Indian Polity PYQ – Centre & State – Spirit Of Federalism | Online Quiz

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Indian Polity PYQ – Centre & State – Spirit Of Federalism – 46 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

GSASO – 2020

Indian Forest Service was established as the third All-India Service in the year

Correct Answer: B [1966]

Explanation:

The Indian Forest Service was created in 1966 as the third All-India Service, under Article 312 and the All-India Services Act, 1951.

GSCE – 2021

According to Article 338A of the Constitution, which commission was set up with effect from 19th February 2004?

Correct Answer: C [National Commission for Scheduled Tribes]

Explanation:

The 89th Amendment (2003) split the SC/ST commission and created the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes under Article 338A, effective 19 February 2004.

PTGS – 2021

To reform Centre-State relations, major recommendations are made by

(i) Sarkaria Commission

(ii) Punchhi Commission

(iii) Rajamannar Committee

(iv) Royal Commission

Select the correct answer by using the code

Correct Answer: D [(i), (ii) and (iii)]

Explanation:

The Sarkaria Commission (1983), Punchhi Commission (2007) and Rajamannar Committee (1969) all made recommendations on reforming Centre-State relations.

GROUP 1 – 2021

Which of the following statements are not true?

(a) In 1969, the Government of Tamil Nadu appointed a two-member committee called Rajamannar Committee to examine Centre-State relations.

(b) It recommended that All-India Services should be abolished.

Correct Answer: A [(a) is not true]

Explanation:

The Rajamannar Committee set up by Tamil Nadu in 1969 was a three-member committee, not a two-member one, so only statement (a) is untrue.

CEGS – 2022

When was the Central Industrial Security Force established?

Correct Answer: D [1969]

Explanation:

The Central Industrial Security Force was established in 1969 under the CISF Act, 1968 to protect public sector undertakings, airports and other key sites.

EO G3 – 2022

The Union List consists of

Correct Answer: A [97 subjects]

Explanation:

The Union List in the Seventh Schedule originally had 97 subjects, compared with 66 in the State List and 47 in the Concurrent List.

GROUP 2 – 2022

Which of the following is / are correct about Cantonment Board?

(i) It is a delimited area where the military forces are permanently stationed

(ii) It does not work under the administrative control of the Defence Ministry

(iii) They are grouped into three categories

Correct Answer: A [(i) only correct]

Explanation:

A Cantonment Board governs a delimited area where military forces are permanently stationed, which is the defining feature, so only statement (i) is correct.

JAILOR – 2022

The aim of appointing the Sarkaria Commission was to make recommendations on

Correct Answer: B [Centre-State relations]

Explanation:

The Sarkaria Commission was appointed in 1983 to examine and recommend changes in Centre-State relations.

SURVEYOR DRAUGHTSMAN – 2022

Assertion [A] : Article 312 of the Indian Constitution provides for All India Services.

Reason [R] : The states wanted to have uniformity in bureaucracy.

Correct Answer: A [[A] is true but [R] is false]

Explanation:

Article 312 provides for All India Services, but they were created for national uniformity and standards, not because the states wanted them, so R is false.

10.

TNPSC – 2022

The Central Administrative Tribunal was set up in

Correct Answer: B [1985]

Explanation:

The Central Administrative Tribunal was set up in 1985 under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, based on Article 323A.

11.

VAGS – 2022

Who stated that "India is not a federation at all"?

Correct Answer: A [K.P. Mukherji]

Explanation:

K.P. Mukherji is the scholar who remarked that India is not a federation at all, reflecting the strongly unitary features of the Constitution.

12.

GROUP 1 – 2022

Which are the Articles that describe situations and confer power on the Union Government to claim control over States?

Correct Answer: C [Art 365, 256 and 257]

Explanation:

Articles 256, 257 and 365 give the Union power to direct states and treat failure to comply as a constitutional breakdown, enabling Union control over states.

13.

Assertion [A] : Federalism is merely an institutional arrangement for sharing power across multiple levels of government based on the principle of shared rule and self rule.

Reason [R] : Federations have constantly adjusted and adapted depending on political, social and economic situations.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Federalism is an arrangement of shared rule and self rule across levels of government; both statements are true but R does not explain A as the key indicates.

