Quiz – 25 October 2026 (Part 1: Q 1–47)
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Quiz – 25 October 2026 (Part 1: Q 1–47) – 47 questions, subject: Current Affairs. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.
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1.
The Ranganathaswamy temple at Srirangam stands on an island between which two rivers?
Correct Answer: C [Kaveri – Kollidam]
Explanation:
Kaveri – Kollidam. The Kollidam is the northern branch of the Kaveri; downstream stands the Grand Anicut (Kallanai) on the Kaveri, built by Karikalan.
2.
Srirangam, foremost of the 108 Vaishnava Divya Desams, is praised in the hymns of which saints?
Correct Answer: C [Alvars]
Explanation:
The Alvars (12) – their hymns form the Nalayira Divya Prabandham (compiled by Nathamuni). The 63 Nayanmars were Saiva saints.
3.
Which Article lets religious denominations acquire movable and immovable property and administer it according to law?
Correct Answer: D [Article 26]
Explanation:
Article 26(c),(d). Art 25 – freedom of conscience and religion; Art 27 – no tax for promoting a religion; Art 28 – no religious instruction in State institutions.
4.
'Registration of deeds and documents' falls in which list of the Seventh Schedule?
Correct Answer: C [Concurrent List]
Explanation:
Concurrent List (Entry 6). So States can amend the central Registration Act 1908; in Tamil Nadu the Registration Department runs the Sub-Registrar offices.
5.
Under the TN HR&CE Act 1959, whose sanction is needed to sell a temple's immovable property?
Correct Answer: A [HR&CE Commissioner]
Explanation:
The Commissioner (Section 34) – a sale, mortgage or exchange without sanction is void. Its forerunner was the Justice Party government's 1926 Endowments Act.
6.
Thalaiyar Falls, the highest waterfall in Tamil Nadu, is located in which district?
Correct Answer: D [Dindigul]
Explanation:
Dindigul – Palani Hills; it is viewed from Dum Dum Rock on the Batlagundu–Kodaikanal road.
7.
Because of its appearance, Thalaiyar Falls is popularly known as
Correct Answer: B [Rat Tail Falls]
Explanation:
Rat Tail Falls – its long, thin stream looks like a rat's tail. Silver Cascade and Bear Shola are at Kodaikanal; Palaruvi (Milk Falls) is in Kerala.
8.
The Manjalar, which flows from Thalaiyar Falls, is a tributary of which river?
Correct Answer: B [Vaigai]
Explanation:
The Vaigai. The Amaravathi and Bhavani are Kaveri tributaries; the Thamirabarani rises in the Pothigai hills and enters the Gulf of Mannar.
9.
Which river forms the Courtallam falls, known as the 'Spa of the South'?
Correct Answer: A [Chittar]
Explanation:
The Chittar (Tenkasi district), which later joins the Thamirabarani. Hogenakkal Falls is on the Kaveri in Dharmapuri district.
10.
Tamil Nadu receives the major share of its annual rainfall during which season?
Correct Answer: D [North-east monsoon]
Explanation:
The north-east monsoon (Oct–Dec). During the south-west monsoon Tamil Nadu lies in the rain-shadow of the Western Ghats.
11.
The Tenkasi Forest Division proposed adding the Madras hedgehog to which programme?
Correct Answer: C [Golden Jackal Ambassadors]
Explanation:
Golden Jackal Ambassadors (2025) – trains students as wildlife-awareness ambassadors. The golden jackal is Canis aureus.
12.
The 'Madras hedgehog' (Paraechinus nudiventris) is also known as the
Correct Answer: C [Bare-bellied hedgehog]
Explanation:
Bare-bellied hedgehog – its belly is almost hairless. The porcupine is a rodent, the hedgehog an insectivore – they are different animals.
13.
What is the IUCN Red List status of the Madras hedgehog?
Correct Answer: B [Least Concern]
Explanation:
Least Concern – but data are very scarce; because of grassland loss and hunting, the State treats it as a lesser-known threatened species and funds it.
14.
Where was India's first Dugong Conservation Reserve notified?
Correct Answer: B [Palk Bay]
Explanation:
Palk Bay (Thanjavur–Pudukkottai coast, 2022). The dugong is a seagrass-eating marine mammal listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Act.
15.
Kadavur, India's first slender loris sanctuary, lies in which districts?
Correct Answer: A [Karur and Dindigul]
Explanation:
Karur and Dindigul (2022). The slender loris is nocturnal and helps farmers by eating insect pests.
16.
As per the SC ruling of Oct 2026, who may file a complaint under Sec 125A of the RP Act over a false poll affidavit?
Correct Answer: C [Any person, including a voter]
Explanation:
Any private person, including a voter – the Sec 195(1) CrPC bar does not apply. Penalty: up to 6 months' jail, fine or both.
17.
