UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 3: Salient Features, Sources, Parts and Schedules (26 MCQs)

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UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 3: Salient Features, Sources, Parts and Schedules (26 MCQs) – 26 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

As adopted in 1949, the Constitution of India contained:

Correct Answer: A [22 Parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules]

Explanation:

Preamble, 22 Parts, 395 Articles, 8 Schedules.

2.  

Match List I (Feature) with List II (Source):

List I: A. Directive Principles B. Concurrent List C. Residuary powers with the Centre D. Suspension of Fundamental Rights in an emergency

List II: 1. Australia 2. Weimar Germany 3. Ireland 4. Canada

Correct Answer: B [A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2]

Explanation:

Ireland, Australia, Canada, Weimar.

3.  

The idea of "procedure established by law" in Article 21 was borrowed from the Constitution of:

Correct Answer: C [Japan]

Explanation:

Japan.

4.  

Which of the following were borrowed from the British Constitution?

1. Single citizenship
2. Prerogative writs
3. Judicial review
4. Bicameralism

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 4 only]

Explanation:

single citizenship, writs and bicameralism came from Britain.

5.  

Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution were inspired by the Constitution of:

Correct Answer: A [the former USSR]

Explanation:

the former Soviet Union.

6.  

Assertion (A): Article 1 describes India as a "Union of States" rather than a federation.

Reason (R): The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the States, and the States have no right to secede.

Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

this was Dr Ambedkar's explanation of the phrase.

7.  

Consider the following features of the Indian Constitution:

1. Single citizenship
2. All-India services
3. Appointment of State Governors by the Centre
4. Division of powers in the Seventh Schedule

How many of the above are unitary (non-federal) features?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

1, 2 and 3 are unitary; division of powers is a federal feature.

8.  

Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution can be amended only by a special majority of Parliament together with ratification by the legislatures of half of the States?

Correct Answer: A [Representation of States in Parliament]

Explanation:

representation of States in Parliament is a federal provision needing ratification.

9.  

The voting age in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the:

Correct Answer: C [61st Amendment Act, 1988]

Explanation:

the 61st Amendment, 1988 (Article 326).

10.  

Consider the following statements about the parliamentary system in India:

1. The President is the nominal executive and the Council of Ministers is the real executive.
2. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
3. A minister who is not a member of Parliament must become one within six months.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

collective responsibility is to the Lok Sabha (Article 75(3)).

11.  

Match List I (Part) with List II (Subject):

List I: A. Part IVA B. Part IXA C. Part XIVA D. Part XVIII

List II: 1. Tribunals 2. Emergency Provisions 3. Fundamental Duties 4. Municipalities

Correct Answer: A [A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2]

Explanation:

Fundamental Duties, Municipalities, Tribunals, Emergency.

12.  

Which Part of the Constitution was repealed by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956?

Correct Answer: D [Part VII]

Explanation:

Part VII (States in Part B of the First Schedule).

13.  

The Articles dealing with Relations between the Union and the States are in:

Correct Answer: C [Part XI]

Explanation:

Part XI, Articles 245–263.

14.  

Which of the following find a place in the Third Schedule of the Constitution?

1. Oath of the President
2. Oath of a Union minister
3. Oath of a judge of the Supreme Court
4. Oath of the Comptroller and Auditor-General

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: D [2, 3 and 4 only]

Explanation:

ministers, Supreme Court judges and the CAG are in the Third Schedule.

15.  

The Sixth Schedule applies to the tribal areas of:

Correct Answer: B [Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram]

Explanation:

Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

16.  

Arrange the addition of the following Schedules in chronological order:

1. Tenth Schedule
2. Ninth Schedule
3. Twelfth Schedule

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: B [2-1-3]

Explanation:

1951, 1985, 1992.

17.  

Which of the following subjects were moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?

1. Education
2. Forests
3. Police
4. Weights and measures

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: C [1, 2 and 4 only]

Explanation:

education, forests and weights and measures were among the five subjects moved.

18.  

Which of the following languages were added to the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003?

Correct Answer: A [Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali]

Explanation:

Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali.

19.  

A State law placed in the Ninth Schedule in 1995 is challenged in the Supreme Court as violating the right to equality in a way that destroys the basic structure. Which statement correctly describes the Court's power?

Correct Answer: D [The Court can examine it, because laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 are open to basic-structure review.]

Explanation:

the I.R. Coelho rule.

20.  

The co-operative societies were given constitutional status, including Part IXB, by the:

Correct Answer: D [97th Amendment Act, 2011]

Explanation:

the 97th Amendment, 2011.

21.  
UPSC Prelims 2003

Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived):

List I: A. Directive Principles of State Policy B. Fundamental Rights C. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations D. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union

List II: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. Ireland 4. United Kingdom 5. USA

Correct Answer: D [A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2]

Explanation:

Ireland, USA, Australia, Canada.

22.  
UPSC Prelims 2005

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [3 only]

Explanation:

the four later Schedules were added by the 1st, 52nd, 73rd and 74th Amendments.

23.  
UPSC Prelims 2014

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

Correct Answer: D [Tenth Schedule]

Explanation:

added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985.

24.  
UPSC Prelims 2017

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

Correct Answer: D [It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.]

Explanation:

India is a "Union of States", not formed by agreement.

25.  
UPSC Prelims 2024

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?

1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.

Select the answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

Part IXA, Part XVIII and Part XX (Article 368).

26.  
UPSC Prelims 2026

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.
2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935, stand repealed.
3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

Correct Answer: B [There is no correct statement.]

Explanation:

Article 393 (short title), Article 395 (repeals) and Article 394 (commencement) exist.

➤ Full notes, maps, tables, a reason for every option and Mains PYQs – U11 · Indian Polity (UPSC book, ₹249): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/upsc-indian-polity

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