Group 2A Mains 2025 Question Paper – Part 2 (Q 53–105)

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Group 2A Mains 2025 Question Paper – Part 2 (Q 53–105) – 46 வினாக்கள், பாடம்: குரூப் 2A Mains. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவுக்கும் சரியான விடையும் ஒரு வரி விளக்கமும் உண்டு; "Show Answer" அழுத்திப் பாருங்கள். TNPSC குரூப் 1, 2, 2A, 4, SI, TET தேர்வுகளுக்கான இலவசப் பயிற்சி – சண்முகம் ஐ.ஏ.எஸ். அகாடமி, கோயம்புத்தூர்.

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1.  
Why was the My Scheme Platform introduced by the Government of India?

Correct Answer: B [To allow users to discover eligible government schemes based on their demography]

விளக்கம்:

myScheme (MeitY/NeGD) is a national platform for one-stop search and discovery of government schemes for which a citizen is eligible, based on his/her profile.

2.  
Match the following :
(a) Conjugate vaccine – 1. Polio
(b) Toxoid vaccine – 2. Hepatitis-B
(c) Killed vaccine – 3. Measles
(d) Attenuated vaccine – 4. Diphtheria

Correct Answer: B [2 4 1 3]

விளக்கம்:

Diphtheria vaccine is a toxoid, inactivated (Salk) polio vaccine is a killed vaccine and measles vaccine is live attenuated; only option B fits, leaving Hepatitis-B for 'conjugate'.

3.  
Grape cell cultures are rich in

Correct Answer: B [Anthocyanin]

விளக்கம்:

Grape (Vitis vinifera) cell suspension cultures are a classic system for producing anthocyanin pigments.

4.  
Assertion [A] : Acid rain means the presence of acids in rain water.
Reason [R] : Atmosphere contains oxides of nitrogen and sulphur produced by combustion of fuels.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

SO₂ and NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain water to form sulphuric and nitric acids, making the rain acidic (pH below 5.6).

5.  
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(i) Silicone rubber – inert to body fluids
(ii) Plasticizer – make plastics brittle
(iii) Laminate – blend of adhesive and adherend
(iv) Filler – improve mechanical properties

Correct Answer: B [(ii) only]

விளக்கம்:

A plasticizer is added to make plastics soft and flexible (e.g. phthalates in PVC), not brittle; the other three pairs are correct.

6.  
What is the theme of "World Space Week 2024", celebrated from October 4th to 10th 2024?

Correct Answer: A [Space and climate change]

விளக்கம்:

The World Space Week Association set 'Space & Climate Change' as the theme for World Space Week 2024 (4–10 October).

7.  
Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
(1) 2016 – The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act
(2) 1992 – National Trust Act
(3) 2013 – National Food Security Act
(4) 1999 – Rehabilitation Council Act

Correct Answer: D [(2) and (4) are incorrect]

விளக்கம்:

The National Trust Act was passed in 1999 and the Rehabilitation Council of India Act in 1992 – the years in (2) and (4) are swapped; RPwD Act 2016 and NFSA 2013 are correct.

8.  
In which year the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed?

Correct Answer: A [1989]

விளக்கம்:

The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is Act No. 33 of 1989 (in force from 30 January 1990).

9.  
Assertion [A] : Modern education played a crucial role in smashing the chains of social oppression.
Reason [R] : Lack of education among marginalized groups restricted them to do low occupations.

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

Denial of education had confined marginalized groups to low-paid hereditary occupations; modern education opened jobs and mobility, so it helped break social oppression – R explains A.

10.  
Choose the right matches among types
(1) PMSSY – Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (Prime Minister Health Protection Programme)
(2) NTEP – National Tobacco Elimination Programme
(3) NVBDCP – National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme
(4) JSSK – Janani Shiksha Suraksha Karyakram (Mother Education Protection Programme)

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (3) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

NTEP is the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme and JSSK is Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (free care for mother and sick newborn); PMSSY and NVBDCP are correct.

