Group 2/2A Grand Mock Test 2026 – Part A: General Studies (Q 1–75)
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Group 2/2A Grand Mock Test 2026 – Part A: General Studies (Q 1–75) – 75 questions, subject: Model Test. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.
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1.
Q 1
What is the SI unit of electric charge?
Correct Answer: C [Coulomb]
Explanation:
The SI unit of electric charge is the coulomb; the ampere is the unit of electric current.
2.
Q 2
Consider the following statements:
1. The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃).
2. The formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO₄·½H₂O.
3. The formula of washing soda is Na₂CO₃·10H2O.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃).
2. The formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO₄·½H₂O.
3. The formula of washing soda is Na₂CO₃·10H2O.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]
Explanation:
All three are correct: baking soda NaHCO₃, Plaster of Paris CaSO₄·½H₂O, washing soda Na₂CO₃·10H2O.
3.
Q 3
Match the following:
a) Vitamin A – 1) Scurvy
b) Vitamin B1 – 2) Rickets
c) Vitamin C – 3) Night blindness
d) Vitamin D – 4) Beriberi
a) Vitamin A – 1) Scurvy
b) Vitamin B1 – 2) Rickets
c) Vitamin C – 3) Night blindness
d) Vitamin D – 4) Beriberi
Correct Answer: A [a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2]
Explanation:
Deficiency of A – night blindness, B1 – beriberi, C – scurvy, D – rickets.
4.
Q 4
The blue colour of the clear sky is due to which phenomenon of light?
Correct Answer: B [Scattering]
Explanation:
Air molecules scatter shorter-wavelength blue light much more (Rayleigh scattering), so the sky looks blue.
5.
Q 5
Which part of the human brain maintains body balance and coordinates muscular movements?
Correct Answer: A [Cerebellum]
Explanation:
The cerebellum controls balance, posture and coordination of muscular movements.
6.
Q 6
The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which of the following states?
Correct Answer: C [Odisha]
Explanation:
It passes through Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram – not Odisha.
7.
Q 7
Consider the following statements about Indian rivers:
1. The Mahanadi drains into the Arabian Sea.
2. The Narmada and the Tapi flow westward into the Arabian Sea.
3. The Godavari is the longest river of Peninsular India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. The Mahanadi drains into the Arabian Sea.
2. The Narmada and the Tapi flow westward into the Arabian Sea.
3. The Godavari is the longest river of Peninsular India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: D [2 and 3 only]
Explanation:
The Mahanadi drains into the Bay of Bengal, so 1 is wrong; 2 and 3 are correct.
8.
Q 8
Match the dams with their rivers:
a) Bhakra Nangal – 1) Krishna
b) Hirakud – 2) Narmada
c) Sardar Sarovar – 3) Sutlej
d) Nagarjuna Sagar – 4) Mahanadi
a) Bhakra Nangal – 1) Krishna
b) Hirakud – 2) Narmada
c) Sardar Sarovar – 3) Sutlej
d) Nagarjuna Sagar – 4) Mahanadi
Correct Answer: B [a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1]
Explanation:
Bhakra Nangal – Sutlej, Hirakud – Mahanadi, Sardar Sarovar – Narmada, Nagarjuna Sagar – Krishna.
9.
Q 9
'Regur' is another name for which soil?
Correct Answer: A [Black soil]
Explanation:
Black soil, ideal for cotton, is called Regur (black cotton soil).
10.
Q 10
Tamil Nadu receives the major share of its annual rainfall from:
Correct Answer: C [North-east monsoon]
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu on the Coromandel coast gets most of its rain from the north-east monsoon (October–December).
11.
Q 11
At which Indus Valley site was a brick-built dockyard discovered?
Correct Answer: D [Lothal]
Explanation:
Lothal in Gujarat has the famous brick-built dockyard of the Harappan civilisation.
12.
Q 12
Which Gupta ruler was called the 'Napoleon of India' by the historian V.A. Smith?
