UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 29: Constitutional Bodies

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UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 29: Constitutional Bodies (30 MCQs) – 29 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members.

2. The recommendations of the Finance Commission are binding on the Union Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 only]

Explanation:

the recommendations are advisory.

The report of the Finance Commission is laid before Parliament with an explanatory memorandum under:

Correct Answer: C [Article 281]

Explanation:

Article 281.

The chairman of the Fourth Finance Commission, who later headed Tamil Nadu's Centre–State Relations Inquiry Committee, was:

Correct Answer: D [P.V. Rajamannar]

Explanation:

also the Rajamannar Committee, 1969.

A member of a State Public Service Commission can be removed by:

Correct Answer: C [the President]

Explanation:

Article 317.

The members of a State Public Service Commission hold office for six years or until they attain the age of:

Correct Answer: C [62]

Explanation:

62.

A Joint State Public Service Commission can be created by:

Correct Answer: A [an Act of Parliament at the request of the States concerned]

Explanation:

Article 315(2).

Which one of the following is NOT eligible for further employment under the Government of India or a State?

Correct Answer: A [The Chairman of the UPSC]

Explanation:

Article 319.

The CAG holds office for six years or until the age of 65 under:

Correct Answer: D [the CAG (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971]

Explanation:

the 1971 Act.

Assertion (A): The CAG of India controls the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund.

Reason (R): The CAG audits all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Correct Answer: D [A is not correct but R is correct]

Explanation:

audit, not control.

10.

The reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of a State are submitted to the:

Correct Answer: C [Governor]

Explanation:

Article 151(2).

11.

Match List I (Article) with List II (Body):

List I: A. 76 B. 148 C. 165 D. 350B

List II: 1. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities 2. Advocate General 3. CAG 4. Attorney General

Correct Answer: B [A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1]

Explanation:

all four match.

12.

To be appointed Attorney General for India, a person must be qualified to be appointed:

Correct Answer: A [a judge of the Supreme Court]

Explanation:

Article 76.

13.

The right of the Advocate General to speak in the State Legislature is provided by:

Correct Answer: B [Article 177]

Explanation:

Article 177.

14.

The National Commission for Backward Classes received constitutional status by the:

Correct Answer: A [102nd Amendment]

Explanation:

2018, Article 338B.

15.

The Government decides not to accept the UPSC's advice in a disciplinary case. Under the Constitution:

Correct Answer: B [the reasons are explained to Parliament with the UPSC's annual report]

Explanation:

Article 323.

16.

The first Public Service Commission in India was set up in 1926 on the recommendation of the:

Correct Answer: C [Lee Commission]

Explanation:

1924 report.

17.

Which one of the following is a constitutional body?

Correct Answer: A [National Commission for Scheduled Tribes]

Explanation:

Article 338A.

18.

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. First Finance Commission

2. 101st Amendment creating the GST Council

3. First Public Service Commission

4. 89th Amendment creating a separate NCST

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: D [3-1-4-2]

Explanation:

1926, 1951, 2003, 2016.

19.

Article 315 of the Constitution provides for:

Correct Answer: A [Public Service Commissions for the Union and the States]

Explanation:

Article 315 provides a Public Service Commission for the Union and one for each State, and allows Parliament to create Joint State Commissions.

20.

UPSC Prelims 2001

Which one of the following duties is NOT performed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

Correct Answer: D [To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public revenue is lodged in the exchequer]

Explanation:

the Indian CAG audits; it does not control.

21.

UPSC Prelims 2003

Consider the following statements: The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are

1. To allow the withdrawal of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

2. To allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.

3. To consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.

4. To supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3]

Explanation:

Article 280(3).

22.

UPSC Prelims 2011

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer: D [None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context]

Explanation:

it recommends the distribution of taxes and grants.

23.

UPSC Prelims 2012

In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?

1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.

2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.

3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

no exchequer control, no power to prosecute.

24.

UPSC Prelims 2013

Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can

1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha

2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha

3. speak in the Lok Sabha

4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

Article 88.

25.

UPSC Prelims 2013

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

1. National Development Council

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

none is in the Constitution.

26.

UPSC Prelims 2015

With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.

2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

32 to 42 per cent.

27.

UPSC Prelims 2022

Consider the following statements:

1. The Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]

Explanation:

both are incorrect.

28.

UPSC Prelims 2023

Consider the following:

1. Demographic performance

2. Forest and ecology

3. Governance reforms

4. Stable government

5. Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?