

(iii) The head of the Cabinet is the Prime Minister

Correct Answer: D [(i), (ii) and (iii)]

Explanation:

All three are true: the Cabinet is responsible to the Legislature, consists of the Prime Minister and senior ministers, and is headed by the Prime Minister.

HINDU RELIGIOUS EO G1 – 2024

Name the Chief Justice of India who acted as President of India when the offices of the President and Vice-President fell vacant.

Correct Answer: B [Justice M. Hidayatullah]

Explanation:

Chief Justice M. Hidayatullah acted as President in July-August 1969 when both the President and Vice-President posts fell vacant.

GROUP 2 & 2A – 2024

Choose the correct pair:

Name of the President – Elected Year

(1) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan – 1961

(2) Dr. Zakir Hussain – 1966

(3) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed – 1974

(4) N. Sanjeeva Reddy – 1977

Correct Answer: C [(3) and (4) are correct]

Explanation:

Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was elected in 1974 and Sanjeeva Reddy in 1977, but Radhakrishnan (1962) and Zakir Hussain (1967) were elected in different years, so (3) and (4) are correct.

10.

GROUP 1 – 2024

(i) The President of India is elected by the system of direct elections.

(ii) The President of India is the nominal head of the State.

Which of the above statements are true?

Correct Answer: B [(ii) only]

Explanation:

The President is elected indirectly through an electoral college (Article 54) and is only the nominal head of the State, so only (ii) is true.

11.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2024

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Cantonment Board?

(i) This system of municipal administration is a British legacy in our country.

(ii) It consists of elected members only.

(iii) The Ministry of Defence exercises direct administrative control over them.

(iv) The executive officer of the board is appointed by the President of the board.

Correct Answer: A [(i) and (iii) only]

Explanation:

The Cantonment Board is a British legacy under the Defence Ministry's direct control, but it has nominated and ex-officio members too and its head is the station commander.

12.

Match the following:

Name of the President – Designated as

(a) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed – 1. Fourth President of India

(b) V.V. Giri – 2. Sixth President of India

(d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy – 4. Third President of India

Correct Answer: C [3 1 4 2]

Explanation:

Zakir Husain was the third President, V.V. Giri the fourth, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed the fifth, and Sanjiva Reddy the sixth, giving 3 1 4 2.

13.

CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2024

Choose the incorrect pair of persons who held the offices of President and Vice-President at the same time:

President – Vice-President

(1) K.R. Narayanan – Krishan Kant

(2) S. Radhakrishnan – Zakir Husain

(3) R. Venkataraman – Shankar Dayal Sharma

(4) Giani Zail Singh – K.R. Narayanan

Correct Answer: B [(4) is incorrect]

Explanation:

Pair (4) is incorrect because Giani Zail Singh's Vice-Presidents were Hidayatullah and R. Venkataraman, not K.R. Narayanan.

14.

GROUP 1B & 1C – 2024

Choose the incorrect statement given below:

I. The Vice-President must be eligible for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

II. While acting as President, the Vice-President gets the salary, allowances, emoluments etc. payable to the Vice-President only.

III. The President determines the strength of judges in the High Court.

IV. The Contingency Fund of India is operated under the President.

Correct Answer: B [(II) only]

Explanation:

Statement II is incorrect because under Article 65(3) the acting President receives the salary and allowances of the President, not the Vice-President's.

15.

ASSISTANT PUBLIC PROSECUTOR GRADE II – 2025

Arrange in chronological order the terms of the following Presidents of India:

(i) N. Sanjeeva Reddy

(ii) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(iii) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

(iv) V.V. Giri

Correct Answer: C [(ii), (iv), (iii), (i)]

Explanation:

The order of Presidents is Zakir Hussain (1967), V.V. Giri (1969), Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (1974), then Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy (1977): (ii), (iv), (iii), (i).

16.

GROUP 1 & 1A – 2025

Consider the following about the Electoral College of the Presidential Election. Which among the following is correct?

Correct Answer: C [The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories]

Explanation:

Under Article 54, the electoral college consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of state Legislative Assemblies.

17.

The Union Executive consists of the

1. Council of Ministers

2. President of India

3. Central Secretariat

4. Vice-President

Choose the correct answer by using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [1, 2 and 4 only]

Explanation:

The Union Executive consists of the President, Vice-President and Council of Ministers; the Central Secretariat is only an administrative machinery.

18.

The false statements about the legislative powers of the President are

(i) The Punchhi Commission has recommended that whenever any State bill is sent to the President for his assent under Article 201, he should give his assent within a period of fifteen days.

(ii) Article 111 of the Constitution gives details regarding the President's role in law making.

(iii) The President is given the right to promulgate ordinances under Article 123.

Correct Answer: A [(i) only]

Explanation:

Only (i) is false: the Punchhi Commission suggested six months for a decision on a reserved state bill, not fifteen days.

19.

GROUP 4 – 2025

Match the Presidents listed below with the distinguished guests who attended the Republic Day celebrations held under their leadership.

Presidents – Distinguished Guests

(a) Droupadi Murmu – 1. Cyril Ramaphosa

(b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam – 2. Prabowo Subianto

(d) Ram Nath Kovind – 4. Barack Obama

Correct Answer: B [2 3 4 1]

Explanation:

Droupadi Murmu hosted Prabowo Subianto, Kalam hosted Putin, Mukherjee hosted Obama, and Kovind hosted Ramaphosa, giving the code 2 3 4 1.

