UPSC Indian Economy – Chapter 11: Banking System and Reforms (32 MCQs)

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UPSC Indian Economy – Chapter 11: Banking System and Reforms (32 MCQs) – 32 questions, subject: Indian Economy. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

A loan is classified as a non-performing asset when interest or principal is overdue for more than:

Correct Answer: A [90 days]

Explanation:

RBI prudential norms make a loan non-performing once interest or principal stays overdue for more than 90 days.

2.  

How many public sector banks have there been in India since 1 April 2020?

Correct Answer: B [12]

Explanation:

The 1 April 2020 merger of ten PSBs into four left 12 public sector banks – SBI and 11 nationalised banks.

3.  

Which one of the following is a liability of a commercial bank?

Correct Answer: C [Deposits]

Explanation:

Deposits are money the bank owes to its depositors, so they sit on the liabilities side of its balance sheet.

4.  

In 1969, how many banks were nationalised?

Correct Answer: D [14]

Explanation:

banks with deposits of Rs 50 crore or more.

5.  

Payments banks in India:

Correct Answer: D [cannot lend]

Explanation:

Payments banks may accept deposits and provide payment services, but their licensing rules bar them from any lending.

6.  

The deposit insurance cover per depositor per bank under DICGC is:

Correct Answer: C [Rs 5 lakh]

Explanation:

since 4 February 2020.

7.  

The minimum capital to risk-weighted assets ratio required of banks in India, including the capital conservation buffer, is:

Correct Answer: C [11.5 per cent]

Explanation:

9 + 2.5.

8.  

According to the RBI's Financial Stability Report of June 2026, the gross NPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks in March 2026 was:

Correct Answer: D [1.8 per cent]

Explanation:

The RBI's June 2026 Financial Stability Report put the GNPA ratio of scheduled commercial banks at a multi-decadal low of 1.8 per cent.

9.  

Which body replaced the Banks Board Bureau in 2022?

Correct Answer: D [Financial Services Institutions Bureau]

Explanation:

The Financial Services Institutions Bureau, set up in 2022, took over the Bureau's role of recommending heads of PSBs.

10.  

The SARFAESI Act, 2002 mainly enables banks to:

Correct Answer: B [enforce security interest and sell secured assets without court intervention]

Explanation:

SARFAESI lets secured creditors take possession of and sell secured assets to recover dues without approaching a court.

11.  

A bank has gross advances of Rs 1,000 crore and gross NPAs of Rs 18 crore, with provisions of Rs 13.5 crore. Its provision coverage ratio is:

Correct Answer: C [75 per cent]

Explanation:

13.5 ÷ 18 × 100.

12.  

After the "One State, One RRB" amalgamation of 2025, the number of regional rural banks is:

Correct Answer: D [28]

Explanation:

Under 'One State, One RRB', the 43 regional rural banks were amalgamated into 28 with effect from 1 May 2025.

13.  

Under the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, a depositor can nominate up to:

Correct Answer: A [four persons]

Explanation:

simultaneous or successive.

14.  

The Asset Quality Review that forced banks to recognise hidden bad loans was carried out by the RBI in:

Correct Answer: B [2015]

Explanation:

The RBI's Asset Quality Review of 2015 made banks recognise stressed loans they had been carrying as standard assets.

15.  

Consider the following statements about regional rural banks:
1. They were set up under the RRB Act, 1976.
2. The Centre, the sponsor bank and the State hold shares in the ratio 50 : 35 : 15.
3. In 2025-26 their gross NPA ratio fell to 5.3 per cent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

All three hold: RRB Act 1976; shares 50 : 35 : 15 (Centre, sponsor bank, State); GNPA a record-low 5.3 per cent in 2025-26.

16.  

The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025 raised the "substantial interest" threshold in a bank from Rs 5 lakh to:

Correct Answer: A [Rs 2 crore]

Explanation:

The 2025 Act raised the 'substantial interest' threshold to Rs 2 crore from Rs 5 lakh, a limit unchanged since 1968.

17.  

Assertion (A): Indian banks hold more capital than the Basel III global minimum requires.
Reason (R): The RBI prescribes a minimum CRAR of 9 per cent against the Basel minimum of 8 per cent.

Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

R explains A.

18.  

Which of the following are tools used to resolve bad loans in India?
1. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
2. National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd
3. Asset reconstruction companies under SARFAESI
Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: B [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

The IBC, NARCL and SARFAESI-based asset reconstruction companies are all used to resolve or recover bad loans.

19.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Imperial Bank of India formed
2. State Bank of India formed
3. Nationalisation of 14 banks
4. Nationalisation of 6 banks

Correct Answer: C [1-2-3-4]

Explanation:

1921, 1955, 1969, 1980.

20.  

Which public sector bank absorbed Allahabad Bank in the consolidation of 1 April 2020?

Correct Answer: A [Indian Bank]

Explanation:

the Chennai-based bank.

21.  
UPSC Prelims 2024

With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:
1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: D [Neither 1 nor 2]

Explanation:

Statement 1 fails as WOSs need Rs 500 crore minimum capital; statement 2 fails as NRIs and PIOs also count towards the 50 per cent.

22.  
UPSC Prelims 2022

With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

The BBB recommended heads of PSBs and helped them with strategy and capital raising; the RBI Governor was not its chairman.

23.  
UPSC Prelims 2021

With reference to 'Urban Cooperative Banks' in India, consider the following statements:
1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

UCBs came under the Banking Regulation Act in 1966 and may issue equity and preference shares; the RBI, not State boards, regulates their banking.

24.  
UPSC Prelims 2020

Consider the following statements:
1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

Funding PACS is a core DCCB function, while commercial banks and RRBs, not DCCBs, deliver most short-term farm credit.

25.  
UPSC Prelims 2020

What is the importance of the term "Interest Coverage Ratio" of a firm in India?
1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
3. The higher a borrowing firm's level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

The ratio shows how easily earnings cover interest, revealing present and emerging risk; a higher ratio means better debt-servicing ability.

26.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

Correct Answer: B [Deposits]

Explanation:

a liability.

27.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the:

Correct Answer: A [Banks Board Bureau]

Explanation:

at that time; the FSIB has done this since 2022.

28.  
UPSC Prelims 2018

Consider the following statements:
1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that banks incur if the account holders fail to repay dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

CAR is the own-funds capital that absorbs losses when borrowers default, but the RBI, not each bank, prescribes it.

29.  
UPSC Prelims 2017

What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
1. To supply credit to small business units
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

SFBs were set up to lend to small business units and small and marginal farmers; encouraging young rural entrepreneurs was not a stated purpose.

30.  
UPSC Prelims 2016

The establishment of 'Payment Banks' is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?
1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: B [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Resident-controlled telecom firms and supermarket chains may promote payments banks, which cannot lend and therefore issue only debit cards.

31.  
UPSC Prelims 2015

'Basel III Accord' or simply 'Basel III', often seen in the news, seeks to:

Correct Answer: B [improve banking sector's ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management]

Explanation:

Basel III was framed after the 2008 crisis to strengthen banks' capital, liquidity and risk management against financial and economic stress.

32.  
UPSC Prelims 2013

Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to:

Correct Answer: D [All of the above]

Explanation:

Priority-sector lending covers agriculture, micro and small enterprises and weaker sections, so all three options together are correct.

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