Quiz – 23 October 2026 (Part 2: Q 56–110) | Online Quiz

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Quiz – 23 October 2026 (Part 2: Q 56–110) – 55 questions, subject: Current Affairs. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, a drug made under a name belonging to another drug is deemed:

Correct Answer: A [Spurious drug]

Explanation:

Sec 17B – spurious drug. The Sept 2026 alert found one spurious sample in Delhi; 17A – adulterated, 17 – misbranded.

The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) functions under which directorate?

Correct Answer: A [DGHS]

Explanation:

CDSCO is under the Directorate General of Health Services (DGHS), Union Health Ministry; headed by the DCGI; HQ New Delhi. NPPA (drug pricing authority) is under the Department of Pharmaceuticals (Chemicals & Fertilizers).

Schedule M of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, deals with:

Correct Answer: B [Good Manufacturing Practices]

Explanation:

Schedule M – GMP. The revised Schedule M was notified on 28 Dec 2023; MSMEs got time till 31 Dec 2025.

Which toxic chemical was found in 'Coldrif' cough syrup, made in Kancheepuram district (TN) and linked to child deaths in MP in 2025?

Correct Answer: A [Diethylene glycol]

Explanation:

About 48.6% diethylene glycol (DEG), which causes acute kidney failure. Maker: Sresan Pharma (Sunguvarchatram); melamine was behind China's 2008 milk adulteration scandal.

In the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, 'Drugs and poisons' come under which List?

Correct Answer: C [Concurrent List]

Explanation:

Concurrent List (List III, Entry 19). So the Central CDSCO and State drug control departments work together; State labs flagged 288 of the NSQ samples in Sept 2026.

The 28th Charles Correa Gold Medal, presented in Mumbai in Oct 2026, is given for:

Correct Answer: C [Undergraduate thesis]

Explanation:

For a final-year undergraduate solo thesis; started by Correa in 1998. The 2026 winner – Kochi's 'Energy Commons'.

Which statutory body regulates architectural education and practice under the Architects Act, 1972?

Correct Answer: B [Council of Architecture]

Explanation:

Council of Architecture (COA). Only COA-approved colleges are eligible for the medal; IIA is only a professional association.

Which of the following was designed by Charles Correa?

Correct Answer: C [Jawahar Kala Kendra, Jaipur]

Explanation:

Jawahar Kala Kendra (1986–92). Rashtrapati Bhavan – Edwin Lutyens; Lotus Temple – Fariborz Sahba; Chandigarh – Le Corbusier.

Charles Correa served as Chief Architect of which new city?

Correct Answer: B [Navi Mumbai]

Explanation:

Navi Mumbai (New Bombay, 1970–75). In 1985 Rajiv Gandhi made him Chairman of the National Commission on Urbanisation.

10.

Who designed the Senate House of the University of Madras and pioneered Indo-Saracenic architecture?

Correct Answer: A [Robert Fellowes Chisholm]

Explanation:

Robert Fellowes Chisholm – Senate House (1874–79), Chepauk Revenue Board building (1871). Laurie Baker is known for low-cost buildings in Kerala.

11.

Which European country passed a law in Oct 2026 banning social media for children under 15?

Correct Answer: D [Greece]

Explanation:

Greece – in force from 1 Jan 2027; no exemption even with parental consent. The government 'Kids Wallet' app is used for age checks.

12.

Which was the first country to enforce a nationwide social media ban for under-16s, from December 2025?

Correct Answer: B [Australia]

Explanation:

Australia – Online Safety Amendment Act 2024; in force from 10 Dec 2025. Regulator – the eSafety Commissioner.

13.

What is the national legislature of Greece called?

Correct Answer: C [Hellenic Parliament]

Explanation:

Hellenic Parliament (Vouli) – unicameral, in Athens. Bundestag – Germany; Folketing – Denmark; Sejm – Poland.

14.

Under which EU law does the European Commission enforce rules on the largest online platforms?