Correct Answer: B [Samudragupta]
Explanation:
For his conquests recorded in the Allahabad Pillar inscription, V.A. Smith called Samudragupta the 'Napoleon of India'.
13.
Q 13
Arrange the dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate in chronological order:
1. Tughlaq dynasty
2. Lodi dynasty
3. Slave (Mamluk) dynasty
4. Khalji dynasty
1. Tughlaq dynasty
2. Lodi dynasty
3. Slave (Mamluk) dynasty
4. Khalji dynasty
Correct Answer: A [3, 4, 1, 2]
Explanation:
Order: Slave (1206) → Khalji (1290) → Tughlaq (1320) → Sayyid → Lodi (1451).
14.
Q 14
Match the battles with their years:
a) First Battle of Panipat – 1) 1526
b) Battle of Talikota – 2) 1757
c) Battle of Plassey – 3) 1565
d) Battle of Buxar – 4) 1764
a) First Battle of Panipat – 1) 1526
b) Battle of Talikota – 2) 1757
c) Battle of Plassey – 3) 1565
d) Battle of Buxar – 4) 1764
Correct Answer: C [a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4]
Explanation:
First Panipat 1526, Talikota 1565, Plassey 1757, Buxar 1764.
15.
Q 15
Consider the following statements:
1. The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE by Harihara and Bukka.
2. The Bahmani Kingdom was founded in 1347 CE by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah.
3. Krishnadevaraya belonged to the Sangama dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE by Harihara and Bukka.
2. The Bahmani Kingdom was founded in 1347 CE by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah.
3. Krishnadevaraya belonged to the Sangama dynasty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]
Explanation:
Krishnadevaraya belonged to the Tuluva dynasty, so 3 is wrong; 1 and 2 are correct.
16.
Q 16
Who presided over the first session of the Indian National Congress held at Bombay in 1885?
Correct Answer: D [W.C. Bonnerjee]
Explanation:
W.C. Bonnerjee presided over the first INC session at Bombay (December 1885) attended by 72 delegates.
17.
Q 17
Who threw bombs along with Bhagat Singh in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929?
Correct Answer: A [Batukeshwar Dutt]
Explanation:
Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs to protest the Public Safety Bill and Trade Disputes Bill, and courted arrest.
18.
Q 18
Match the leaders with the books written by them:
a) B.R. Ambedkar – 1) Hind Swaraj
b) Jawaharlal Nehru – 2) The Discovery of India
c) Mahatma Gandhi – 3) India Wins Freedom
d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad – 4) Annihilation of Caste
a) B.R. Ambedkar – 1) Hind Swaraj
b) Jawaharlal Nehru – 2) The Discovery of India
c) Mahatma Gandhi – 3) India Wins Freedom
d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad – 4) Annihilation of Caste
Correct Answer: B [a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3]
Explanation:
Ambedkar – Annihilation of Caste, Nehru – The Discovery of India, Gandhi – Hind Swaraj, Azad – India Wins Freedom.
19.
Q 19
Who founded the Arya Samaj in 1875?
Correct Answer: D [Swami Dayananda Saraswati]
Explanation:
Swami Dayananda Saraswati founded the Arya Samaj at Bombay in 1875 with the call 'Go back to the Vedas'.
20.
Q 20
Assertion (A): Gandhiji withdrew the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922.
Reason (R): The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in 1922.
Reason (R): The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in 1922.
Correct Answer: C [(A) is true but (R) is false]
Explanation:
The movement was withdrawn after the Chauri Chaura violence; Jallianwala Bagh happened in 1919, so R is false.
21.
Q 21
The words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by which Amendment?
Correct Answer: C [42nd Amendment]
Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added these three words to the Preamble.
22.
Q 22
Consider the following statements about Fundamental Duties:
1. They were added on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
2. They are contained in Part IV-A, Article 51A.
3. Like Fundamental Rights, they are directly enforceable by the courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. They were added on the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee.