14.

ROAD INSPECTOR – 2023

Which of the following is not a type of relationship between the Centre and the States?

Correct Answer: D [Public relations]

Explanation:

The Constitution classifies Centre-State relations as legislative, administrative and financial; there is no category called public relations.

15.

LIBRARY SCIENCE – 2023

The mechanisms for balancing the financial might of the Centre and the needs of the States are :

(i) Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance

(ii) NITI Aayog

(iii) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(iv) Finance Commission

Correct Answer: C [(ii) and (iv) only]

Explanation:

The Finance Commission (Article 280) and the other keyed body balance Centre's finances with state needs, so only (ii) and (iv) are correct.

16.

BURSAR – 2023

Which of the following is not listed under the Union List?

Correct Answer: C [Capitation Tax]

Explanation:

Capitation tax is a State List subject, whereas corporation tax, non-agricultural income tax and customs duty are Union List entries.

17.

CESGS – 2023

Choose the correct statements:

(I) Rajamannar Commission on Centre-State relations was established by the Tamil Nadu Govt in 1983

(II) The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains the three lists relating to the distribution of powers between the Centre and the States.

(III) The Centre-State relations revolve around the fulcrum of distribution of powers between Centre and State

(IV) The powers are distributed between the Union and State governments territorially.

Correct Answer: C [(II), (III) and (IV)]

Explanation:

The Rajamannar Committee was set up by Tamil Nadu in 1969 (not 1983), so statement (I) is wrong, while statements (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

18.

HEALTH OFFICER – 2023

________ in Part XI of the Indian Constitution deal with the administrative relations between the Centre and the States.

Correct Answer: C [Articles 256 to 263]

Explanation:

Articles 256 to 263 in Part XI, Chapter II deal with administrative relations between the Centre and the States.

19.

ACF – 2023

The Indian Constitution makes a clear division of fiscal powers between the States and the Centre under which Articles?

Correct Answer: C [Article 264 and 293]

Explanation:

Articles 264 to 293 in Part XII lay out the distribution of fiscal powers between the Centre and the States, including tax sharing, grants and borrowing.

20.

RESEARCH ASSISTANT (ANIMAL HUSBANDRY) – 2023

"Delegated Legislation" belongs to the realm of

Correct Answer: A [Administrative law]

Explanation:

Delegated legislation, where the legislature lays down the policy and the executive frames rules and regulations, belongs to administrative law.

21.

MASS INTERVIEWER – 2023

Who was the Chairman of the Second Commission on Centre-State Relations?

Correct Answer: A [Madan Mohan Punchhi]

Explanation:

The Second Commission on Centre-State Relations (2007) was chaired by Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, a former Chief Justice of India.

22.

CEGS – 2024

I. In the subjects enumerated in the "Concurrent List" both the Union and States can legislate.

II. In the event of contradictions between the Union and States, the State's authority will prevail.

Which of the above statements is / are true?

Correct Answer: A [I only]

Explanation:

Both Parliament and state legislatures can legislate on Concurrent List subjects, but under Article 254 the Union law prevails in a conflict, so only statement I is true.

23.

HOSTEL SUPERINTENDENT CUM PTO – 2024

Which of the following Committees / Commissions made recommendations on Centre-State relations?

1. M.N. Venkatachaliah Commission

2. Sarkaria Commission

3. Punchhi Commission

4. Rajamannar Committee

Correct Answer: C [2, 3 and 4]

Explanation:

The Rajamannar (1969), Sarkaria (1983) and Punchhi (2007) bodies were set up to examine Centre-State relations, whereas the Venkatachaliah Commission reviewed the working of the Constitution.

24.

GROUP 4 – 2024

Assertion [A] : Article 249 of the Constitution enables the Parliament to transfer a subject from the State List to the Union List.

Reason [R] : It is for the purpose of legislation by Parliament on grounds of national interest.

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Article 249 lets Parliament legislate on a State List subject in the national interest if the Rajya Sabha passes a two-thirds resolution, so R correctly explains A.

25.

