SSC CGL Mock – Tier II Paper I Mock Test 01 – Section II · Part B · General Awareness

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SSC CGL Mock – Tier II Paper I Mock Test 01 – Section II · Part B · General Awareness – 25 questions, subject: Full Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  
Statement-basedConsider the following statements:
I. The Moon's gravity is about one-fourth of the Earth's.
II. A lunar eclipse can occur only on a new moon day.

Correct Answer: D [Neither I nor II]

Explanation:

Statement I is wrong; Statement II is wrong – Moon: no atmosphere, gravity about one-sixth of Earth's, rotation and revolution about 27.3 days so same face visible; lunar eclipse: Sun-Earth-Moon, only on full moon.

2.  
Statement-basedConsider the following statements:
I. Andal was a woman Alvar saint.
II. The verses of Lal Ded of Kashmir are called abhangas.

Correct Answer: A [Only I]

Explanation:

Statement II is wrong – Lal Ded (Lalla) was a 14th-century Shaiva mystic of Kashmir whose verses are called vakhs.

3.  
Statement-basedConsider the following statements about Mauryan art:
I. The bull capital of a Mauryan pillar was found at Rampurva.
II. The Nagarjuni caves were gifted to the Ajivikas by Ashoka.

Correct Answer: A [Only I]

Explanation:

Statement II is wrong – Dasharatha gave Nagarjuni caves to the Ajivikas.

4.  
True/False drillConsider the following statements about cells:
I. Prokaryotic cells lack a nuclear membrane.
II. Prokaryotic ribosomes are of the 80S type.
III. Mitochondria and plastids have no DNA of their own.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

Statement II is wrong; Statement III is wrong – Prokaryotic ribosomes 70S (50S + 30S); Mitochondria and plastids have their own DNA and ribosomes (semi-autonomous).

5.  
Match the followingMatch the vitamin (List I) with its deficiency disease (List II):
List I: P. Vitamin A Q. B3 niacin R. Vitamin D S. B12
List II: 1. rickets 2. pernicious anaemia 3. night blindness 4. pellagra

Correct Answer: C [P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2]

Explanation:

Vitamin A – night blindness; B3 niacin – pellagra; Vitamin D – rickets; B12 – pernicious anaemia.

6.  
Statement-basedConsider the following statements:
I. National Statistics Day is observed on 2 October.
II. The NSSO and the CSO were merged into the NSO in 2019.

Correct Answer: B [Only II]

Explanation:

Statement I is wrong – National Statistics Day 29 June, birth anniversary of P.C.

7.  
True/False drillConsider the following statements:
I. The summer solstice falls on 21 June.
II. A century year is a leap year only if it is divisible by 400.
III. The Earth is at perihelion around 3 January.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

All the statements are correct: 21 June summer solstice (Tropic of Cancer); century year leap only if divisible by 400 (2000 leap, 1900 not); Perihelion about 3 January about 147 million km.

8.  
Match the followingMatch the alloy (List I) with its main constituents (List II):
List I: P. Bronze Q. Solder R. German silver S. Duralumin
List II: 1. Pb+Sn 2. Cu+Zn+Ni 3. Cu+Sn 4. Al+Cu+Mg+Mn

Correct Answer: B [P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4]

Explanation:

Bronze – Cu+Sn; Solder – Pb+Sn; German silver – Cu+Zn+Ni; Duralumin – Al+Cu+Mg+Mn.

9.  
Match the followingMatch the economist (List I) with the book (List II):
List I: P. Adam Smith Q. Alfred Marshall R. Lionel Robbins S. J. M. Keynes
List II: 1. An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science 2. Principles of Economics 3. Wealth of Nations 4. The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money

Correct Answer: A [P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4]

Explanation:

Adam Smith – Wealth of Nations; Alfred Marshall – Principles of Economics; Lionel Robbins – An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science; J.

10.  
Match the followingMatch the title (List I) with the person (List II):
List I: P. Father of Medicine Q. Father of Geometry R. Father of the Computer S. Father of History
List II: 1. Hippocrates 2. Charles Babbage 3. Herodotus 4. Euclid

Correct Answer: A [P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3]

Explanation:

Father of Medicine – Hippocrates; Father of Geometry – Euclid; Father of the Computer – Charles Babbage; Father of History – Herodotus.

11.  
Match the followingMatch the instrument (List I) with what it measures (List II):
List I: P. Hygrometer Q. Anemometer R. Tachometer S. Seismograph
List II: 1. rpm 2. earthquake waves 3. relative humidity 4. wind speed

Correct Answer: C [P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2]

Explanation:

Hygrometer – relative humidity; Anemometer – wind speed; Tachometer – rpm; Seismograph – earthquake waves.

12.  
True/False drillConsider the following statements about the Constituent Assembly:
I. Its planned strength was 389.
II. Its strength fell to 299 after partition.
III. Sachchidananda Sinha was its temporary President at the first meeting.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

All the statements are correct: Constituent Assembly planned strength 389: 292 Governors' provinces + 4 Chief Commissioners' provinces + 93 princely States; Strength reduced to 299 after partition; Sachchidananda Sinha temporary President.