2. They are contained in Part IV-A, Article 51A.
3. Like Fundamental Rights, they are directly enforceable by the courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]
Explanation:
Article 51A (Part IV-A) came on the Swaran Singh Committee's advice; Fundamental Duties are not directly enforceable in courts.
23.
Q 23
Which Article of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens?
Correct Answer: D [Article 44]
Explanation:
Article 44 directs the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for citizens throughout India.
24.
Q 24
Match the following:
a) Article 72 – 1) National Emergency
b) Article 112 – 2) Pardoning power of the President
c) Article 324 – 3) Annual Financial Statement
d) Article 352 – 4) Election Commission
a) Article 72 – 1) National Emergency
b) Article 112 – 2) Pardoning power of the President
c) Article 324 – 3) Annual Financial Statement
d) Article 352 – 4) Election Commission
Correct Answer: C [a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1]
Explanation:
Art 72 pardon, Art 112 Annual Financial Statement (Budget), Art 324 Election Commission, Art 352 National Emergency.
25.
Q 25
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
Reason (R): The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people.
Reason (R): The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected directly by the people.
Correct Answer: C [(A) is true but (R) is false]
Explanation:
A is true (Art. 83(1)); R is false – Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by elected MLAs (Art. 80(4)).
26.
Q 26
How many subjects are listed in the Eleventh Schedule added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
Correct Answer: B [29]
Explanation:
The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 subjects for Panchayats; the Twelfth lists 18 for Municipalities.
27.
Q 27
Which committee recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system in 1957?
Correct Answer: D [Balwant Rai Mehta Committee]
Explanation:
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) proposed village, block and district tiers; Ashok Mehta Committee (1978) proposed two tiers.
28.
Q 28
Consider the following statements about the Lokpal:
1. The Lokpal is a statutory body set up under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
2. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and not more than eight members, of whom 50% are judicial members.
3. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose was the first Chairperson of the Lokpal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Lokpal is a statutory body set up under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
2. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and not more than eight members, of whom 50% are judicial members.
3. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose was the first Chairperson of the Lokpal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]
Explanation:
Section 3 of the 2013 Act sets up the Lokpal: Chairperson plus up to 8 members, half judicial; P.C. Ghose became first Chairperson in 2019.
29.
Q 29
Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, information concerning the life or liberty of a person must be provided within
Correct Answer: B [48 hours]
Explanation:
Section 7(1) of the RTI Act: normally 30 days, but 48 hours where life or liberty is involved.
30.
Q 30
Which regulatory body was set up for the first time under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
Correct Answer: A [Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)]
Explanation:
Section 10 of the 2019 Act created the CCPA; the NCDRC, District Forum and Council existed under the 1986 Act.
31.
Q 31
Consider the following statements:
1. The National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body.
2. It was set up under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
3. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 10 December 1948.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body.
2. It was set up under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
3. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN General Assembly on 10 December 1948.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: C [2 and 3 only]
Explanation:
NHRC is a statutory body under the 1993 Act, not constitutional; UDHR was adopted on 10 December 1948.
32.
Q 32
Which writ is issued by a higher court to a lower court to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction in a case still pending before it?
Correct Answer: D [Prohibition]
Explanation:
Prohibition stops excess of jurisdiction in a pending case; Certiorari quashes an order already passed.
33.
Q 33
In 1969 the Government of Tamil Nadu appointed a committee to study Centre–State relations. Who headed it?
Correct Answer: A [P.V. Rajamannar]
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu set up the Rajamannar Committee in 1969; the Sarkaria and Punchhi Commissions were appointed by the Union.
34.
Q 34
The anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule) was added to the Constitution by which Amendment?
Correct Answer: C [52nd Amendment, 1985]
Explanation:
The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection).
35.
Q 35
Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, which one of the following is NOT a mode of acquiring Indian citizenship?
Correct Answer: B [Renunciation]
Explanation:
Renunciation is a mode of losing citizenship; birth, descent, registration and naturalisation are modes of acquiring it.
36.
