UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution and the Basic Structure (28 MCQs)

← Back

UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution and the Basic Structure (28 MCQs) – 28 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

Get daily current affairs & exam alerts – follow us YouTube WhatsApp Channel Telegram Channel Facebook Page Instagram
Share with friends & study groups
Link to this page from your website / blog (HTML code)
1.  

The procedure for amending the Constitution is laid down in:

Correct Answer: A [Article 368 in Part XX]

Explanation:

Article 368, Part XX.

2.  

Consider the following statements about a Constitution Amendment Bill:

1. It can be introduced by a private member.
2. It can be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
3. A joint sitting can be held if the two Houses disagree.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

either House; minister or private member; no joint sitting.

3.  

A "special majority" under Article 368 means:

Correct Answer: B [a majority of the total membership and two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House]

Explanation:

both conditions in each House.

4.  

After the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, when a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President, he:

Correct Answer: B [must give his assent]

Explanation:

assent is compulsory.

5.  

How many of the following require ratification by half of the States?

1. Election of the President
2. Representation of States in Parliament
3. Fundamental Rights
4. Any List in the Seventh Schedule

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

1, 2 and 4; Fundamental Rights need only a special majority.

6.  

Which one of the following can be changed by a simple majority of Parliament outside Article 368?

Correct Answer: D [Creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in States]

Explanation:

under Article 169, by simple majority.

7.  

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that Parliament cannot take away or abridge Fundamental Rights by amendment?

Correct Answer: B [Golaknath (1967)]

Explanation:

Golaknath (1967).

8.  

Consider the following statements about Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala:

1. It was decided by a thirteen-judge Bench.
2. It held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution without any limit.
3. It was decided on 24 April 1973.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the power is limited by the basic structure.

9.  

Clauses (4) and (5) of Article 368, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, were struck down in:

Correct Answer: D [Minerva Mills (1980)]

Explanation:

Minerva Mills (1980).

10.  

Assertion (A): Laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 can be examined for violation of the basic structure.

Reason (R): The basic structure doctrine was laid down in Kesavananda Bharati, decided on 24 April 1973.

Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

the date of the doctrine is the cut-off (Waman Rao, Coelho).

11.  

Match List I (Case) with List II (Holding):

List I: A. Indira Nehru Gandhi (1975) B. Kihoto Hollohan (1992) C. L. Chandra Kumar (1997) D. Advocates-on-Record (2015)

List II: 1. NJAC struck down 2. Judicial review over tribunals is basic 3. Clause 4 of the 39th Amendment struck down 4. Paragraph 7 of the Tenth Schedule struck down

Correct Answer: C [A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1]

Explanation:

39th, Tenth Schedule, tribunals, NJAC.

12.  

Which of the following is NOT recognised as part of the basic structure?

Correct Answer: C [The right to property]

Explanation:

the right to property is now only a legal right (Article 300A).

13.  

The 101st Amendment Act, 2016 added which provision to the list requiring ratification by the States?

Correct Answer: B [Article 279A – GST Council]

Explanation:

the GST Council.

14.  

Match List I (Amendment) with List II (Subject):

List I: A. 61st B. 91st C. 102nd D. 105th

List II: 1. Size of the Council of Ministers 2. Voting age 3. States' power to identify backward classes 4. National Commission for Backward Classes

Correct Answer: D [A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3]

Explanation:

61st, 91st, 102nd, 105th.

15.  

Consider the following statements about the 106th Amendment Act, 2023:

1. It reserves one-third of the seats in the Lok Sabha for women.
2. It also covers the Legislative Assembly of Delhi.
3. It reserves one-third of the seats in the Rajya Sabha for women.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

it does not apply to the Rajya Sabha or Legislative Councils.

16.  

The 104th Amendment Act, 2019:

Correct Answer: D [extended reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and Assemblies up to 2030 and ended the nomination of Anglo-Indians]

Explanation:

the 104th.

17.  

In the Lok Sabha, 528 members are present and voting on a Constitution Amendment Bill; 298 vote for it and 230 against. The total membership of the House is above 540. What happens?

Correct Answer: C [The Bill fails, because it did not get two-thirds of the members present and voting.]

Explanation:

352 votes were needed (the 131st Bill, April 2026).

18.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Minerva Mills judgment
2. 24th Amendment Act
3. Golaknath judgment
4. Kesavananda Bharati judgment

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: A [3-2-4-1]

Explanation:

1967, 1971, 1973, 1980.

19.  

The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 did which of the following?

Correct Answer: A [Omitted Article 329A and removed the right to property from Part III]

Explanation:

the 44th undid several Emergency-era changes.

20.  

The idea of a special procedure for amending the Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of:

Correct Answer: D [South Africa]

Explanation:

South Africa.

21.  
UPSC Prelims 2013

Consider the following statements:

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]

Explanation:

neither statement is correct.

22.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

the NJAC was struck down in 2015.

23.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

Correct Answer: A [Jawaharlal Nehru]

Explanation:

the 1st Amendment, 1951.

24.  
UPSC Prelims 2020

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its 'basic structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for 'judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]

Explanation:

both concepts come from judicial interpretation.

25.  
UPSC Prelims 2020

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

Correct Answer: B [amending the Constitution]

Explanation:

each House must pass the Bill by a special majority.

26.  
UPSC Prelims 2022

Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

assent is compulsory; special majority; no joint sitting.

27.  
UPSC Prelims 2024

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:

1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the words of Article 368(1).

28.  
UPSC Prelims 2025

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

II. Extent of the executive power of a State

III. Conditions of the Governor's office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

Correct Answer: A [I and II only]

Explanation:

the Seventh Schedule Lists and Article 162 are in the proviso.

➤ Full notes, maps, tables, a reason for every option and Mains PYQs – U11 · Indian Polity (UPSC book, ₹249): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/upsc-indian-polity

Score: 0 Answered: 0 / 0