SSC CGL Polity – The Union & Its Territory, Citizenship – Tier II Level · Marathon
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Explanations I and II to Art 3.
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SSC CGL Polity – The Union & Its Territory, Citizenship – Tier II Level · Marathon – 10 questions, subject: Indian Polity & Governance. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.
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1.
Under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, which community is NOT listed in the proviso?
Correct Answer: C [Muslim]
Explanation:
Listed: Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Christian.
2.
For the communities covered by the 2019 amendment, the aggregate residence period for naturalisation was reduced from 11 years to:
Correct Answer: B [5 years]
Explanation:
Third Schedule proviso: not less than five years.
3.
The countries named in the 2019 amendment are:
Correct Answer: A [Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan]
Explanation:
Afghanistan, Bangladesh or Pakistan.
4.
For naturalisation (general rule), the applicant must have resided in India for 12 months before applying, plus an aggregate of ___ years in the 14 years before that.
Correct Answer: B [11]
Explanation:
Answer: 11. Third Schedule, clause (d).
5.
Assertion–ReasonAssertion (A): Under Art 7, a person who migrated from India to Pakistan after 1 March 1947 is generally not deemed a citizen of India.
Reason (R): Art 7 makes an exception for those who returned to India under a permit for resettlement or permanent return.
Reason (R): Art 7 makes an exception for those who returned to India under a permit for resettlement or permanent return.
Correct Answer: B [Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A]
Explanation:
Both true; R gives an exception, it does not explain why A is the rule.
6.
Under Art 6, a person who migrated from Pakistan BEFORE which date needed only ordinary residence in India since migration?
Correct Answer: D [19 July 1948]
Explanation:
Art 6: migration before 19 July 1948.
7.
Match the followingMatch the renamed State/UT with the year:
P. Tamil Nadu Q. Karnataka R. Puducherry S. Odisha
1. 2006 2. 2011 3. 1973 4. 1969
P. Tamil Nadu Q. Karnataka R. Puducherry S. Odisha
1. 2006 2. 2011 3. 1973 4. 1969
Correct Answer: C [P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2]
Explanation:
Madras → TN 1969; Mysore → Karnataka 1973; Pondicherry → Puducherry 2006; Orissa → Odisha 2011.
8.
Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were merged into one Union Territory with effect from:
Correct Answer: B [26 January 2020]
Explanation:
Merged UT from 26 January 2020.
9.
Citizenship by birth for a person born on or after 3 December 2004 requires:
Correct Answer: A [Both parents citizens, or one citizen and the other not an illegal migrant]
Explanation:
Answer: Both parents citizens, or one citizen and the other not an illegal migrant. Section 3(1)(c).
10.
Statement-basedWhich of the following statements is/are correct?
I. In Art 3, 'State' includes a Union Territory for clauses (a) to (e).
II. Parliament can form a new UT by uniting a part of a State to another UT.
I. In Art 3, 'State' includes a Union Territory for clauses (a) to (e).
II. Parliament can form a new UT by uniting a part of a State to another UT.
Correct Answer: C [Both I and II]
Explanation:
Explanations I and II to Art 3.
➤ Full notes, shortcuts and every answer explained – SSC CGL 2026 Indian Polity & Governance book (₹149): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/ssc-cgl-indian-polity-governance
📘 SSC CGL 2026 – Indian Polity & Governance (Tier I + Tier II)
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› SSC CGL Polity – Mock Test 3 – Tier II Style
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› SSC CGL Polity – Important Acts & Governance Initiatives – Tier II Level · Marathon
› SSC CGL Polity – Important Acts & Governance Initiatives – Level 3 · Challenge
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