13.  
Match the followingMatch the planet (List I) with a feature (List II):
List I: P. Jupiter Q. Saturn R. Uranus S. Venus
List II: 1. Titan 2. Retrograde spin of 243 days 3. Axial tilt about 98 degrees 4. Ganymede

Correct Answer: A [P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2]

Explanation:

Jupiter – Ganymede; Saturn – Titan; Uranus – Axial tilt about 98 degrees; Venus – Retrograde spin of 243 days.

14.  
The theme of the International Day of Peace 2026 (21 September) is:

Correct Answer: D [Invest in Peace: For Everyone, Everywhere, Every Day]

Explanation:

The theme of the International Day of Peace 2026 (21 September) is 'Invest in Peace: For Everyone, Everywhere, Every Day' (as on 21-09-2026, peacekeeping.un.org).

15.  
Match the followingMatch the Mahajanapada (List I) with its capital (List II):
List I: P. Kosala Q. Vatsa R. Surasena S. Gandhara
List II: 1. Shravasti 2. Taxila 3. Mathura 4. Kaushambi

Correct Answer: A [P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2]

Explanation:

Kosala – Shravasti; Vatsa – Kaushambi; Surasena – Mathura; Gandhara – Taxila.

16.  
True/False drillWith reference to post-Mauryan India, consider the following statements:
I. The Satavahana capital Pratishthana (Paithan) stood on the Godavari.
II. The Milindapanho is a dialogue between the Indo-Greek king Menander and Nagasena.
III. The Vikram Samvat era begins in 78 CE.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Statement III is wrong – Vikram Samvat begins 57 BCE, linked by tradition with a victory over the Shakas.

17.  
Match the followingMatch the committee of the Constituent Assembly (List I) with its chairman (List II):
List I: P. Union Powers Q. Steering R. Fundamental Rights Sub-committee S. Minorities Sub-committee
List II: 1. Nehru 2. J. B. Kripalani 3. Prasad 4. H. C. Mukherjee

Correct Answer: B [P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4]

Explanation:

Union Powers – Nehru; Steering – Prasad; Fundamental Rights Sub-committee – J.

18.  
True/False drillConsider the following statements:
I. Electrolysis of water gives hydrogen and oxygen in the volume ratio 2 : 1.
II. Silver articles turn green on exposure to air.
III. Blue copper sulphate crystals turn white on heating.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Statement II is wrong – silver turns black (silver sulphide).

19.  
The theme of the 11th Ayurveda Day (23 September 2026) was:

Correct Answer: A [Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow]

Explanation:

The 11th Ayurveda Day (23 September 2026) had the theme 'Ayurveda for a Healthier Tomorrow', with the national event in Nagpur (as on 23-09-2026, PIB).

20.  
True/False drillConsider the following statements:
I. Total utility is at its maximum when marginal utility is zero.
II. A Giffen good is an exception to the law of demand.
III. A price ceiling creates a surplus.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Statement III is wrong – Price ceiling creates shortage (ration-shop prices).

21.  
The EPFO wage ceiling of Rs 15,000, raised in 2026 to Rs 25,000, had been fixed in:

Correct Answer: D [September 2014]

Explanation:

The wage ceiling for compulsory EPFO coverage was raised from Rs 15,000 (fixed in September 2014) to Rs 25,000 a month, widening access to EPF, EPS and EDLI (as on 16-09-2026, PIB).

22.  
Match the followingMatch the teacher (List I) with the school of thought (List II):
List I: P. Shankaracharya Q. Ramanuja R. Vallabhacharya S. Nimbarka
List II: 1. Shuddhadvaita 2. Dvaitadvaita 3. Vishishtadvaita 4. Advaita

Correct Answer: A [P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2]

Explanation:

Shankaracharya – Advaita; Ramanuja – Vishishtadvaita; Vallabhacharya – Shuddhadvaita; Nimbarka – Dvaitadvaita.

23.  
True/False drillConsider the following statements about the United Nations:
I. The Security Council has 15 members, five of them permanent.
II. Judges of the ICJ serve nine-year terms.
III. The ICJ sits in Geneva.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Statement III is wrong – seat Peace Palace, The Hague.

24.  
True/False drillConsider the following statements:
I. Max Planck proposed energy quanta in 1900.
II. C. V. Raman discovered the Raman effect in 1928 and won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930.
III. The transistor was invented at Bell Labs in 1947.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

All the statements are correct: Planck proposed energy quanta in 1900; C.

25.  
Statement-basedConsider the following statements about the Preamble:
I. In the Berubari Union case (1960) the Supreme Court said that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.
II. The Preamble has been amended only once (as on 20-10-2026).

Correct Answer: C [Both I and II]

Explanation:

All the statements are correct: Berubari Union (1960): Preamble not a part; Preamble amended only once (42nd Amendment 1976).

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