Correct Answer: A [Digital Services Act (DSA)]

Explanation:

Digital Services Act (DSA) – oversight of the largest platforms under the Greek law falls under it. GDPR – personal data; DMA – market competition.

15.

Which court in Dec 2025 observed that the Centre could make an Australia-like law to regulate children's internet use?

Correct Answer: A [Madras HC, Madurai Bench]

Explanation:

Madras High Court, Madurai Bench (Justices G. Jayachandran and K.K. Ramakrishnan). Meanwhile child rights commissions could prepare an awareness plan, it said.

16.

Which UN agency leads the annual Global Media and Information Literacy Week (24–31 October)?

Correct Answer: B [UNESCO]

Explanation:

UNESCO – it has marked the week since 2011; the UN General Assembly recognised it in 2021. UNESCO is headquartered in Paris.

17.

What is the theme of Global Media and Information Literacy Week 2026?

Correct Answer: A [We All Play a Part]

Explanation:

In full: 'We All Play a Part – Media and Information Literacy for the People'. This year it is held as decentralised regional and online events.

18.

National Press Day (16 November) marks the day on which which body began functioning?

Correct Answer: C [Press Council of India]

Explanation:

The Press Council of India – 1966; a statutory, quasi-judicial body, now functioning under the Press Council Act, 1978.

19.

Freedom of the press in India is implicitly guaranteed under which Article of the Constitution?

Correct Answer: D [Article 19(1)(a)]

Explanation:

Article 19(1)(a) – freedom of speech and expression; upheld in 'Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras' (1950). Restrictions come under Article 19(2).

20.

Who founded the Tamil newspaper 'Swadesamitran' (1882), where Bharathi served as sub-editor?

Correct Answer: A [G. Subramania Iyer]

Explanation:

G. Subramania Iyer – also a co-founder of 'The Hindu' in Madras (1878). Thiru. Vi. Ka. edited 'Desabhaktan' and 'Navasakthi'.

21.

The annual 'Emissions Gap Report' is published by:

Correct Answer: A [UN Environment Programme]

Explanation:

UNEP – published since 2010; the 2026 report is the 17th edition. The IPCC (1988, set up by WMO + UNEP) publishes Assessment Reports.

22.

The Kigali Amendment (2016) to the Montreal Protocol provides for phasing down which gases?

Correct Answer: B [Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)]

Explanation:

HFCs do not deplete ozone but are potent greenhouse gases. The Montreal Protocol (1987) itself phased out CFCs.

23.

Under the Paris Agreement, the climate action plans each country submits every five years are called:

Correct Answer: C [NDCs]

Explanation:

NDCs – Nationally Determined Contributions. India's new NDC (March 2026): 60% non-fossil power capacity by 2035; net zero by 2070.

24.

In which city will the UN climate conference COP31 be held in November 2026?

Correct Answer: B [Antalya]

Explanation:

Antalya, Türkiye – 9–20 Nov 2026. COP30 was at Belém, Brazil (2025); COP29 at Baku, Azerbaijan (2024).

25.

Which special purpose vehicle (SPV) implements the Tamil Nadu Climate Change Mission?

Correct Answer: C [TN Green Climate Company]

Explanation:

Tamil Nadu Green Climate Company (TNGCC, 2021) – it runs four missions: Climate Change, Wetlands, Green Tamil Nadu and TN-SHORE.

26.

Disarmament Week (24–30 Oct) was first called for in the Final Document of which UN meeting?

Correct Answer: D [UNGA SSOD-I (1978)]

Explanation:

1978 – the UNGA's first Special Session on Disarmament (resolution S-10/2). The week starts on 24 Oct, the UN's founding anniversary.

27.

The Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW), which implements the CWC, is headquartered at:

Correct Answer: A [The Hague]

Explanation:

The Hague, Netherlands; the OPCW won the 2013 Nobel Peace Prize. The CWC came into force in 1997; India is an original State Party.

28.

Which of the following countries has never signed the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?

Correct Answer: B [India]

Explanation:

India – it regards the NPT as discriminatory; Pakistan and Israel have not signed either. North Korea withdrew in 2003; South Africa gave up its nuclear weapons and joined in 1991.