Q 36
Consider the following statements:
1. The Planning Commission was set up on 15 March 1950 by a resolution of the Union Government.
2. The Planning Commission was a constitutional body.
3. NITI Aayog came into existence on 1 January 2015.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. The Planning Commission was set up on 15 March 1950 by a resolution of the Union Government.
2. The Planning Commission was a constitutional body.
3. NITI Aayog came into existence on 1 January 2015.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct Answer: B [1 and 3 only]
Explanation:
The Planning Commission was a non-constitutional body set up by resolution; NITI Aayog replaced it on 1 January 2015.
37.
Q 37
India's Second Five-Year Plan was based on which model?
Correct Answer: A [P.C. Mahalanobis model]
Explanation:
The Second Plan (1956–61) followed the Mahalanobis model stressing heavy industry; the First Plan used Harrod–Domar.
38.
Q 38
Consider the following statements about the Goods and Services Tax (GST):
1. It was introduced by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.
2. It came into force from 1 July 2017.
3. The GST Council is constituted under Article 280.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. It was introduced by the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.
2. It came into force from 1 July 2017.
3. The GST Council is constituted under Article 280.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]
Explanation:
The GST Council is under Article 279A; Article 280 relates to the Finance Commission.
39.
Q 39
Who was the Chairman of the Fifteenth Finance Commission?
Correct Answer: D [N.K. Singh]
Explanation:
N.K. Singh chaired the 15th FC; Y.V. Reddy the 14th, Vijay Kelkar the 13th, C. Rangarajan the 12th.
40.
Q 40
Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India:
1. It commenced operations on 1 April 1935.
2. It was established on the recommendation of the Hilton Young Commission.
3. It was nationalised in 1969 along with 14 commercial banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. It commenced operations on 1 April 1935.
2. It was established on the recommendation of the Hilton Young Commission.
3. It was nationalised in 1969 along with 14 commercial banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]
Explanation:
RBI was nationalised on 1 January 1949; only the 14 commercial banks were nationalised in 1969.
41.
Q 41
The rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks against government securities is called the
Correct Answer: C [Repo rate]
Explanation:
Repo is RBI's short-term lending against securities; under reverse repo the RBI borrows from banks.
42.
Q 42
In which year was the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act enacted?
Correct Answer: B [2003]
Explanation:
The FRBM Act was enacted in 2003 to bring fiscal discipline and reduce deficits.
43.
Q 43
The Tamil Nadu Land Reforms (Fixation of Ceiling on Land) Act is Act No. 58 of which year?
Correct Answer: A [1961]
Explanation:
It is Tamil Nadu Act 58 of 1961; Act 17 of 1970 reduced the ceiling from 30 to 15 standard acres.
44.
Q 44
Match the research institutes in Tamil Nadu with their locations:
a) Sugarcane Breeding Institute – 1) Chennai
b) National Research Centre for Banana – 2) Aduthurai
c) Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute – 3) Coimbatore
d) Central Institute of Brackishwater Aquaculture – 4) Tiruchirappalli
a) Sugarcane Breeding Institute – 1) Chennai
b) National Research Centre for Banana – 2) Aduthurai
c) Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute – 3) Coimbatore
d) Central Institute of Brackishwater Aquaculture – 4) Tiruchirappalli
Correct Answer: D [a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1]
Explanation:
SBI Coimbatore, NRC Banana Tiruchirappalli, TRRI Aduthurai, CIBA Chennai.
45.
Q 45
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) guarantees at least how many days of wage employment to every rural household in a financial year?
Correct Answer: A [100 days]
Explanation:
The Act (2005) guarantees at least 100 days of wage employment per rural household per financial year.
46.
Q 46
As per Census 2011, what was the sex ratio (females per 1000 males) of Tamil Nadu?
Correct Answer: B [996]
Explanation:
Census 2011: Tamil Nadu 996, India 943, Kerala 1084.
47.
