Indian Polity PYQ – Union Parliament – Part 2 (Q 33–64)
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Article 110 covers taxation, government borrowing and Consolidated Fund matters; the item in (4), which is outside these heads, does not deal with a Money Bill.
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Indian Polity PYQ – Union Parliament – Part 2 (Q 33–64) – 32 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.
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1.
The ———— Committee's main function is to examine the appropriation of sums granted by the Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India
Correct Answer: A [Public Accounts Committee]
Explanation:
The Public Accounts Committee examines whether sums granted by Parliament were spent as authorised, using the Appropriation Accounts and CAG reports.
2.
HOSTEL SUPERINTENDENT CUM PTO – 2024
The year in which "The Dam Safety Bill" was passed in the Rajya Sabha?
Correct Answer: D [2021]
Explanation:
The Dam Safety Bill was passed by the Rajya Sabha on 2 December 2021, after the Lok Sabha passed it in 2019.
3.
The Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
Correct Answer: B [The Vice-President]
Explanation:
The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha under Articles 64 and 89.
4.
COMBINED ACCOUNTS SERVICES (TN TREASURIES) – 2024
Definition of Money Bills is mentioned in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India
Correct Answer: D [Article 110]
Explanation:
Article 110 defines a Money Bill as one dealing with taxation, borrowing and the Consolidated Fund.
5.
Who enjoys the right to impose reasonable restriction on the fundamental rights?
Correct Answer: C [The Parliament]
Explanation:
Under Article 19(2)-(6), Parliament, by making laws, imposes reasonable restrictions on fundamental rights.
6.
AAO & AHO – 2024
The Parliament House in India was designed by the British architects
Correct Answer: A [Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker]
Explanation:
The old Parliament House was designed by British architects Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker and opened in 1927.
7.
In which country is the Two-Party system in practice?
Correct Answer: A [UK]
Explanation:
The two-party system operates in Britain (Conservative and Labour) and the USA, whereas China and the USSR had one-party systems.
8.
GROUP 4 – 2024
Which of the following statements are true about "Anti-defection law"?
(i) Provided by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985
(ii) Added in the 9th schedule to the Constitution
(iii) Some changes were made by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003
Correct Answer: B [(i) and (iii) only]
Explanation:
The anti-defection law was added by the 52nd Amendment (1985) and amended by the 91st (2003), but it is in the Tenth Schedule, not the Ninth.
9.
GROUP 1 – 2024
The word 'Parliament' is derived from the ———— word 'Parler' which means to talk.
Correct Answer: A [French]
Explanation:
The word Parliament comes from the French word parler, meaning to talk.
10.
CTS (ITI) – 2024
Which state has the largest number of members in Lok Sabha?
Correct Answer: C [Uttar Pradesh]
Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh has the most Lok Sabha seats, 80, ahead of Maharashtra (48) and West Bengal (42).
11.
GROUP 1B & 1C – 2024
Assertion [A] : Money bill originates in both the Lower House and the Upper House of the Parliament.
Reason [R] : The Lower House of Parliament is a popularly elected body.
Correct Answer: D [[A] is false but [R] is true]
Explanation:
A is false because a Money Bill originates only in the Lok Sabha (Article 109), while R is true as the Lok Sabha is directly elected.
12.
SPECIAL COMPETITIVE – 2025
Which Article says that in the Parliamentary business, the presiding officer may allow any member not proficient in Hindi and English to address the House in his mother tongue?
Correct Answer: A [Article 120]
Explanation:
Under Article 120(1), a member not proficient in Hindi or English may address the House in his mother tongue with the presiding officer's permission.
13.
GROUP 1 & 1A – 2025
Arrange the following stages in the enactment of Budget in ascending order
1. Voting on Demands for grants
2. Passing of Finance bill
3. Passing of Appropriation bill
4. Scrutiny by departmental committees
Correct Answer: C [4, 1, 3, 2]
Explanation:
The budget sequence is scrutiny by departmental committees, voting on Demands for Grants, Appropriation Bill, then Finance Bill: 4, 1, 3, 2.
