UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 7: Fundamental Rights (35 MCQs)

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UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 7: Fundamental Rights (35 MCQs) – 35 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the:

Correct Answer: B [44th Amendment Act, 1978]

Explanation:

it is now a legal right under Article 300A.

2.  

Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available only to citizens?

1. Article 14
2. Article 16
3. Article 19
4. Article 21

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: C [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Articles 16 and 19 are only for citizens.

3.  

Under Article 13(3), the term "law" does NOT include:

Correct Answer: B [a constitutional amendment made under Article 368]

Explanation:

Article 13(4), inserted by the 24th Amendment, excludes it.

4.  

The doctrine under which a pre-Constitution law inconsistent with a Fundamental Right is not dead but becomes dormant, and revives if the right is amended, is called the doctrine of:

Correct Answer: C [eclipse]

Explanation:

the doctrine of eclipse ( Bhikaji Narain , 1955).

5.  

Assertion (A): A law that gives an executive authority unguided and uncontrolled discretion is liable to be struck down.

Reason (R): Arbitrariness is the antithesis of equality under Article 14.

Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

E.P. Royappa (1974) and later cases.

6.  

Match List I (Clause) with List II (Amendment that inserted it):

List I: A. Article 15(4) B. Article 15(5) C. Article 16(4A) D. Article 16(4B)

List II: 1. 77th Amendment 2. 1st Amendment 3. 81st Amendment 4. 93rd Amendment

Correct Answer: A [A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3]

Explanation:

1st, 93rd, 77th, 81st.

7.  

Consider the following statements about the Indra Sawhney judgment (1992):

1. It upheld 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes.
2. It held that the creamy layer must be excluded.
3. It allowed reservation in promotions without any limit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

it barred reservation in promotions; the 77th Amendment restored it for SCs and STs.

8.  

Article 16 prohibits discrimination in public employment on which of the following grounds that are NOT mentioned in Article 15?

Correct Answer: A [Descent and residence]

Explanation:

descent and residence are added in Article 16.

9.  

In Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1996), the Supreme Court held that national awards such as the Bharat Ratna:

Correct Answer: D [are not titles under Article 18, but should not be used as suffixes or prefixes]

Explanation:

the holding in Balaji Raghavan .

10.  

How many of the following are grounds on which reasonable restrictions may be imposed on the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(2)?

1. Friendly relations with foreign States
2. Contempt of court
3. Defamation
4. Interests of the general public

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

"interests of the general public" is a ground under 19(5) and 19(6), not 19(2).

11.  

Which of the following is protected by Article 20(3)?

Correct Answer: D [Protection against self-incrimination]

Explanation:

no accused can be compelled to be a witness against himself.

12.  

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the procedure under Article 21 must be "just, fair and reasonable"?

Correct Answer: A [Maneka Gandhi (1978)]

Explanation:

Maneka Gandhi (1978).

13.  

Consider the following statements about Article 21A:

1. It was inserted by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.
2. It provides free and compulsory education to children of 6 to 14 years.
3. It applies only to children who are citizens of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Article 21A speaks of "all children".

14.  

Under Article 22, a person arrested under ordinary law must be produced before the nearest magistrate within:

Correct Answer: D [24 hours, excluding the time of journey]

Explanation:

24 hours, excluding journey time.

15.  

Which of the following has exclusive power to make preventive detention laws for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs or the security of India?

Correct Answer: A [Parliament]

Explanation:

these are Union List matters.

16.  

The employment of children in factories, mines and hazardous employment is prohibited under Article 24 below the age of:

Correct Answer: B [14 years]

Explanation:

14 years.

17.  

Consider the following statements about the freedom of religion:

1. Article 25 is available to all persons, not only citizens.
2. Article 27 prohibits taxes whose proceeds are used to promote a particular religion.
3. Religious instruction is completely prohibited in all educational institutions receiving State aid.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

in aided institutions religious instruction is voluntary, not prohibited.

18.  

For the purposes of Article 30, the Supreme Court in T.M.A. Pai Foundation (2002) held that linguistic and religious minorities are to be determined:

Correct Answer: D [State-wise]

Explanation:

State-wise.

19.  

Assertion (A): Article 29(1) protects the language, script and culture of any section of citizens.

Reason (R): Article 29(1) applies only to religious minorities.

Correct Answer: C [A is correct but R is not correct]

Explanation:

Article 29(1) protects any section of citizens, including the majority.

20.  

Match List I (Writ) with List II (Purpose):

List I: A. Habeas corpus B. Mandamus C. Certiorari D. Quo warranto

List II: 1. To quash an order of a lower court 2. To produce a detained person 3. To enquire into the legality of a claim to public office 4. To command performance of a public duty

Correct Answer: D [A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3]

Explanation:

habeas corpus, mandamus, certiorari, quo warranto.

21.  

Which writ can be issued even against a private person?

Correct Answer: D [Habeas corpus]

Explanation:

habeas corpus lies against public authorities and private persons.

22.  

Consider the following statements comparing Articles 32 and 226:

1. The High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of legal rights other than Fundamental Rights.
2. The remedy under Article 32 is itself a Fundamental Right.
3. A High Court cannot refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Article 226 jurisdiction is discretionary.

23.  

Which Article empowers Parliament to restrict the Fundamental Rights of members of the armed forces?

Correct Answer: C [Article 33]

Explanation:

Article 33.

24.  

A State police officer arrests a person for theft and keeps him in the lock-up for three days without producing him before any magistrate. Which right has been violated, and what remedy is most suitable?

Correct Answer: B [Article 22(2); writ of habeas corpus]

Explanation:

the 24-hour rule is violated; habeas corpus tests the detention.

25.  

Arrange the following judgments in chronological order:

1. Indra Sawhney
2. Maneka Gandhi
3. Puttaswamy
4. Champakam Dorairajan

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: C [4-2-1-3]

Explanation:

1951, 1978, 1992, 2017.

26.  
UPSC Prelims 2017

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [1 and 4 only]

Explanation:

Articles 23 and 24.

27.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?

Correct Answer: B [Article 21]

Explanation:

read into the right to life and liberty ( Shafin Jahan , 2018).

28.  
UPSC Prelims 2020

Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

Correct Answer: D [Right to Equality]

Explanation:

Article 17 is part of the Right to Equality.

29.  
UPSC Prelims 2021

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

Correct Answer: A [Article 14]

Explanation:

arbitrariness violates equality.

30.  
UPSC Prelims 2021

'Right to Privacy' is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

Correct Answer: C [Article 21]

Explanation:

Puttaswamy (2017).

31.  
UPSC Prelims 2023

In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?

Correct Answer: A [The principle of natural justice]

Explanation:

a fair procedure satisfying natural justice.

32.  
UPSC Prelims 2023

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

statements 1 (Article 355) and 2 (Article 22(3)) are correct.

33.  
UPSC Prelims 2024

Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

Correct Answer: D [Article 21]

Explanation:

Article 21.

34.  
UPSC Prelims 2024

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

Correct Answer: C [the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.]

Explanation:

it is issued to lower courts and tribunals.

35.  
UPSC Prelims 2026

X was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13 in Part III of the Constitution of India. X explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. Y pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

Correct Answer: D [The view of only Y is correct.]

Explanation:

Article 13(3)(a) includes custom or usage having the force of law.

➤ Full notes, maps, tables, a reason for every option and Mains PYQs – U11 · Indian Polity (UPSC book, ₹249): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/upsc-indian-polity

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