SSC CGL Polity – Mock Test 3 – Tier II Style
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A is true under s.8(3) of the RPA, 1951; Art.
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SSC CGL Polity – Mock Test 3 – Tier II Style – 25 questions, subject: Indian Polity & Governance. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.
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1.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the Company's monopoly of the tea trade.
II. The Charter Act of 1853 separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General's council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The Charter Act of 1813 ended the Company's monopoly of the tea trade.
II. The Charter Act of 1853 separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General's council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: B [Only II]
Explanation:
1853 – separation, open competition; 1813 ended the monopoly except tea and the China trade.
2.
Chronological orderArrange in chronological order:
1. National Flag adopted by the Constituent Assembly
2. Constitution adopted
3. Objectives Resolution moved
4. Drafting Committee set up
1. National Flag adopted by the Constituent Assembly
2. Constitution adopted
3. Objectives Resolution moved
4. Drafting Committee set up
Correct Answer: C [3, 1, 4, 2]
Explanation:
13 Dec 1946 → 22 Jul 1947 → 29 Aug 1947 → 26 Nov 1949.
3.
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): A law that forms a new State under Art. 3 can be passed by a simple majority of Parliament.
Reason (R): Art. 4 says such a law is not an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Art. 368.
Reason (R): Art. 4 says such a law is not an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Art. 368.
Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A]
Explanation:
Art. 4 takes these laws out of Art.
4.
Match the followingMatch the Part of the Constitution with its subject:
a. Part IX
b. Part XV
c. Part XVII
d. Part XVIII
1. The Panchayats
2. Emergency Provisions
3. Elections
4. Official Language
a. Part IX
b. Part XV
c. Part XVII
d. Part XVIII
1. The Panchayats
2. Emergency Provisions
3. Elections
4. Official Language
Correct Answer: B [a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2]
Explanation:
IX – Panchayats; XV – Elections; XVII – Official Language; XVIII – Emergency.
5.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. For naturalisation, the applicant must have lived in India for the 12 months just before applying.
II. A minor child of an Indian citizen can become a citizen only by naturalisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. For naturalisation, the applicant must have lived in India for the 12 months just before applying.
II. A minor child of an Indian citizen can become a citizen only by naturalisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A [Only I]
Explanation:
Third Schedule – 12 months + 11 of the 14 years before; minor children of citizens come under registration (s.5).
6.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. No religious instruction may be given in an educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
II. In an institution recognised or aided by the State, no person can be compelled to attend religious instruction without consent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. No religious instruction may be given in an educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds.
II. In an institution recognised or aided by the State, no person can be compelled to attend religious instruction without consent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: C [Both I and II]
Explanation:
Answer: Both I and II. Art. 28(1) and 28(3).
7.
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): Art. 22(4) still allows preventive detention for up to three months without an Advisory Board report.
Reason (R): The 44th Amendment's change of this period to two months has not yet been brought into force.
Reason (R): The 44th Amendment's change of this period to two months has not yet been brought into force.
Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A]
Explanation:
The amended clause awaits notification, so the original three months applies.
8.
Chronological orderArrange these changes in the order in which they were made:
1. Art. 21A – right to education
2. Art. 31C inserted
3. Art. 43B – co-operative societies
4. Part IVA – Fundamental Duties
1. Art. 21A – right to education
2. Art. 31C inserted
3. Art. 43B – co-operative societies
4. Part IVA – Fundamental Duties
Correct Answer: C [2, 4, 1, 3]
Explanation:
25th (1971) → 42nd (1976) → 86th (2002) → 97th (2011).
9.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. The election of the President cannot be questioned on the ground of a vacancy in the electoral college.
II. Disputes over the Vice-President's election are decided by the Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The election of the President cannot be questioned on the ground of a vacancy in the electoral college.
II. Disputes over the Vice-President's election are decided by the Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A [Only I]
Explanation:
Art. 71 – disputes go to the Supreme Court; vacancy in the college is no ground.
10.
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): The President may send the Council of Ministers' advice back for reconsideration, but only once.
Reason (R): The 42nd Amendment added a proviso to Art. 74(1) to that effect.
Reason (R): The 42nd Amendment added a proviso to Art. 74(1) to that effect.
Correct Answer: C [A is true, but R is false]
Explanation:
A is true, but the proviso came with the 44th (1978); the 42nd (1976) made the advice binding.
11.
Match the followingMatch the Deputy Prime Minister with the year he took office:
a. Vallabhbhai Patel
b. Morarji Desai
c. Devi Lal
d. L. K. Advani
1. 1947
2. 2002
3. 1967
4. 1989
a. Vallabhbhai Patel
b. Morarji Desai
c. Devi Lal
d. L. K. Advani
1. 1947
2. 2002
3. 1967
4. 1989
Correct Answer: B [a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2]
Explanation:
Patel 1947; Morarji 1967; Devi Lal 1989; Advani 2002.
12.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. A resignation from a House takes effect only if the presiding officer is satisfied that it is voluntary and genuine.
II. An MP's freedom from arrest applies to criminal cases as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. A resignation from a House takes effect only if the presiding officer is satisfied that it is voluntary and genuine.
II. An MP's freedom from arrest applies to criminal cases as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A [Only I]
Explanation:
33rd Amendment (1974); freedom from arrest is for civil cases only.
13.
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): The Lok Sabha alone can, by resolution, enable Parliament to make a law on a State List subject in the national interest.
Reason (R): Art. 249 needs a Rajya Sabha resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Reason (R): Art. 249 needs a Rajya Sabha resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting.