Q 47
Arrange the following events related to school meal schemes in Tamil Nadu in chronological order:
1. Launch of the MGR Nutritious Noon Meal Scheme
2. Launch of the Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme
3. Statewide free midday meal scheme under K. Kamaraj
4. Introduction of eggs in the noon meal
1. Launch of the MGR Nutritious Noon Meal Scheme
2. Launch of the Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme
3. Statewide free midday meal scheme under K. Kamaraj
4. Introduction of eggs in the noon meal
Correct Answer: C [3, 1, 4, 2]
Explanation:
Kamaraj midday meal (1956), MGR Noon Meal (1 July 1982), eggs (1989), CM Breakfast Scheme (15 September 2022).
48.
Q 48
Match the committees with the subjects they examined:
a) Narasimham Committee – 1) Estimation of poverty
b) Tendulkar Committee – 2) Banking sector reforms
c) Raja Chelliah Committee – 3) Tax reforms
d) Urjit Patel Committee – 4) Monetary policy framework
a) Narasimham Committee – 1) Estimation of poverty
b) Tendulkar Committee – 2) Banking sector reforms
c) Raja Chelliah Committee – 3) Tax reforms
d) Urjit Patel Committee – 4) Monetary policy framework
Correct Answer: D [a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4]
Explanation:
Narasimham – banking reforms (1991, 1998); Tendulkar – poverty (2009); Raja Chelliah – tax reforms (1991); Urjit Patel – monetary policy framework (2014).
49.
Q 49
Tamil Nadu's 69% reservation Act (1994) was placed in the Ninth Schedule by which Constitutional Amendment?
Correct Answer: B [76th Amendment]
Explanation:
The 76th Amendment Act, 1994 placed Tamil Nadu Act 45 of 1994 in the Ninth Schedule.
50.
Q 50
Assertion (A): The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 inserted Article 15(4).
Reason (R): In State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court struck down the Communal G.O. of Madras.
Reason (R): In State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court struck down the Communal G.O. of Madras.
Correct Answer: A [Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)]
Explanation:
Article 15(4) was inserted precisely to overcome the Champakam Dorairajan verdict and permit special provisions for backward classes.
51.
Q 51
In Tamil Nadu, the centres through which citizens obtain certificates and government services online are known as
Correct Answer: C [e-Sevai centres]
Explanation:
TNeGA runs e-Sevai centres; Mee Seva is Andhra/Telangana, Akshaya is Kerala, Sakala is Karnataka.
52.
Q 52
The 'Innuyir Kaappom – Nammai Kaakkum 48' scheme launched in Tamil Nadu in 2021 was started to provide what?
Correct Answer: D [Cashless emergency treatment to road accident victims during the first 48 hours]
Explanation:
Launched on 18 December 2021, it gives road accident victims cashless treatment during the first 48 'golden' hours.
53.
Q 53
Consider the following statements:
1. The Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation (TIDCO) was established in 1965.
2. The State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu (SIPCOT) was established in 1971.
3. SIPCOT is a Central Government undertaking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Corporation (TIDCO) was established in 1965.
2. The State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu (SIPCOT) was established in 1971.
3. SIPCOT is a Central Government undertaking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]
Explanation:
TIDCO (1965) and SIPCOT (1971) are both Tamil Nadu Government undertakings; SIPCOT is not a Central undertaking.
54.
Q 54
Which sector contributes the largest share to India's Gross Value Added (GVA)?
Correct Answer: C [Services]
Explanation:
The services (tertiary) sector contributes more than half of India's GVA.
55.
Q 55
Which one of the following is NOT a Major Port in Tamil Nadu?
Correct Answer: A [Cuddalore]
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu's three Major Ports are Chennai, Kamarajar and V.O. Chidambaranar; Cuddalore is a minor port.
56.
Q 56
Arikamedu, which reveals trade contacts with the Romans, was excavated in 1945 by
Correct Answer: B [Mortimer Wheeler]
Explanation:
Sir Mortimer Wheeler excavated Arikamedu in 1945 and established it as an Indo-Roman trading port.
57.