GROUP 2 & 2A – 2024

Find out the incorrect statements about the Sarkaria Commission :

(i) The Commission was appointed in 1983

(ii) The Commission made 247 recommendations

(iii) The Commission recommended to scrap Article 356

(iv) The Commission recommended that the residuary powers of taxation should be given to the States

Correct Answer: A [(iii) and (iv) only]

Explanation:

The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 and made 247 recommendations, but it did not recommend scrapping Article 356, so statements (iii) and (iv) are incorrect.

26.

GROUP 1 – 2024

Arrange the following bodies in the chronological order of their establishment.

Correct Answer: B [First Administrative Reforms Commission, Rajamannar Committee, Sarkaria Commission, Punchhi Commission]

Explanation:

In order: First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966), Rajamannar Committee (1969), Sarkaria Commission (1983) and Punchhi Commission (2007).

27.

SPECIAL COMPETITIVE – 2025

Choose the correct matches :

(1) Sarkaria Commission – 1983

(2) Rajamannar Commission – 1973

(3) Punchhi Commission – 2007

(4) Venkatachaliah Commission – 2002

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (3) are correct]

Explanation:

The Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 and the Punchhi Commission in 2007, while the Rajamannar Committee dates from 1969, so pairs (1) and (3) are correct.

28.

GROUP 4 – 2025

Arrange in chronological order the commissions / committees on Centre-State relations

(1) Punchhi Commission

(2) Rajamannar Commission

(3) Sarkaria Commission

(4) Venkatachaliah Commission

Correct Answer: D [(2), (3), (4), (1)]

Explanation:

The chronological order is Rajamannar (1969), Sarkaria (1983), Venkatachaliah (2000) and Punchhi (2007).

29.

GROUP 1 & 1A – 2025

Assertion [A] : The zonal councils owe their origin to the Constitution.

Reason [R] : The zonal councils are the logical outcome of the reorganisation of states on a linguistic basis.

Correct Answer: D [[A] is wrong; [R] is correct]

Explanation:

Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 as an outcome of linguistic reorganisation, not constitutional bodies, so A is false and R true.

30.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

Consider the following statements with regard to the Indian Federation and select the correct option.

(i) There is a bifurcation of the judiciary between the Centre and the State

(ii) There is no equality of representation of the States in the Council of States

(iii) Even in the normal working, the federal system is given the strength of federal features

Correct Answer: C [(ii) alone is correct]

Explanation:

India has an integrated, single judiciary rather than separate federal and state courts, so statement (i) is wrong and only statement (ii) is correct.

31.

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 empowered the Centre to deploy its forces to maintain law and order in any state by inserting

Correct Answer: B [Article 257A]

Explanation:

The 42nd Amendment (1976) inserted Article 257A, allowing the Centre to deploy armed forces in any state to deal with a grave law and order situation.

32.

CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

Which of the following statements are true about grants-in-aid?

(1) Grants-in-aid are governed by the Union Government.

(2) Grants under Art. 275 are given to the States in need of assistance and their quantum is decided by the Finance Commission.

(3) For the distribution of grants under Art. 275, the Second Finance Commission formulated a number of principles.

Correct Answer: A [(2) only]

Explanation:

Under Article 275, Parliament provides statutory grants-in-aid to states in need as recommended by the Finance Commission, so only statement (2) is true.

33.

"Of all checks on Democracy, federalism has been the most efficacious and the most congenial. The federal system limits and restrains the sovereign power by dividing it and by assigning to the Government only certain defined rights." This was said by

Correct Answer: B [Lord Acton]

Explanation:

The remark that federalism is the most efficacious check on democracy comes from the British historian Lord Acton.

34.

GROUP 2 & 2A – 2025

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists :

List I (Articles) – (a) Art 280, (b) Art 263, (c) Art 262, (d) Art 279A

List II (Councils) – 1. Inter-State Council, 2. Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunal, 3. Goods and Services Tax Council, 4. Finance Commission

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

Correct Answer: B [4 1 2 3]

Explanation:

Article 280 is the Finance Commission, 263 the Inter-State Council, 262 inter-state water disputes and 279A the GST Council, i.e. 4 1 2 3.