Which case first recognised the voter's right to know the criminal and asset details of candidates?
Correct Answer: D [Union of India v. ADR]
Explanation:
The ADR case (2002) – the right flows from free speech under Art 19(1)(a); PUCL (2003) reaffirmed it. Sections 33A and 125A were then added to the RP Act.
18.
Where must an 'election petition' challenging a State Assembly election result be filed?
Correct Answer: A [High Court]
Explanation:
The High Court (RPA Sec 80A) – within 45 days of the result; appeal lies to the Supreme Court. Presidential election disputes go straight to the Supreme Court.
19.
The NOTA option on ballot papers/EVMs was introduced following the judgment in which case?
Correct Answer: D [PUCL case]
Explanation:
PUCL v. Union of India (Sept 2013) – even if NOTA polls the most votes, the candidate with the highest votes wins.
20.
Which Article vests superintendence, direction and control of elections in the Election Commission?
Correct Answer: C [Article 324]
Explanation:
Article 324. Art 326 – adult suffrage; 280 – Finance Commission; 320 – functions of Public Service Commissions. Local body polls are run by State Election Commissions (243K).
21.
RBI's new Bhubaneswar data centre will back up RBI's primary data centre located at
Correct Answer: B [Kharghar, Navi Mumbai]
Explanation:
Kharghar, Navi Mumbai. Odisha was chosen for low seismic risk and distance from borders and subsea-cable landing points.
22.
In the Uptime Institute classification, a 'Tier IV' data centre denotes
Correct Answer: D [Fault tolerant]
Explanation:
Fault tolerant – any single component can fail without disrupting operations; about 99.995% uptime. Tier III is 'concurrently maintainable'.
23.
The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) functions under which ministry?
Correct Answer: B [Electronics & IT]
Explanation:
MeitY – the national cyber-incident response agency under Section 70B of the IT Act 2000. NCIIPC is under Section 70A.
24.
Where is the Reserve Bank Staff College (RBSC), RBI's apex training college, located?
Correct Answer: A [Chennai]
Explanation:
Chennai, Anna Salai – since 1963. Pune has the College of Agricultural Banking (CAB); Hyderabad has IDRBT.
25.
Who appoints the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
Correct Answer: A [Central Government]
Explanation:
The Central Government (RBI Act, Section 8) – the Governor and up to four Deputy Governors. The Governor chairs RBI's Central Board.
26.
The AATAL pollution-analysis lab for Delhi-NCR (Oct 2026) is located at the Delhi branch of which institute?
Correct Answer: B [IITM]
Explanation:
Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) – HQ Pune. AATAL is linked to IITM's AIRWISE decision-support system.
27.
Under which programme did the Ministry of Earth Sciences set up the AATAL laboratory?
Correct Answer: D [Mission Mausam]
Explanation:
Mission Mausam – approved Sept 2024; run by IMD, IITM and NCMRWF. NCAP (2019) belongs to the Environment Ministry.
28.
IITM's 'SAFAR' air-quality forecasting system was introduced in Delhi in connection with which event?
Correct Answer: D [2010 Commonwealth Games]
Explanation:
SAFAR – System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting And Research; later extended to Pune, Mumbai and Ahmedabad.
29.
PM2.5 particles are very harmful to health because they can penetrate deep into which part of the body?
Correct Answer: C [Alveoli of the lungs]
Explanation:
Being 2.5 micrometres or smaller, they pass the alveoli and can enter the blood. NAAQS (2009) sets limits for 12 pollutants.
30.
The Manali industrial area, classed a 'Critically Polluted Area', is located in which city?
Correct Answer: A [Chennai]
Explanation:
Manali – North Chennai; a hub of refinery, fertiliser and chemical units. Chennai is one of the NCAP 'non-attainment cities'.
31.
Which Union Ministry organises the annual Urban Mobility India (UMI) Conference?
Correct Answer: B [Housing & Urban Affairs]
Explanation:
MoHUA runs it through the Institute of Urban Transport (India). The 19th edition (2026) was in Bhubaneswar on accessibility and liveability in the digital age.
32.
Which Chennai body won UMI 2026's 'Best Non-Motorised Transport' award?
Correct Answer: D [Greater Chennai Corp.]
Explanation:
Non-motorised transport means walking and cycling. CMRL shared the 'Best Passenger Services' award with NCRTC.
33.
Under the PM-eBus Sewa scheme, e-buses are deployed in cities through which model?
Correct Answer: D [Public–Private Partnership]
Explanation:
Approved in 2023; 10,000 e-buses, run by MoHUA. Segment B covers green mobility steps like NCMC fares and charging.
34.
Among urban missions launched in 2015, which one gives priority to water supply and sewerage?
Correct Answer: B [AMRUT]
Explanation:
AMRUT – Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation; launched with the Smart Cities Mission and PMAY-U on 25 June 2015.