Correct Answer: D [A is false, but R is true]
Explanation:
A is false – the Art. 249 resolution is the Rajya Sabha's special power; R is true.
14.
Chronological orderArrange in chronological order:
1. Joint sitting on the Prevention of Terrorism Bill
2. Pocket veto on the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
3. Joint sitting on the Dowry Prohibition Bill
4. Joint sitting on the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill
1. Joint sitting on the Prevention of Terrorism Bill
2. Pocket veto on the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
3. Joint sitting on the Dowry Prohibition Bill
4. Joint sitting on the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill
Correct Answer: D [3, 4, 2, 1]
Explanation:
Answer: 3, 4, 2, 1. 1961 → 1978 → 1986 → 2002.
15.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. All members of the Estimates Committee come from the Lok Sabha.
II. Each Department-Related Standing Committee has 31 members – 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. All members of the Estimates Committee come from the Lok Sabha.
II. Each Department-Related Standing Committee has 31 members – 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: C [Both I and II]
Explanation:
Estimates 30, all Lok Sabha; DRSC 31 = 21 + 10.
16.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. The quorum of a State House is ten members or one-tenth of its total members, whichever is greater.
II. The Governor decides questions of disqualification of MLAs under Art. 191(1) according to the opinion of the Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. The quorum of a State House is ten members or one-tenth of its total members, whichever is greater.
II. The Governor decides questions of disqualification of MLAs under Art. 191(1) according to the opinion of the Election Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: C [Both I and II]
Explanation:
Answer: Both I and II. Art. 189(3) and Art. 192.
17.
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): The Supreme Court can punish for contempt of itself.
Reason (R): Art. 129 makes the Supreme Court a court of record.
Reason (R): Art. 129 makes the Supreme Court a court of record.
Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A]
Explanation:
As a court of record it has all the powers of such a court, including contempt.
18.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. An Art. 143 reference must be heard by at least five judges.
II. The Supreme Court must give its opinion on every reference made under Art. 143(1).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. An Art. 143 reference must be heard by at least five judges.
II. The Supreme Court must give its opinion on every reference made under Art. 143(1).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A [Only I]
Explanation:
Art. 145(3) – five judges; Art.
19.
Match the followingMatch the Article with its subject:
a. Art. 261
b. Art. 262
c. Art. 263
d. Art. 253
1. Full faith and credit to public acts
2. Inter-State river water disputes
3. Laws to give effect to international agreements
4. Inter-State Council
a. Art. 261
b. Art. 262
c. Art. 263
d. Art. 253
1. Full faith and credit to public acts
2. Inter-State river water disputes
3. Laws to give effect to international agreements
4. Inter-State Council
Correct Answer: A [a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3]
Explanation:
261 – full faith and credit; 262 – water disputes; 263 – ISC; 253 – treaties.
20.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. A proclamation of President's Rule under Art. 356 must be approved by both Houses within two months.
II. Once approved, President's Rule continues for one year at a time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. A proclamation of President's Rule under Art. 356 must be approved by both Houses within two months.
II. Once approved, President's Rule continues for one year at a time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A [Only I]
Explanation:
Two months to approve (simple majority); each approval keeps it for six months, up to three years.
21.
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): President's Rule in a State can continue beyond one year only if a National Emergency is in force and the Election Commission certifies the need.
Reason (R): These conditions were added by the 44th Amendment, which substituted clause (5) of Art. 356.
Reason (R): These conditions were added by the 44th Amendment, which substituted clause (5) of Art. 356.
Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A]
Explanation:
Art. 356(5), inserted by the 44th Amendment (1978).
22.
Chronological orderArrange these Constitution Amendments in chronological order:
1. 101st – GST
2. 61st – voting age 18
3. 73rd – Panchayats
4. 52nd – anti-defection
1. 101st – GST
2. 61st – voting age 18
3. 73rd – Panchayats
4. 52nd – anti-defection
Correct Answer: C [4, 2, 3, 1]
Explanation:
52nd (1985) → 61st (1988) → 73rd (1992) → 101st (2016).
23.
Match the followingMatch the body with the law that set it up:
a. NHRC
b. Central Vigilance Commission
c. Central Information Commission
d. National Green Tribunal
1. RTI Act, 2005
2. NGT Act, 2010
3. CVC Act, 2003
4. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
a. NHRC
b. Central Vigilance Commission
c. Central Information Commission
d. National Green Tribunal
1. RTI Act, 2005
2. NGT Act, 2010
3. CVC Act, 2003
4. Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
Correct Answer: B [a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2]
Explanation:
PHRA 1993; CVC Act 2003; RTI Act 2005; NGT Act 2010.
24.
Statement-basedConsider the statements:
I. At least four-fifths of the members of a District Planning Committee are elected from among the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities.
II. The Twelfth Schedule lists 29 matters for municipalities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
I. At least four-fifths of the members of a District Planning Committee are elected from among the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities.
II. The Twelfth Schedule lists 29 matters for municipalities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A [Only I]
Explanation:
Art. 243ZD – four-fifths; Twelfth Schedule 18 matters (Eleventh 29).
25.
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): A person convicted and sentenced to two years' imprisonment cannot contest elections for six years after release.
Reason (R): This disqualification is written into Art. 102 of the Constitution itself.
Reason (R): This disqualification is written into Art. 102 of the Constitution itself.
Correct Answer: C [A is true, but R is false]
Explanation:
A is true under s.8(3) of the RPA, 1951; Art.
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