29.

Under India's nuclear doctrine (2003), who chairs the Political Council of the Nuclear Command Authority?

Correct Answer: B [Prime Minister]

Explanation:

The Prime Minister – it is the only body that can authorise nuclear use. The Executive Council is chaired by the NSA; the doctrine rests on 'No First Use'.

30.

This Presidency College (Chennai) alumnus was Atomic Energy Commission Chairman during the Pokhran-II tests (1998). Who?

Correct Answer: C [R. Chidambaram]

Explanation:

R. Chidambaram – AEC Chairman (1993–2000) and Principal Scientific Adviser (2001–2018); died on 4 Jan 2025. Raja Ramanna led the 1974 test team.

31.

United Nations Day, observed every year on 24 October, commemorates:

Correct Answer: D [UN Charter entering into force]

Explanation:

24 Oct 1945 – the Charter came into force after most signatories ratified it. The UNGA first met in London in January 1946.

32.

In which city was the UN Charter signed in June 1945?

Correct Answer: D [San Francisco]

Explanation:

San Francisco – 26 June 1945; 50 countries signed, and Poland signed later to make 51 original members. India is an original member.

33.

Among the six principal organs of the UN, which one has suspended operation since 1994?

Correct Answer: B [Trusteeship Council]

Explanation:

Trusteeship Council – Palau, the last trust territory, became independent in 1994. The ICJ (The Hague) is the only principal organ located outside New York.

34.

As per the UN Charter, the General Assembly appoints the Secretary-General on the recommendation of:

Correct Answer: C [Security Council]

Explanation:

The Security Council (Article 97). Guterres's term ends on 31 Dec 2026; the Council is holding straw polls to choose his successor.

35.

A leading Justice Party figure, he became the first President of the UN Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in 1946. Who?

Correct Answer: A [A. Ramaswami Mudaliar]

Explanation:

Sir A. Ramaswami Mudaliar – he led India's delegation at the 1945 San Francisco Conference. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit became the first woman UNGA President in 1953.

36.

World Development Information Day coincides with which other observance?

Correct Answer: C [United Nations Day]

Explanation:

UN Day (24 Oct) – to stress development's central role in the UN's work. The Second Development Decade strategy was adopted on this date in 1970.

37.

Which UN body first proposed World Development Information Day?

Correct Answer: A [UNCTAD]

Explanation:

UNCTAD (proposal of May 1972) – set up in 1964, HQ Geneva; it publishes the 'World Investment Report'.

38.

Which body releases the 'SDG India Index'?

Correct Answer: C [NITI Aayog]

Explanation:

NITI Aayog – since 2018; a tool of competitive federalism. The National Indicator Framework (NIF) is maintained by MoSPI.

39.

In NITI Aayog's SDG India Index 2023–24, Tamil Nadu was placed in which category?

Correct Answer: B [Front Runner]

Explanation:

Front Runner (score 65–99) – Tamil Nadu scored 78. Achiever = 100; Performer = 50–64; Aspirant = 0–49. In 2023–24, 32 States/UTs were Front Runners.

40.

The Sustainable Development Goals adopted in 2015 succeeded which earlier set of goals?

Correct Answer: A [Millennium Development Goals]

Explanation:

MDGs (2000–2015, 8 goals). SDGs – 17 goals, 169 targets, deadline 2030. 'Agenda 21' came from the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.

41.

Which organisation established 'World Polio Day', observed every year on 24 October?

Correct Answer: D [Rotary International]

Explanation:

Rotary International – to commemorate Jonas Salk's birth. Rotary is a founding partner of the 1988 GPEI; 'PolioPlus' began in 1985.

42.

Who developed the injectable inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)?

Correct Answer: A [Jonas Salk]

Explanation:

Jonas Salk (1955). Oral OPV – Albert Sabin; smallpox – Jenner; rabies – Pasteur.

43.

India's last wild polio case (Jan 2011) was reported from which State?

