Indian Polity PYQ – Judiciary – Part 2 (Q 31–59) | Online Quiz

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Indian Polity PYQ – Judiciary – Part 2 (Q 31–59) – 29 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

GROUP 4 – 2024

Which of the following States have a common High Court?

Correct Answer: C [Punjab and Haryana]

Explanation:

The Punjab and Haryana High Court at Chandigarh is the common High Court for Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh.

GROUP 1 – 2024

Match the following (Article – Subject):

(a) 124C – 1. Seat of Supreme Court

(b) 125 – 2. Power of Parliament to make law

(d) 130 – 4. Appointment of Acting Chief Justice

Correct Answer: A [2 3 4 1]

Explanation:

Article 124C is Parliament's power to make law on judges' appointments, 125 deals with judges' salaries, and 126 and 127 cover acting and ad hoc judges, matching 2 3 4 1.

The power of Judicial Review relates to

Correct Answer: B [Declaring laws of Parliament that are against the Constitution unconstitutional]

Explanation:

Judicial review is the power of courts to declare laws and executive orders that violate the Constitution unconstitutional.

Find the incorrect pairs in the following:

(1) ICT – Information and Communication Technology

(2) NJDG – National Judicial Data Governance

(3) CIS – Case Information Software

(4) ADR – Alternate Dispute Redressal

Correct Answer: C [(2) and (4) only]

Explanation:

ICT is Information and Communication Technology and NJDG is National Judicial Data Grid; the incorrect pairs are (2) and (4) because of their wrong expansions or descriptions.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2024

Find out the incorrect reason with respect to the need for Judicial Review:

(i) To uphold the principle of the supremacy of the Constitution

(ii) To maintain federal equilibrium

(iii) To protect the fundamental rights of the citizens

(iv) To keep the people's will supreme

Correct Answer: B [(iv) only]

Explanation:

Judicial review upholds constitutional supremacy, the federal balance and fundamental rights; the reason in (iv) is not a valid need for it.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST-II) – 2024

Which of the following has recommended that the National Judicial Council should be authorised to lay down the code of conduct for judges?

Correct Answer: C [Second Administrative Reforms Commission]

Explanation:

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (chaired by Veerappa Moily) in its Ethics in Governance report recommended a National Judicial Council to frame a code of conduct for judges.

GROUP 1B & 1C – 2024

Find out which of the High Courts is / are not located in its State capital:

(i) Gujarat High Court

(ii) Kerala High Court

(iii) Himachal Pradesh High Court

(iv) Meghalaya High Court

Correct Answer: A [(i) and (ii)]

Explanation:

Gujarat High Court is at Ahmedabad though the capital is Gandhinagar, and Kerala High Court is at Ernakulam though the capital is Thiruvananthapuram.

The Supreme Court has the power to review its own judgements and orders according to

Correct Answer: A [Article 137]

Explanation:

Article 137 empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments and orders, subject to rules made under Article 145.

SPECIAL COMPETITIVE – 2025

Identify the statement that is false.

Correct Answer: D [The e-Courts project was established in 2000]

Explanation:

The e-Courts project grew from the 2005 national policy with its first phase from 2007, so the statement giving a different date is false.

10.

GROUP 1 & 1A – 2025

Match:

(a) Article 257(A) – 1. Grants-in-aid

(b) Article 131 – 2. Judicial proceedings

(d) Article 275 – 4. State jurisdiction

5. 42nd Amendment Act

Correct Answer: A [5 3 4 1]

Explanation:

Article 257A concerned deployment of Union forces, 131 is the Supreme Court's original jurisdiction, 245(1) is the territorial extent of laws and the last pair completes the keyed matching 5 3 4 1.

11.

Choose the right matches:

1. Power of High Courts to issue certain writs – Article 226

2. Transfer of certain cases to High Court – Article 178

3. Establishment of a common High Court for two or more States – Article 231

4. Extension of jurisdiction of High Courts to Union Territories – Article 320

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Article 226 gives High Courts power to issue writs and the keyed third item is also correctly paired, so statements 1 and 3 are right; transfer of cases is Article 228.

12.

Assertion [A]: Art. 121 prohibits any discussion in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties.

Reason [R]: The objective of Art. 121 is to ensure the independence and dignity of the Judiciary.

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Article 121 bars Parliament from discussing the conduct of a Supreme Court or High Court judge except on a removal motion, to protect judicial independence, so R explains A.

13.

GROUP 4 – 2025

Consider the Assertion [A] and Reason [R].

Assertion [A]: Supreme Court judges are to be appointed by the President.

Reason [R]: In the case of appointment of the judges, the Law Minister of India shall always be consulted.

Correct Answer: C [[A] is true but [R] is false]

Explanation:

Supreme Court judges are appointed by the President, but Article 124(2) requires consultation with Supreme Court and High Court judges, not the stated reason, so R is false.

14.

CTS (INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

Assertion [A]: The Supreme Court of India constituted a "Special Bench" titled the "Social Justice Bench".

Reason [R]: It provides a specialised approach for the early disposal of cases relating to social issues.

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

The Supreme Court constituted a Social Justice Bench in December 2014 to hear matters of marginalised people, which explains the assertion.

15.

CTS (NON-INTERVIEW POST) – 2025

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested with

Correct Answer: C [The Parliament]

Explanation:

Under Article 124(1), the number of Supreme Court judges beyond the original number is fixed by Parliament by law.

16.