14.
Assertion [A] : Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List
Reason [R] : VIII Schedule of the Constitution contains Union List, State List and Concurrent List
Correct Answer: A [[A] is true, but [R] is false]
Explanation:
A is true because Article 248 gives Parliament residuary power, but R is false since the three Lists are in the Seventh Schedule, not the Eighth.
15.
CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2025
Which of the following statements are true about the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(i) His position is similar to that of the Speaker of the House of Commons of the United Kingdom
(ii) The Speaker shall preside over the joint sitting of the two houses of parliament
(iii) The first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha is Mrs. Ramadevi
Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]
Explanation:
The Speaker's position resembles that of the UK Commons Speaker and he presides over joint sittings, but the first woman Speaker was Meira Kumar (2009), not Ramadevi.
16.
CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2025
Choose the State that has the highest number of seats in the House of the People.
Correct Answer: A [Madhya Pradesh]
Explanation:
Among the options, Madhya Pradesh has the most Lok Sabha seats with 29, ahead of Karnataka (28), Gujarat (26) and Odisha (21).
17.
The joint sittings of the two houses of the Indian Parliament take place in the
Correct Answer: C [Central Hall of Parliament]
Explanation:
All three joint sittings so far (1961, 1978 and 2002) were held in the Central Hall of the old Parliament building.
18.
CTS (ITI) – 2025
Assertion [A] : In Indian legislation, the Lok Sabha has more financial powers.
Reason [R] : Because, if the Rajya Sabha does not return the finance bill within 14 days to Lok Sabha, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses.
Correct Answer: A [Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]
Explanation:
Under Article 109(5), if the Rajya Sabha does not return a Money/annual Finance Bill within 14 days it is deemed passed by both Houses, which is why the Lok Sabha holds financial supremacy.
19.
GROUP 2 & 2A – 2025
Which is/are the key feature/s of the Women's Reservation Bill passed by the Lok Sabha on 20th Sept. 2023?
(i) The Bill reserves 33% of all seats for women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
(ii) It will not apply to the seats reserved for SC/ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislatures.
(iii) Reservation to be provided for 25 years.
(iv) To be effective after delimitation exercise.
Correct Answer: B [(i) and (iv) only]
Explanation:
The 106th Amendment (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023) reserves one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and Assemblies, but takes effect only after the census and delimitation.
20.
CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2026
What is the maximum interval between two sessions of the Parliament?
Correct Answer: C [6 months]
Explanation:
Under Article 85(1), no more than six months may pass between the last sitting of one session and the first sitting of the next, so Parliament must meet at least twice a year.
21.
Which Constitutional Article deals with Parliament's power to create All India Services?
Correct Answer: D [Article 312]
Explanation:
Article 312 allows Parliament to create new All India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting, in the national interest.
22.
GROUP 2A MAINS – 2025
Match the constitutional amendments to their subject matter correctly.
(a) 91st Amendment Act – 1. The Council of Ministers must contain no more than 15% of the Lok Sabha members, including the Prime Minister
(b) 102nd Amendment Act – 2. Women are given one-third of all seats in the Lok Sabha
(c) 105th Amendment Act – 3. It grants constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes
(d) 106th Amendment Act – 4. The State Government is again empowered to identify and specify socially and educationally backward classes
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
Correct Answer: D [1 3 4 2]
Explanation:
The 91st Amendment limited the Council of Ministers to 15% of the Lok Sabha strength and strengthened anti-defection rules; the other amendments match their subjects as in the keyed order 1-3-4-2.
23.
Consider the following statements about the composition of the House of the People and choose the correct one.
Correct Answer: A [It shall be composed of not more than 20 representatives from the Union Territories]
Explanation:
Article 81(1)(b) provides that the Lok Sabha includes not more than 20 members chosen to represent the Union Territories.
24.
