UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 25: Special Provisions, Scheduled Areas and Union Territories (29 MCQs)

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UPSC Indian Polity – Chapter 25: Special Provisions, Scheduled Areas and Union Territories (29 MCQs) – 29 questions, subject: Polity. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Which Article contains special provisions for development boards in Maharashtra and Gujarat?

Correct Answer: D [Article 371]

Explanation:

Vidarbha, Marathwada, Saurashtra, Kutch.

2.  

Under Article 371A, which of the following do not apply to Nagaland unless its Assembly so decides?

1. Acts of Parliament on Naga religious or social practices
2. Acts of Parliament on ownership and transfer of land and its resources
3. Acts of Parliament on defence of India

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Article 371A(1)(a).

3.  

Article 371J, inserted by the 98th Amendment (2012), relates to:

Correct Answer: C [Karnataka]

Explanation:

Hyderabad–Karnataka region.

4.  

In In Re: Article 370 (2023), the Supreme Court:

Correct Answer: C [upheld the abrogation and held Article 370 to be temporary]

Explanation:

11 December 2023.

5.  

A Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule is declared by:

Correct Answer: A [the President by order]

Explanation:

paragraph 6, Fifth Schedule.

6.  

The annual report on the administration of Scheduled Areas is sent by the:

Correct Answer: B [Governor to the President]

Explanation:

paragraph 3, Fifth Schedule.

7.  

Consider the following about the Tribes Advisory Council:

1. It has not more than 20 members.
2. About three-fourths of its members are Scheduled Tribe members of the State Assembly.
3. The Governor consults it before making land regulations.
4. It can veto Acts of Parliament for the Scheduled Area.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [Only three]

Explanation:

statements 1, 2 and 3.

8.  

The most important practical consequence of declaring an area a Scheduled Area is:

Correct Answer: B [protection of tribal land against transfer to non-tribals]

Explanation:

Prelims 2022.

9.  

Assertion (A): A Governor can direct that an Act of Parliament shall not apply to a Scheduled Area.

Reason (R): The Fifth Schedule gives the Governor special powers to adapt laws to the needs of Scheduled Areas.

Correct Answer: C [Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

paragraph 5, Fifth Schedule.

10.  

Which State does NOT have a Sixth Schedule area?

Correct Answer: A [Manipur]

Explanation:

Manipur has hill-area provisions under Article 371C.

11.  

Match List I (Provision) with List II (Article):

List I: A. Scheduled Tribes notified B. Fifth Schedule areas C. Delhi's Assembly D. Puducherry's legislature

List II: 1. Article 239A 2. Article 239AA 3. Article 244(1) 4. Article 342

Correct Answer: A [A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1]

Explanation:

as in Sections 25.2–25.4.

12.  

An Autonomous District Council under the Sixth Schedule can have at most:

Correct Answer: B [30 members, of whom up to four are nominated by the Governor]

Explanation:

paragraph 2, Sixth Schedule.

13.  

Which of the following Acts of Parliament illustrates Article 342(2)?

Correct Answer: D [The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order (Second Amendment) Act, 2022]

Explanation:

Parliament alters ST lists by law.

14.  

Which of the following is NOT one of the Lokur Committee criteria for a Scheduled Tribe?

Correct Answer: B [Religious minority status]

Explanation:

not a criterion.

15.  

Under Article 240, the President may make regulations for:

Correct Answer: A [Andaman and Nicobar Islands]

Explanation:

listed in Article 240.

16.  

Article 244A, inserted by the 22nd Amendment (1969), empowers Parliament to:

Correct Answer: B [form an autonomous State within Assam comprising certain tribal areas]

Explanation:

Parliament may by law form an autonomous State within Assam with its own legislature or council of ministers; Meghalaya was so formed in 1970.

17.  

A State proposes to lease tribal land in a Scheduled Area to a private mining company. Which judgment would be cited against it?

Correct Answer: C [Samatha]

Explanation:

1997.

18.  

Puducherry became a Union Territory with a provision for a legislature by the:

Correct Answer: A [14th Amendment, 1962]

Explanation:

Article 239A.

19.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Article 371J inserted
2. Article 239AA inserted
3. Article 371A inserted
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu merged

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: D [3-2-1-4]

Explanation:

1962, 1991, 2012, 2020.

20.  

How many Union Territories does India have at present?

Correct Answer: C [Eight]

Explanation:

after the 2020 merger.

21.  
UPSC Prelims 2005

Consider the following statements:

1. Articles 371A to 371I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
2. Constitutions of India and the United States of America envisage a dual polity (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 only]

Explanation:

the USA has dual citizenship; naturalised citizens can be deprived.

22.  
UPSC Prelims 2008

Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?

Correct Answer: B [Fifth]

Explanation:

Fifth Schedule.

23.  
UPSC Prelims 2012

Consider the following statements:

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: D [None]

Explanation:

none is correct.

24.  
UPSC Prelims 2015

The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

Correct Answer: A [protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes]

Explanation:

Article 244.

25.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

Correct Answer: B [Fifth Schedule]

Explanation:

Samatha (1997).

26.  
UPSC Prelims 2022

If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

Correct Answer: A [This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.]

Explanation:

the Governor's land regulations.

27.  
UPSC Prelims 2023

With reference to Scheduled Areas in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

statements 1 and 2.

28.  
UPSC Prelims 2024

Consider the following statements:

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

lists are State-specific.

29.  
UPSC Prelims 2025

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such an area and the local body assumes total administration.

II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: D [Neither I nor II]

Explanation:

neither is correct.

➤ Full notes, maps, tables, a reason for every option and Mains PYQs – U11 · Indian Polity (UPSC book, ₹249): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/upsc-indian-polity

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