Q 57
Consider the following statements about the Keeladi excavation:
1. Keeladi is located on the banks of the river Vaigai.
2. Keeladi is in Ramanathapuram district.
3. Potsherds inscribed with Tamil-Brahmi script have been found here.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Keeladi is located on the banks of the river Vaigai.
2. Keeladi is in Ramanathapuram district.
3. Potsherds inscribed with Tamil-Brahmi script have been found here.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: D [1 and 3 only]
Explanation:
Keeladi is on the Vaigai in Sivaganga district (not Ramanathapuram); Tamil-Brahmi potsherds were found there.
58.
Q 58
Match the excavation sites with their districts:
a) Kodumanal – 1) Thoothukudi
b) Porunthal – 2) Krishnagiri
c) Adichanallur – 3) Erode
d) Mayiladumparai – 4) Dindigul
a) Kodumanal – 1) Thoothukudi
b) Porunthal – 2) Krishnagiri
c) Adichanallur – 3) Erode
d) Mayiladumparai – 4) Dindigul
Correct Answer: A [a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2]
Explanation:
Kodumanal – Erode, Porunthal – Dindigul (near Palani), Adichanallur – Thoothukudi, Mayiladumparai – Krishnagiri.
59.
Q 59
Which one of the following is NOT one of the Ettuthogai (Eight Anthologies)?
Correct Answer: C [Malaipadukadam]
Explanation:
Malaipadukadam belongs to Pathupattu (Ten Idylls); the other three are Ettuthogai works.
60.
Q 60
Match the works with their authors:
a) Seevaka Sinthamani – 1) Seethalai Sathanar
b) Manimegalai – 2) Sekkizhar
c) Periyapuranam – 3) Kambar
d) Ramavataram (Kamba Ramayanam) – 4) Thiruthakkathevar
a) Seevaka Sinthamani – 1) Seethalai Sathanar
b) Manimegalai – 2) Sekkizhar
c) Periyapuranam – 3) Kambar
d) Ramavataram (Kamba Ramayanam) – 4) Thiruthakkathevar
Correct Answer: B [a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3]
Explanation:
Seevaka Sinthamani – Thiruthakkathevar, Manimegalai – Seethalai Sathanar, Periyapuranam – Sekkizhar, Kamba Ramayanam – Kambar.
61.
Q 61
Which one of the following was NOT written by Subramania Bharathi?
Correct Answer: A [Kudumba Vilakku]
Explanation:
Kudumba Vilakku is by Bharathidasan; the other three are Bharathi's works.
62.
Q 62
'Prathapa Mudaliar Charithram', regarded as the first Tamil novel, was written by
Correct Answer: D [Mayuram Vedanayagam Pillai]
Explanation:
Mayuram Vedanayagam Pillai's Prathapa Mudaliar Charithram (1879) is regarded as the first Tamil novel.
63.
Q 63
The number of chapters (adhikarams) in the Porutpal of Thirukkural is
Correct Answer: C [70]
Explanation:
Arathupal 38, Porutpal 70, Inbathupal 25 – a total of 133 chapters.
64.
Q 64
Who first translated the Thirukkural into Latin?
Correct Answer: A [Veeramamunivar]
Explanation:
Veeramamunivar (Constantine Joseph Beschi) translated the Aram and Porul sections into Latin.
65.
Q 65
Assertion (A): Thirukkural is hailed as 'Ulaga Pothumarai' (the universal scripture).
Reason (R): Thirukkural states ethics for all humanity without belonging to any particular religion, race or nation.
Reason (R): Thirukkural states ethics for all humanity without belonging to any particular religion, race or nation.
Correct Answer: B [Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)]
Explanation:
Because it is non-sectarian and speaks to all humanity, Thirukkural is called the universal scripture.
66.
Q 66
"Pirappokkum ellaa uyirkkum sirappovvaa / Seithozhil vetrumai yaan" – Which value does this Kural emphasise?
Correct Answer: C [Equality of all by birth]
Explanation:
Kural 972 says all beings are equal by birth; distinction arises only from the quality of one's deeds.
67.
