UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 24: Emergency Provisions (28 MCQs)

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UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 24: Emergency Provisions (28 MCQs) – 28 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Consider the following statements about a Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352:

1. It can be issued on the ground of internal disturbance.
2. It can be issued before the actual occurrence of war if the President is satisfied that there is imminent danger of it.
3. It can be confined to a part of the territory of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

statement 2 is the Explanation to Article 352; statement 3 has been possible since the 42nd Amendment.

2.  

The President can proclaim a National Emergency only after the decision to do so is communicated to him in writing by:

Correct Answer: C [the Union Cabinet]

Explanation:

the Union Cabinet (Prime Minister and Ministers of Cabinet rank) must communicate its decision in writing.

3.  

Consider the following about the approval of a Proclamation of National Emergency:

1. It must be approved by a majority of the total membership of each House.
2. It must be approved by at least two-thirds of the members present and voting in each House.
3. If the two Houses disagree, a joint sitting is held.
4. It must be approved within one month of its issue.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

1, 2 and 4 are correct; statements 1 and 2 are the two halves of the special majority, and both must be met. There is no joint sitting for emergency resolutions (Article 108 applies only to Bills).

4.  

Assertion (A): An approved Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved again by both Houses every six months to remain in force.

Reason (R): The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 introduced periodic parliamentary approval of a National Emergency.

Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

before the 44th Amendment an approved proclamation stayed until revoked; the amendment introduced six-month renewals, which is why A is true.

5.  

Which one of the following statements about the revocation of a National Emergency is correct?

Correct Answer: D [A notice signed by at least one-tenth of the total members of Lok Sabha requires a special sitting within 14 days to consider its disapproval.]

Explanation:

this is Article 352(8).

6.  

Match List I (Article) with List II (Subject):

List I: A. Article 354 B. Article 355 C. Article 357 D. Article 365

List II: 1. Duty of the Union to protect States 2. Application of revenue-distribution provisions during an emergency 3. Effect of failure to comply with Union directions 4. Exercise of legislative powers under a proclamation under Article 356

Correct Answer: A [A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3]

Explanation:

354 revenues, 355 duty of the Union, 357 law-making under President's Rule, 365 failure to follow directions.

7.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Article 358 suspends Article 19 automatically when an emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion.
2. The President cannot suspend the right to move courts for the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.
3. Every order under Article 359 must be laid before each House of Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

statements 2 and 3 are Article 359(1) and 359(3).

8.  

During a National Emergency, the normal term of Lok Sabha can be extended:

Correct Answer: D [by a law of Parliament, one year at a time, but not beyond six months after the emergency ends]

Explanation:

this is the proviso to Article 83(2).

9.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. 44th Amendment Act
2. ADM Jabalpur judgment
3. S.R. Bommai judgment
4. First Proclamation of National Emergency

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: A [4-2-1-3]

Explanation:

1962 (first emergency), 1976 (ADM Jabalpur), 1978 (44th Amendment), 1994 (Bommai).

10.  

Under the general rule in Article 356(4), the maximum period for which President's Rule can remain in force in a State is:

Correct Answer: C [three years]

Explanation:

six-month spells can add up to three years in all.

11.  

President's Rule can continue beyond one year only if:

1. a Proclamation of National Emergency is in operation in the whole of India or in the whole or any part of the State;
2. the Election Commission certifies that its continuance is necessary because of difficulties in holding elections;
3. the Governor recommends its continuance.

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Article 356(5) lays down exactly these two conditions.

12.  

Consider the following statements about President's Rule:

1. The President can assume the powers of the High Court of the State.
2. Parliament may confer on the President the power to make laws for the State.
3. Laws made during President's Rule continue after it ends until altered or repealed by the State Legislature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

statements 2 and 3 are Article 357(1)(a) and 357(2).

13.  

Which one of the following was NOT laid down in S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)?

Correct Answer: D [A report of the Governor is a mandatory precondition for a proclamation under Article 356.]

Explanation:

Article 356(1) allows action on the Governor's report "or otherwise", so the report is not mandatory.