Which of the following propositions were laid down by the Supreme Court with respect to the doctrine of prospective overruling?

(i) It can be invoked only in matters arising under the Constitution.

(ii) It can be applied only by the Supreme Court.

(iii) It overrules an old precedent retrospectively.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

In Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967) the Court laid down prospective overruling, applicable to constitutional matters and available only to the Supreme Court, so (i) and (ii) are correct.

17.

CTS (ITI) – 2025

The correct statements on the Supreme Court of India are

(i) Established on January 28, 1950

(ii) Justice Harilal J. Kania was the first Chief Justice

(iii) It moved to the present building in 1988

Correct Answer: D [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

The Supreme Court was established on 28 January 1950, and Justice Harilal J. Kania was its first Chief Justice, so statements (i) and (ii) are correct.

18.

GROUP 2 & 2A – 2025

Match Column (A) with Column (B) (Theme – Year):

(a) Judicial Activism – 1. 1976

(b) Ethical Governance (SARC) – 2. 1997

(d) Administrative Tribunal – 4. 2007

Correct Answer: B [3 4 2 1]

Explanation:

Judicial activism dates to 1947, ethical governance (SARC) to 2007, and the others match as in the keyed code 3 4 2 1.

19.

Choose the correct answer using Assertion [A] and Reason [R]:

Assertion [A]: The Constitution of India specifically mentions the power of Judicial Review.

Reason [R]: The Judiciary has successfully expanded the scope of Judicial Review over the years.

Correct Answer: C [[A] is false, [R] is true]

Explanation:

The Constitution nowhere uses the term judicial review; the power derives from Articles 13, 32, 226 and others, so A is false and R true.

20.

CTS (ITI LEVEL II) – 2025

Assertion [A]: Family court is established for speedy trial and settlement of family disputes.

Reason [R]: In 1984, the Law Commission of India submitted its 59th report to the Government of India for passing an exclusive Act to settle family matters.

Correct Answer: A [[A] is true; [R] is false]

Explanation:

Family Courts were set up under the Family Courts Act, 1984 for speedy settlement of family disputes, so A is true, but the stated reason about the Law Commission is incorrect.

21.

ASSISTANT PUBLIC PROSECUTOR GRADE II – 2026

Assertion [A]: Removal of the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts is the exclusive power of Parliament under Articles 124 and 218 of the Constitution.

Reason [R]: Removal of judges by Parliament is supported by special majority, after enquiry under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

Correct Answer: A [Both [A] and [R] are correct; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

Under Articles 124(4) and 218, judges can be removed only by Parliament through an address, so removal is Parliament's exclusive power and R explains A.

22.

GROUP 2A MAINS – 2025

Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Parliament is empowered to constitute a High Court for any Union Territory.

(ii) Of all the Union Territories, Delhi does not have a separate High Court of its own.

(iii) Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram became full-fledged States in 1987.

Correct Answer: D [(i) and (iii) only]

Explanation:

Article 241 lets Parliament constitute a High Court for a Union Territory, and the other keyed statement (iii) is also true, so (i) and (iii) are correct.

23.

Choose the right matches (sources of the Indian Constitution).

(1) UK – Bicameral Legislature

(2) USSR – Independent Judiciary

(3) Australia – Five Year Plans

(4) USA – Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (4)]

Explanation:

The UK is the source of the bicameral legislature and parliamentary system, and the other keyed pair (4) is also correct, so pairs (1) and (4) are right.

24.

GROUP 2A MAINS (REVOKED) – 2026

Which among the following statements are true about speedy justice delivery for the marginalised?

(i) The Department of Justice is implementing a centrally sponsored scheme for setting up of fast track courts since 2019.

(ii) The 14th Finance Commission endorsed the proposal of the Department of Justice for setting up 1800 Fast Track Courts (FTCs).

(iii) Over 1000 FTCs are functional in 18 States.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

Explanation:

According to the Law Ministry's reply in the Lok Sabha in February 2024, both keyed statements on speedy justice for the marginalised are true.

25.

GROUP 1 – 2026

Assertion [A]: "Ascertaining caste as part of the ongoing nationwide census exercise was nothing wrong" – Supreme Court.

Reason [R]: Ascertaining caste helps to know how many people are in need of welfare, and it is a matter of public policy.

Correct Answer: A [[A] and [R] are correct; [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

Explanation:

On 20 May 2026 a Supreme Court bench under CJI Surya Kant held that recording caste in the census was not wrong, and the reason given supports that view.

26.

Which of the following statement(s) is / are true about the Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court?

(i) It started functioning on 24th June 2004.

(ii) It was inaugurated by the Chief Justice of India, R.C. Vijaya Kamalesh Tahilramani.

(iii) The Madurai Bench currently (2026) covers 14 judicial districts.

Correct Answer: C [(iii) only]

Explanation:

The Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court began functioning in July 2004, not on the date in statement (i), and only statement (iii) is correct.

27.

GSASO – 2020

The first Lok Adalat was held in the city

Correct Answer: A [Una]

Explanation:

India's first Lok Adalat was held at Una in Gujarat in 1982.

28.

GSCE – 2021

Lok Adalat was introduced in the year

Correct Answer: B [1987]

Explanation:

Lok Adalats got statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, after the first camp at Una in 1982.

29.

GROUP 1 – 2022

Identify the incorrect statement about Lok Adalat

Correct Answer: B [It is not a tool of the legal system]

Explanation:

Lok Adalat is a statutory body under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, so saying it is not a tool of the legal system is false.

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