Match the following and choose the correct option given below. Union Minister category – Function
(a) Cabinet Minister – 1. Does not work under a Cabinet Minister
(b) Minister of State with independent charge – 2. Participates in every meeting of the Cabinet
(c) Minister of State – 3. Works under a Cabinet Minister
(d) Deputy Minister – 4. Does not have independent charge of any department
Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
Correct Answer: A [2 1 4 3]
Explanation:
A Cabinet Minister attends all Cabinet meetings, a Minister of State with independent charge runs his department himself, and a Minister of State works under a Cabinet Minister, as matched in the key.
25.
GROUP 2A MAINS (RE-EXAM) – 2026
The main function of the Rajya Sabha is to implement the law.
Correct Answer: A [Never]
Explanation:
The Rajya Sabha is a legislative house that debates and passes laws and protects state interests; implementing laws is the work of the executive.
26.
GROUP 2A MAINS (REVOKED) – 2026
Assertion [A] : The Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber, a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
Reason [R] : One-third of its members retire every two years and their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations.
Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]
Explanation:
Article 83(1) makes the Rajya Sabha a permanent house not subject to dissolution, and because one-third of members retire every second year, it is continuous, so R explains A.
27.
Find out the incorrect pairs. States – No. of Seats in Lok Sabha
(1) Tamil Nadu – 40
(2) Telangana – 19
(3) Tripura – 2
(4) Uttarakhand – 5
Correct Answer: A [(1) and (2) are incorrect]
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu has 39 Lok Sabha seats (not 40) and Telangana has 17 (not 19), while Tripura has 2 and Uttarakhand has 5, so pairs (1) and (2) are incorrect.
28.
CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2026
The second joint sitting of the Parliament was held to pass which of the following Bills?
Correct Answer: B [Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill]
Explanation:
The second joint sitting of Parliament (1978, under Article 108) was held to pass the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
29.
GROUP 1 – 2026
Choose the right matches. Dates of constitution of the Lok Sabha
(1) Fourth Lok Sabha – 23.03.1977
(2) Sixth Lok Sabha – 15.03.1971
(3) Eighth Lok Sabha – 31.12.1984
(4) Tenth Lok Sabha – 20.06.1991
Correct Answer: D [(3) and (4) are correct]
Explanation:
Only the Eighth Lok Sabha (31.12.1984) and the following keyed pair are correctly dated; the Fourth and Sixth Lok Sabha dates given in the question are wrong.
30.
Find out the correct statements on the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
(i) This Amendment extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for a further period of ten years, i.e. up to 2030.
(ii) This Amendment eliminated the special representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies by nomination.
(iii) This Amendment extended the special representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies by nomination for a further period of 10 years, i.e. 2030.
Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]
Explanation:
The 104th Amendment (2019) amended Article 334 to extend SC/ST seat reservation in the Lok Sabha and Assemblies by ten years, while ending nominated Anglo-Indian seats, effective from 25 January 2020.
31.
Which of the following statements are not true about the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(1) The decision of the Speaker as to whether a Bill is a Money Bill is final.
(2) The Speaker of Lok Sabha shall submit his resignation letter to the President.
(3) A non-member of Lok Sabha shall be appointed as Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer: D [(2) and (3) only]
Explanation:
The Speaker's decision on a Money Bill is final (Article 110(3)), but the Speaker resigns to the Deputy Speaker (Article 94(b)), so statements (2) and (3) are not true.
32.
ASSISTANT PUBLIC PROSECUTOR GRADE II – 2026
Identify the provision not dealing with a "Money Bill"
(1) The imposition, abolition or regulation of any tax.
(2) The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Government
(3) The custody of the Consolidated Fund or Contingency Fund of India
(4) Imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties or fees for services rendered by any local authority.
Correct Answer: C [(4) only]
Explanation:
Article 110 covers taxation, government borrowing and Consolidated Fund matters; the item in (4), which is outside these heads, does not deal with a Money Bill.
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