Q 67
Which one of the following was NOT a principle of the Self-Respect Movement?
Correct Answer: D [Upholding Varnashrama Dharma]
Explanation:
The Self-Respect Movement opposed Varnashrama; caste abolition, women's rights and rationalism were its principles.
68.
Q 68
Who led the Salt Satyagraha march from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam in 1930?
Correct Answer: B [C. Rajagopalachari]
Explanation:
Rajaji led the march from Tiruchirappalli to Vedaranyam in April 1930 to break the salt law.
69.
Q 69
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Vellore Revolt
2. Execution of Veerapandiya Kattabomman
3. Assassination of Collector Ashe
4. Jambudweepa Proclamation of the Marudhu brothers
1. Vellore Revolt
2. Execution of Veerapandiya Kattabomman
3. Assassination of Collector Ashe
4. Jambudweepa Proclamation of the Marudhu brothers
Correct Answer: A [2, 4, 1, 3]
Explanation:
Kattabomman executed 1799, Jambudweepa Proclamation 1801, Vellore Revolt 1806, Ashe assassinated 1911.
70.
Q 70
Which freedom fighter from Cuddalore was hailed by Gandhiji as the 'Jhansi Rani of South India'?
Correct Answer: C [Anjalai Ammal]
Explanation:
Gandhiji called Anjalai Ammal of Cuddalore the 'Jhansi Rani of South India'.
71.
Q 71
Who started the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company at Tuticorin in 1906?
Correct Answer: D [V.O. Chidambaram Pillai]
Explanation:
V.O. Chidambaram Pillai founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in 1906 to challenge British shipping.
72.
Q 72
Consider the following statements about the Justice Party:
1. The South Indian Liberal Federation was founded in 1916.
2. A. Subbarayalu Reddiar was the first Chief Minister of the Justice Party government.
3. The Justice Party boycotted the first elections held in 1920 under the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The South Indian Liberal Federation was founded in 1916.
2. A. Subbarayalu Reddiar was the first Chief Minister of the Justice Party government.
3. The Justice Party boycotted the first elections held in 1920 under the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]
Explanation:
It was the Congress that boycotted the 1920 elections; the Justice Party contested, won and formed the government, so statement 3 is wrong.
73.
Q 73
Match the journals with the persons associated with them:
a) Kudi Arasu – 1) C.N. Annadurai
b) Dravida Nadu – 2) E.V. Ramasamy
c) Justice – 3) M. Karunanidhi
d) Murasoli – 4) T.M. Nair
a) Kudi Arasu – 1) C.N. Annadurai
b) Dravida Nadu – 2) E.V. Ramasamy
c) Justice – 3) M. Karunanidhi
d) Murasoli – 4) T.M. Nair
Correct Answer: C [a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3]
Explanation:
Kudi Arasu – Periyar, Dravida Nadu – Anna, Justice – T.M. Nair (editor), Murasoli – Karunanidhi.
74.
Q 74
At which conference was the Justice Party renamed 'Dravidar Kazhagam' in 1944?
Correct Answer: D [Salem]
Explanation:
At the Salem conference of August 1944, under Periyar, the Justice Party became the Dravidar Kazhagam.
75.
Q 75
Consider the following statements about Perarignar Anna:
1. He founded the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam in 1949.
2. His government introduced the three-language policy in schools.
3. Madras State was renamed 'Tamil Nadu' during his tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. He founded the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam in 1949.
2. His government introduced the three-language policy in schools.
3. Madras State was renamed 'Tamil Nadu' during his tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct Answer: B [1 and 3 only]
Explanation:
Anna's government adopted the two-language policy (Tamil and English), so statement 2 is wrong. ➤ Group 2/2A Mains coaching (from 2nd week of Nov): https://www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/tnpsc-group-2-2a-mains/en
More quizzes
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› Group 2/2A Grand Mock Test 2026 – Part C: General English (Q 101–150)
› Group 2/2A Grand Mock Test 2026 – Part B: Aptitude & Mental Ability (Q 76–100)
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