35.
What is the core principle of the National Urban Transport Policy 2006?
Correct Answer: A [Move people, not vehicles]
Explanation:
It prioritises public transport, walking and cycling. The Metro Rail Policy 2017 stresses Transit-Oriented Development (TOD).
36.
Which national agency registers livestock and poultry breeds in India and gives them accession numbers?
Correct Answer: D [ICAR-NBAGR, Karnal]
Explanation:
NBAGR – National Bureau of Animal Genetic Resources. With the 2026 additions India has 262 registered breeds. NDRI is also at Karnal.
37.
The 'Kombai' dog breed, nationally recognised in 2026, is associated with which district of Tamil Nadu?
Correct Answer: B [Theni]
Explanation:
Named after Kombai town in Theni district; a guard dog also called the 'Polygar dog'. It is the only dog among the 16 breeds of 2026.
38.
Along with Karnataka's Mudhol Hound, which two Tamil Nadu dog breeds were the first registered by NBAGR?
Correct Answer: D [Rajapalayam and Chippiparai]
Explanation:
These three were the first dog breeds registered (2020). Rajapalayam – white hunting and guard dog; Chippiparai – slender sighthound.
39.
Which Tamil Nadu cattle breed, reared in the Sivaganga–Ramanathapuram area, is widely used as Jallikattu bulls?
Correct Answer: B [Pulikulam]
Explanation:
Pulikulam is a grazing breed. Kangayam bulls are also used in Jallikattu; Umblachery is a Cauvery-delta breed.
40.
What is the main aim of the 'Rashtriya Gokul Mission' launched in December 2014?
Correct Answer: C [Conserve indigenous bovines]
Explanation:
It develops and conserves indigenous cattle and buffalo breeds scientifically; run by the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
41.
What does 'agrivoltaics' (Agri-PV) refer to?
Correct Answer: C [Crops and solar on same land]
Explanation:
Farming and power generation on the same land at the same time; shade from raised panels helps keep soil moisture.
42.
Which State announced India's first dedicated Agri-PV policy in Oct 2026?
Correct Answer: B [Odisha]
Explanation:
Odisha Agri-PV Policy 2026 – 'One Field, Two Harvests'; at least 90% of the land must stay under cultivation.
43.
What does 'Component B' of the PM-KUSUM scheme support?
Correct Answer: D [Standalone solar pumps]
Explanation:
Component B – standalone solar pumps for off-grid areas. Launched by MNRE in 2019; A – solar plants, C – pump solarisation.
44.
Into which new company was the Tamil Nadu Energy Development Agency (TEDA) merged in 2024?
Correct Answer: C [TN Green Energy Corp. (TNGECL)]
Explanation:
TNGECL – the renewable-energy company formed in TANGEDCO's 2024 restructuring. TEDA had been set up in 1984.
45.
The Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (2010) is one of the missions under which plan?
Correct Answer: C [NAPCC]
Explanation:
The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC, 2008) has eight national missions, including Solar and Enhanced Energy Efficiency.
46.
Sidhi district, which got a rail link for the first time since Independence in Oct 2026, is in which State?
Correct Answer: B [Madhya Pradesh]
Explanation:
The Rewa–Churhat line links Sidhi; it is part of the Lalitpur–Singrauli project. Sanjay National Park is in Sidhi district.
47.
Singrauli, the end-point of the new line, is called India's 'energy capital' because of its:
Correct Answer: A [Coal mines & thermal plants]
Explanation:
Singrauli, on the MP–UP border, is a coal-rich area with several large thermal power stations.
📘 Study the subjects of these questions fully
📰 Read the news behind these questions
› Mains Analysis: No added sugar before six months – what FSSAI's 2026 draft on infant foods means
› Madurai Bench of Madras HC bars registration of documents on lands dedicated to Srirangam temple by an 1887 deed
› Flood water gushes down Thalaiyar (Rat Tail) Falls, Tamil Nadu's highest waterfall
› Tenkasi Forest Division adds the Madras hedgehog to its 'Golden Jackal Ambassadors' conservation programme
› Voters too can file private criminal complaints over a candidate's false election affidavit – Supreme Court
› PM Modi to open RBI's Tier IV Data Centre and Enterprise Computing & Cybersecurity Training Institute at Bhubaneswar
› Jitendra Singh opens 'AATAL' air-pollution analysis laboratory for Delhi-NCR at IITM's Delhi branch
› 19th Urban Mobility India Conference and 2nd National Urban Conclave in Bhubaneswar – Bhubaneswar wins 'Best Green Transport Initiative' city award
› Agriculture Ministry notifies 16 new indigenous livestock and dog breeds, including Tamil Nadu's Kombai dog
› Odisha announces India's first dedicated Agri-PV (agrivoltaics) policy – 'One Field, Two Harvests'
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