UPSC Indian Economy – Chapter 24: Industrial Policy and Industrial Growth (29 MCQs)

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UPSC Indian Economy – Chapter 24: Industrial Policy and Industrial Growth (29 MCQs) – 29 questions, subject: Indian Economy. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

The Industrial Policy Resolution often called the "Economic Constitution of India" is that of:

Correct Answer: A [1956]

Explanation:

The 1956 resolution, whose Schedules A, B and C gave the public sector the lead, is called India's Economic Constitution.

2.  

The National Manufacturing Policy (2011) aimed to raise the share of manufacturing in GDP to:

Correct Answer: B [25 per cent]

Explanation:

The National Manufacturing Policy, 2011 aimed to raise manufacturing's share of GDP to 25 per cent through National Investment and Manufacturing Zones.

3.  

The new series of the Index of Industrial Production has the base year:

Correct Answer: C [2022-23]

Explanation:

MoSPI launched the new IIP series with base year 2022-23 on 1 June 2026, replacing the 2011-12 series.

4.  

The Index of Core Industries is compiled by:

Correct Answer: A [the Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT]

Explanation:

The Office of the Economic Adviser in DPIIT compiles and releases the Index of Core Industries every month.

5.  

Which of the following is NOT among the industries covered by the Index of Core Industries?

Correct Answer: A [Textiles]

Explanation:

Textiles are not covered; the index has coal, crude oil, natural gas, refinery products, fertilisers, steel, cement, electricity and iron ore.

6.  

PLI schemes pay incentives on:

Correct Answer: B [incremental sales over a base year]

Explanation:

PLI pays a percentage of incremental sales of eligible products over a base year, rewarding firms that expand domestic production.

7.  

Consider the following statements about PLI outcomes (as on 30 June 2026):
1. Investment realised was about ₹2.58 lakh crore.
2. Incentives disbursed were about ₹36,754 crore.
3. Employment generated was over 1 crore.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

By 30 June 2026 PLI had drawn ₹2.58 lakh crore of investment and paid ₹36,754 crore, but created only 14.57 lakh jobs.

8.  

Under the limits effective from 1 April 2025, a small enterprise has investment up to:

Correct Answer: D [₹25 crore]

Explanation:

From 1 April 2025 a small enterprise has investment up to ₹25 crore and turnover up to ₹100 crore.

9.  

The Coir Board functions under the:

Correct Answer: B [Ministry of MSME]

Explanation:

The Coir Board, which promotes the coir industry, functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.

10.  

The National Automotive Board functions under the:

Correct Answer: B [Ministry of Heavy Industries]

Explanation:

The National Automotive Board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, which is responsible for the automobile sector.

11.  

Assertion (A): Plant varieties cannot be patented in India.
Reason (R): Section 3(j) of the Patents Act excludes plants, seeds and essentially biological processes from patentability.

Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

Section 3(j) bars patents on plants, seeds, varieties and essentially biological processes, which is exactly why plant varieties are not patentable.

12.  

The Intellectual Property Appellate Board was abolished in:

Correct Answer: C [2021]

Explanation:

The tribunal reforms of 2021 abolished the IPAB and transferred its work to the High Courts.

13.  

Under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013, eligible companies must spend on CSR at least:

Correct Answer: D [2 per cent of average net profits of the preceding three years]

Explanation:

Section 135 requires eligible companies to spend at least 2 per cent of average net profits of the three preceding financial years.

14.  

Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The FSS Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. FSSAI functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
3. FSSAI is headed by the Director General of Health Services.
Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

The FSS Act, 2006 replaced the PFA Act, 1954, and FSSAI works under the Health Ministry with its own Chairperson and CEO.

15.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:
1. Make in India
2. MSMED Act
3. National Manufacturing Policy
4. PLI schemes
Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: C [2-3-1-4]

Explanation:

2006, 2011, 2014, 2020.

16.  

Fixed-term employment across all sectors was introduced through the:

Correct Answer: D [Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018]

Explanation:

The 2018 amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules extended fixed-term employment to all sectors.

17.  

The Abid Hussain Committee (1997) is associated with:

Correct Answer: A [small-scale industries and dereservation]

Explanation:

The Abid Hussain Committee (1997) on small enterprises recommended dereserving items reserved for small-scale industry.

18.  

According to ASI 2024-25, the State with the largest number of factories is:

Correct Answer: B [Tamil Nadu]

Explanation:

41,221.

19.  

A circular economy reduces greenhouse-gas emissions mainly because it:

Correct Answer: C [reduces raw-material use and production waste]

Explanation:

By cutting raw-material extraction and production waste, a circular economy lowers the energy use and emissions linked to them.

20.  

The Atal Innovation Mission is set up under:

Correct Answer: A [NITI Aayog]

Explanation:

The Atal Innovation Mission was set up in 2016 under NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship.

21.  
UPSC Prelims 2025

With reference to India, consider the following pairs (Organization – Union Ministry):
I. The National Automotive Board – Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board – Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information – Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [None]

Explanation:

all three mismatched.

22.  
UPSC Prelims 2025

Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.
Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.
Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I]

Explanation:

Using fewer raw materials and wasting less in production both cut emissions, so Statements II and III are correct and explain Statement I.

23.  
UPSC Prelims 2024

With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
1. CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

CSR rules exclude activities benefiting only the company's employees and families, while Section 135 does prescribe 2 per cent minimum spending.

24.  
UPSC Prelims 2023

Consider the following statements with reference to India:
1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

All bank loans to MSMEs qualify as priority-sector lending, while the ₹15–25 crore band never defined medium enterprises.

25.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

Consider the following statements:
1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant Varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [3 only]

Explanation:

Plant varieties are protected by the PPV&FR Act, not patents; biological seed processes are unpatentable, and the IPAB existed in 2019.

26.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

Correct Answer: C [NITI Aayog]

Explanation:

The Atal Innovation Mission is NITI Aayog's flagship initiative to promote innovation and entrepreneurship.

27.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018:
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers.
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

The 2018 rules allow fixed-term employment that ends with the term and need no termination notice for temporary workmen.

28.  
UPSC Prelims 2018

Consider the following statements:
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

The FSS Act, 2006 replaced the PFA Act, 1954, but FSSAI has its own Chairperson and CEO, not the DGHS.

29.  
UPSC Prelims 2017

With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements:
1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

The 2016 National IPR Policy reaffirms Doha and TRIPS, and DIPP (now DPIIT) is the nodal department for IPR.

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