Correct Answer: A [West Bengal]

Explanation:

West Bengal – Howrah, 13 Jan 2011. India was certified polio-free with the WHO South-East Asia Region on 27 Mar 2014.

44.

Which two countries are still endemic for wild poliovirus?

Correct Answer: C [Pakistan and Afghanistan]

Explanation:

Pakistan and Afghanistan (WPV1). The African Region, including Nigeria, was certified free of wild polio in 2020.

45.

Paralysis in polio results from the virus damaging which of the following?

Correct Answer: A [Spinal cord motor neurons]

Explanation:

The spinal cord's motor neurons. Poliovirus is an enterovirus – it spreads by the faecal–oral route and first multiplies in the gut.

46.

The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) was raised in the backdrop of which event?

Correct Answer: C [1962 India–China war]

Explanation:

The 1962 India–China war – raised on 24 Oct 1962 with 4 battalions. BSF was formed after the 1965 war.

47.

ITBP functions under the administrative control of which Ministry?

Correct Answer: C [Ministry of Home Affairs]

Explanation:

Ministry of Home Affairs – ITBP is a Central Armed Police Force; ITBP Act 1992. HQ New Delhi.

48.

The India–China border guarded by ITBP runs from Karakoram Pass (Ladakh) to which pass in Arunachal Pradesh?

Correct Answer: D [Jachep La]

Explanation:

Jachep La – 3,488 km in all. Nathu La – Sikkim; Shipki La – Himachal; Lipulekh – Uttarakhand.

49.

Under 'One Border One Force', which force guards the India–Nepal and India–Bhutan borders?

Correct Answer: A [Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)]

Explanation:

SSB. China – ITBP; Pakistan and Bangladesh – BSF; Myanmar – Assam Rifles.

50.

Where is ITBP's Mountaineering & Skiing Institute located?

Correct Answer: A [Auli (Uttarakhand)]

Explanation:

Auli (Uttarakhand). ITBP Academy – Mussoorie. Darjeeling has the Himalayan Mountaineering Institute (HMI); Gulmarg has the Army's HAWS.

51.

The Tiruppathur fort, where the Marudhu brothers were hanged on 24 Oct 1801, is in which present district?

Correct Answer: D [Sivaganga]

Explanation:

Sivaganga district. The 'Tirupathur district' carved out of Vellore in 2019 is a different place – do not confuse them.

52.

Where was the Marudhu brothers' 'Jambudweepa Proclamation' (1801) put up?

Correct Answer: C [Tiruchi fort and Srirangam]

Explanation:

The Nawab's palace in Tiruchi fort and walls at Srirangam – 16 June 1801. Hence it is also called the 'Tiruchirappalli Proclamation'.

53.

In British records, the Marudhu brothers' revolt was categorised as the:

Correct Answer: B [South Indian Rebellion]

Explanation:

South Indian Rebellion (1800–01) – the Second Poligar War. The Vellore Mutiny took place in 1806.

54.

After Muthu Vaduganathar's death, the Marudhu brothers helped which queen regain the Sivaganga throne?

Correct Answer: D [Velu Nachiyar]

Explanation:

Velu Nachiyar – after the 1772 battle of Kalaiyarkoil she stayed 8 years under Gopala Nayak's protection at Virupachi and regained Sivaganga with Hyder Ali's help.

55.

At which place's memorial is the Marudhu brothers' Guru Pooja held every year (27 Oct)?

Correct Answer: B [Kalaiyarkoil]

Explanation:

Kalaiyarkoil – Sivaganga district; Muthu Vaduganathar was also killed here in 1772. Panchalankurichi is Kattabomman's fort (Thoothukudi).

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› Quiz – 23 October 2026 (Part 1: Q 1–55) › Quiz – 22 October 2026 (Part 1: Q 1–38) › Quiz – 22 October 2026 (Part 2: Q 39–75) › Quiz – 21 October 2026 (Part 1: Q 1–55) › Quiz – 21 October 2026 (Part 2: Q 56–110) › Quiz – 19 October 2026 (Part 1: Q 1–45)

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