14.  

Consider the following statements about Financial Emergency:

1. It has never been proclaimed in India.
2. It must be approved by both Houses within two months.
3. It must be approved again every six months.
4. The salaries of judges of the Supreme Court can be reduced while it is in force.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

1, 2 and 4 are correct; once approved it continues until revoked, so 3 is incorrect.

15.  

Assertion (A): During a National Emergency, the State government is dismissed and the President takes over its functions.

Reason (R): Under Article 353, the executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to any State.

Correct Answer: D [A is not correct but R is correct]

Explanation:

the State government continues under Union direction (R); dismissal happens only under Article 356.

16.  

Consider the following pairs (Year of proclamation – Ground):

1. 1962 – External aggression
2. 1971 – Armed rebellion
3. 1975 – Internal disturbance

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

pairs 1 and 3 are correct; the 1971 ground was external aggression, and "armed rebellion" did not exist as a ground until 1978.

17.  

The words "armed rebellion" were substituted for "internal disturbance" in Article 352 by the:

Correct Answer: D [44th Amendment Act]

Explanation:

the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.

18.  

A National Emergency is proclaimed on the ground of armed rebellion. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 19 is suspended automatically.
2. The President may, by order, suspend the right to move courts for the enforcement of Article 14.
3. The President may, by order, suspend the right to move courts for the enforcement of Article 21.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

Article 359 allows suspension of enforcement of Article 14 by order, under any ground.

19.  

An order of the President under Article 354 modifying the distribution of revenues between the Union and the States can remain in force at most until:

Correct Answer: C [the end of the financial year in which the emergency ceases]

Explanation:

Article 354(1) allows the modification until the end of the financial year in which the proclamation ceases.

20.  

Consider the following statements about the legislative effect of a National Emergency:

1. Parliament can make laws on State List subjects without a resolution of Rajya Sabha.
2. Such laws cease to have effect six months after the emergency ends.
3. The State Legislatures lose their power to make laws on State List subjects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Article 250 needs no Rajya Sabha resolution (unlike Article 249), and its laws lapse six months after the emergency.

21.  

President's Rule is proclaimed in a State on 1 March and is approved by both Houses on 20 March. If it is not approved again, it will end:

Correct Answer: A [six months after 1 March]

Explanation:

under Article 356(4) the six months run from the date of issue of the proclamation.

22.  

Statement I: During a Financial Emergency, the President may require Money Bills passed by a State Legislature to be reserved for his consideration.

Statement II: During a Financial Emergency, the President may direct the reduction of the salaries of judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II does not explain Statement I]

Explanation:

Statement I is Article 360(4)(a)(ii); Statement II is Article 360(4)(b); they are independent effects.

23.  

While a State is under President's Rule and the House of the People is not in session, expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the State, pending its sanction by Parliament, may be authorised by:

Correct Answer: D [the President]

Explanation:

Article 357(1)(c).

24.  

In which case did the Supreme Court hold that a proclamation of National Emergency can be challenged on the ground of mala fides or of resting on wholly extraneous or irrelevant facts?

Correct Answer: A [Minerva Mills v. Union of India]

Explanation:

Minerva Mills (1980), after the 44th Amendment had removed the finality clause.

25.  

President's Rule was imposed in a State on 13 February 2025 and revoked on 4 February 2026. Which one of the following statements about this case is correct?

Correct Answer: B [It needed fresh approval by both Houses to continue beyond six months from the date of issue.]

Explanation:

each spell is six months from the date of issue; continuing needs fresh approval (Article 356(4)).

26.  
UPSC Prelims 2017

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the Assembly may be kept in suspended animation instead of being dissolved, and local bodies are not affected by Article 356.

27.  
UPSC Prelims 2018

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

Correct Answer: B [the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.]

Explanation:

this is Article 356(1)(b) word for word.

28.  
UPSC Prelims 2022

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha alone (Article 75(3)).

➤ Full notes, maps, tables, a reason for every option and Mains PYQs – U11 · Indian Polity (UPSC book, ₹249): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/upsc-indian-polity

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