20.

CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

"The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of any State" is a condition of the President's office under

Correct Answer: D [Article 59]

Explanation:

Article 59 says the President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a state legislature.

21.

GROUP 2 & 2A – 2025

Identify the statement that is not correct with regard to the President of India.

Correct Answer: B [President cannot hold office beyond his term of five years]

Explanation:

A President continues in office after the five-year term until his successor takes charge (Article 56), so the statement that he cannot hold beyond five years is incorrect.

22.

Identify the correct order of the Table of Precedence.

Correct Answer: B [Vice-President, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Chief Ministers of States, Ministers of State of the Union]

Explanation:

The Table of Precedence runs Vice-President, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Chief Ministers of States, then Union Ministers of State.

23.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2026

The procedure of election of the Vice-President of India was amended by the ————

Correct Answer: D [11th Amendment Act]

Explanation:

The 11th Amendment (1961) changed the Vice-President's election from a joint sitting to an electoral college of members of both Houses.

24.

GROUP 2A MAINS (RE-EXAM) – 2026

Assertion [A]: The Prime Minister is not responsible for the appointment of the Ministers and allocation of work among them.

Reason [R]: The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha and also the Head of the Council of Ministers.

Correct Answer: B [[A] is false, but [R] is true.]

Explanation:

A is false because the President appoints ministers and allocates portfolios on the Prime Minister's advice; R is true as the PM leads the majority party and heads the Council of Ministers.

25.

Choose the correct statement(s) with regard to the qualifications required to be the Vice-President of India.

(i) He/She should be a citizen of India.

(ii) He/She should have completed 35 years of age.

(iii) He/She should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

The Vice-President must be a citizen of India, at least 35 years old, and qualified to be elected to the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha, so (i) and (ii) are correct.

26.

Consider the following statements regarding the Money Bill:

(i) A Money Bill can be originated in either House of Parliament.

(ii) The House of the People has no power to reject the recommendations made by the Council of States on a Money Bill.

(iii) A Money Bill is associated with the imposition, abolition or remission of any tax.

(iv) A Money Bill is also associated with the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Correct Answer: D [(iii) and (iv) only correct]

Explanation:

Only (iii) and (iv) are correct: a Money Bill covers taxation and withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund, but it originates only in the Lok Sabha, which may reject Rajya Sabha recommendations.

27.

GROUP 2A MAINS (REVOKED) – 2026

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the determination of doubts and disputes relating to the election of the President or Vice-President?

Correct Answer: C [Article 71]

Explanation:

Article 71 provides that doubts and disputes about the election of the President or Vice-President are decided by the Supreme Court, whose decision is final.

28.

CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2026

Match the following:

Vice-President of India – Tenure

(a) Krishan Kant – 1. 1992 – 1997

(b) K.R. Narayanan – 2. 1997 – 2002

(d) B.S. Shekhawat – 4. 2007 – 2012

Correct Answer: D [2 1 4 3]

Explanation:

Narayanan was Vice-President 1992-97, Krishan Kant 1997-2002, Shekhawat 2002-07 and Ansari 2007-12, giving the code 2 1 4 3.

29.

Choose the right answer:

A vacancy in the President's office can occur

(1) On the expiry of his/her term of 6 years

(2) By his/her death

(3) By his/her resignation

(4) On his/her removal by impeachment

Correct Answer: C [(2), (3) and (4) only]

Explanation:

A vacancy arises by death, resignation or impeachment, but the term is five years, not six, so (1) is wrong.

30.

GROUP 1 – 2026

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the election of the President of India?

(i) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.

(ii) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.

(iii) The members of the Legislative Assemblies of all the Union Territories.

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

The electoral college includes the elected members of both Houses and of state assemblies (and Delhi and Puducherry), not all Union Territory members, so (i) and (ii) are true.

31.

Which of the following is incorrectly paired?

(1) Attorney General of India – Appointed by the Prime Minister

(2) Governor – Appointed by the President

(3) Chief Justice of High Court – Appointed by the Chief Minister

(4) Chief Justice of Supreme Court – Appointed by the President

Correct Answer: D [(1) and (3)]

Explanation:

The Attorney General and the High Court Chief Justice are both appointed by the President, not by the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister, so pairs (1) and (3) are wrong.

32.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST-II) – 2024

Consider the following committees and find out the wrong pairs.

(i) Political Affairs Committee – Prime Minister

(ii) Appointments Committee – Home Minister

(iii) Economic Affairs Committee – Finance Minister

(iv) Parliamentary Affairs Committee – Home Minister

Correct Answer: A [(ii), (iii) and (iv) only]

Explanation:

Only the Political Affairs Committee (headed by the PM) is correct; the Appointments, Economic Affairs and Parliamentary Affairs Committees are not headed as paired.

33.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

The president, to exercise veto power is empowered by

Correct Answer: B [Article 111]

Explanation:

Article 111 empowers the President to give or withhold assent to bills passed by Parliament, which is the basis of the veto power.

34.

The dispute over the election of president of India can be filed in the Supreme Court within

Correct Answer: C [30 days]

Explanation:

Under Article 71 and the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, an election dispute must be filed in the Supreme Court within 30 days of the result.

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