35.

CTS (ITI LEVEL II) – 2025

Arrange the following in chronological order (Inter-State Water Dispute Tribunals):

1. Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal

2. Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal

3. Ravi and Beas Water Disputes Tribunal

4. Vansadhara Water Disputes Tribunal

Correct Answer: A [2, 3, 1, 4]

Explanation:

Tribunals in order of constitution: Krishna (1969), Ravi-Beas (1986), Cauvery (1990), and the later keyed tribunal, giving 2, 3, 1, 4 as per the key.

36.

ASSISTANT PUBLIC PROSECUTOR GRADE II – 2026

Assertion [A] : Article 355 empowers the Union Government to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance.

Reason [R] : It ensures that the Government of every State is carried on according to the Constitution.

Correct Answer: D [[A] and [R] are correct; [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Article 355 makes it the Union's duty to protect states from external aggression and internal disturbance and ensure governance per the Constitution; both are true but R does not explain A.

37.

"The Constitution provides that without depriving the States of their right to form their own civil services there shall be an All India Service recruited on an all-India basis with common qualifications, with uniform scale of pay and the members of which alone could be appointed to these strategic posts throughout the Union."

The above statement was made by

Correct Answer: A [Dr. B.R. Ambedkar]

Explanation:

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar said in the Constituent Assembly that India has a dual polity but a single, integrated civil service system, with All-India Services.

38.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2026

Which one of the following is not a feature of federalism?

Correct Answer: D [The Centre can order the State Government]

Explanation:

In a federation each level has its own constitutional sphere of power, so the Centre cannot simply issue orders to states; that is not a federal feature.

39.

Which one of the following Acts spoke about a "Federal Structure"?

Correct Answer: B [Government of India Act, 1935]

Explanation:

The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed an all-India federation with division of powers, making it the Act that spoke of a federal structure.

40.

GROUP 2A MAINS (RE-EXAM) – 2026

Choose the right matches

(1) Quasi-Federal – K.C. Wheare

(2) Bargaining Federalism – C.R. Das

(3) Co-operative Federalism – Granville Austin

(4) Federation with a Centralising Tendency – Jawaharlal Nehru

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (3) only]

Explanation:

K.C. Wheare called India's system quasi-federal and Granville Austin described co-operative federalism, so pairs (1) and (3) are correct.

41.

Which one of the following is not a part of the Federal Legislature according to the Government of India Act, 1935?

Correct Answer: D [Responsible Government]

Explanation:

Under the 1935 Act the Federal Legislature consisted of the Crown, the Council of State and the Federal Assembly; responsible government is not a part of it.

42.

GROUP 1 – 2026

Identify the country that does not have a federal system of government.

Correct Answer: D [South Africa]

Explanation:

Russia, Switzerland and Australia are federations, but South Africa has a quasi-unitary system and is not a classic federal state.

43.

Which of the following is / are true about the residuary powers under the Constitution?

(i) It follows the precedent of Canada.

(ii) The Constitution vests the residuary power in the Union Legislature.

(iii) Residuary powers are conferred upon the courts.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

Article 248 vests residuary powers in Parliament (Union List entry 97), following the Canadian model, so statements (i) and (ii) are true.

44.

Consider the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission. Which among the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer: D [A member of the UPSC shall be eligible for appointment as the Chairman of the UPSC]

Explanation:

Under Article 319(b), a UPSC member can later be appointed Chairman of the UPSC; its expenses are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India and members are appointed by the President.

45.

Which of the following features are true about a federal system?

(i) Distribution of Powers

(ii) Separation of Powers

(iii) Dual Government

(iv) A strong Union Government

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (iii) only]

Explanation:

Distribution of powers and a dual government at Centre and state levels are basic features of a federal system, while separation of powers is a different principle.

46.

JUNIOR ANALYST (TN MEDICAL SERVICE) – 2023

Under which Act the States have the power to borrow outside India with the consent of the centre?

Correct Answer: C [Government of India Act, 1935]

Explanation:

Under Section 163(3) of the Government of India Act, 1935, a province could borrow outside India only with the consent of the Federal government.

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