SSC CGL Polity – Salient Features, Sources & the Preamble – Tier II Level · Marathon

← Back

SSC CGL Polity – Salient Features, Sources & the Preamble – Tier II Level · Marathon – 10 questions, subject: Indian Polity & Governance. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

Get daily current affairs & exam alerts – follow us YouTube WhatsApp Channel Telegram Channel Facebook Page Instagram
Share with friends & study groups
Link to this page from your website / blog (HTML code)
1.  
The 42nd Amendment changed 'unity of the Nation' in the Preamble to:

Correct Answer: D [unity and integrity of the Nation]

Explanation:

Footnote 2 of the official Preamble text.

2.  
The changes made by the 42nd Amendment in the Preamble took effect from:

Correct Answer: A [3 January 1977]

Explanation:

Official text: w.e.f. 3-1-1977.

3.  
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): Parliament can amend the Preamble.
Reason (R): The Supreme Court held in the Kesavananda Bharati case that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

Being a part of the Constitution, it can be amended under Art 368 – without touching the basic structure.

4.  
True/False drillAbout Part V of the Constitution:
I. It begins with Art 52 (The President of India).
II. Arts 79–122 deal with Parliament.
III. Art 123 deals with Ordinances of the President.
IV. It ends with Art 237.
How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only three]

Explanation:

Part V = Arts 52–151; Part VI ends at 237.

5.  
Match the followingMatch the Article with its subject:
P. Art 248 Q. Art 312 R. Art 326 S. Art 148
1. Adult suffrage 2. All-India services 3. Comptroller and Auditor-General 4. Residuary powers

Correct Answer: A [P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3]

Explanation:

248 residuary; 312 AIS; 326 adult suffrage; 148 CAG.

6.  
Which pair is correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [Art 315 – Public Service Commissions]

Explanation:

315 PSCs; 324 Election Commission; 280 Finance Commission; 263 Inter-State Council.

7.  
Which feature of the Rajya Sabha came from South Africa?

Correct Answer: C [Election of its members]

Explanation:

South Africa – amendment procedure and election of Rajya Sabha members; nomination came from Ireland.

8.  
Which Part has the largest number of Articles?

Correct Answer: D [Part V – The Union]

Explanation:

Part V runs from 52 to 151 – about 100 Articles, the largest range.

9.  
The Ninth Schedule was added to protect laws (mainly land reform laws) from challenge in courts. It is linked with:

Correct Answer: C [Art 31B]

Explanation:

Art 31B – Validation of certain Acts and Regulations (Ninth Schedule).

10.  
Statement-basedWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
I. The word 'federation' is used in Art 1 of the Constitution.
II. Arts 1–4 in Part I deal with the Union and its territory.

Correct Answer: B [Only II]

Explanation:

Art 1 uses 'Union of States', not federation.

➤ Full notes, shortcuts and every answer explained – SSC CGL 2026 Indian Polity & Governance book (₹149): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/ssc-cgl-indian-polity-governance

📘 SSC CGL 2026 – Indian Polity & Governance (Tier I + Tier II)
Here you get the answer with a one-line explanation. 975 original questions with answer key and explanations · mind-maps, notes, tables and shortcuts · Tier I and Tier II practice sets + 3 mock tests
Get the book – ₹149 ₹299 →
Score: 0 Answered: 0 / 0