11.  
With reference to 'Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme'; consider the following statements.
(1) This scheme has been started by the Tamil Nadu
(2) It will be implemented in all Primary Schools in the State
(3) This scheme is a Pioneer Scheme in India and model for others to emulate
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (3) only]

விளக்கம்:

TN launched the scheme (15-09-2022) and it is a pioneer scheme copied by other States. It covers government (and later aided) primary schools only, not 'all primary schools', so (2) is false.

12.  
Assertion [A] : The Demographic transition varies between Districts.
Reason [R] : The districts of high economic growth attract larger population.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correctly explaining [A]]

விளக்கம்:

Population change differs across districts because economically fast-growing districts (Chennai, Coimbatore, Tiruppur) attract migrants.

13.  
Which is/are the feature/s of Tamil Nadu Agriculture Budget schemes 2022-23 is true?
(1) The Chief Minister's dry land development mission targets irrigation dependent crops
(2) The integrated farming system promotes crop cultivation with livestock rearing
(3) Traditional paddy varieties are preserved under Nel Jayaram Mission

Correct Answer: C [(2) and (3) only]

விளக்கம்:

The CM's Dryland Development Mission is for rainfed (non-irrigated) lands, so (1) is wrong; integrated farming combines crops with livestock, and the Nel Jayaraman Mission conserves traditional paddy varieties.

14.  
Name one of the cyclones which wrecked havoc in Tamil Nadu and Kerala in the month of November to December 2017.

Correct Answer: B [Ockhi]

விளக்கம்:

Cyclone Ockhi (29 Nov – 6 Dec 2017) devastated Kanniyakumari district and coastal Kerala, causing heavy loss of fishermen's lives.

15.  
The title of the Brundtland report is

Correct Answer: C [Our common future]

விளக்கம்:

The 1987 report of the World Commission on Environment and Development (chaired by Gro Harlem Brundtland) is titled 'Our Common Future'; it defined sustainable development.

16.  
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using answer codes :
(a) Bioassay organism – 1. Vespula germanica
(b) Accumulator species – 2. Palm tree
(c) Keystone species – 3. Woodlice
(d) Exotic species – 4. Trout

Correct Answer: C [4 3 2 1]

விளக்கம்:

Trout are standard bioassay (toxicity-test) fish, woodlice accumulate heavy metals, palms act as keystone food sources, and the German wasp Vespula germanica is an invasive exotic species.

17.  
Consider the following points about a biosphere reserve?
(a) It is the largest continuous mangrove area
(b) Tropical semi-evergreen forests
(c) Agrosystems, silviculture, pisciculture and prawn culture
(d) The largest mangal diversity in the world its core area has been designated as a world heritage site.
This biosphere reserve is :

Correct Answer: D [Sunderbans mangrove biosphere reserve]

விளக்கம்:

The Sundarbans is the largest contiguous mangrove forest with the richest mangrove (mangal) diversity; its core (Sundarbans National Park) is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1987).

18.  
The work of laying Optical Fibre Cables (OFC) was initiated at ________ village of Kanyakumari District.

Correct Answer: D [Muthalakurichi]

விளக்கம்:

On 9 June 2022 the Chief Minister inaugurated the BharatNet (TANFINET) optical-fibre laying work at Muthalakurichi village, Thuckalay block, Kanyakumari district.

19.  
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
Rivers – Tributaries
(1) Cauvery – Amaravathi
(2) Thamirabharani – Pampar
(3) Vaigai – Pechiyar
(4) Vellar – Manjalar

Correct Answer: D [(3) and (4)]

விளக்கம்:

Amaravathi joins the Cauvery and Pambar is a headwater tributary of the Thamirabharani; Manjalar is a tributary of the Vaigai (not Vellar) and Pechiyar is not a Vaigai tributary, so (3) and (4) are wrong.

20.  
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(1) Hindu Religious Endowment Act – 1925
(2) The Madras State Aid to Industries Act – 1923
(3) Annamalai University established – 1929
(4) E.V. Ramaswami launch the Self Respect Movement – 1930

Correct Answer: A [(2) and (4) are not correct]

விளக்கம்:

The Madras State Aid to Industries Act was passed in 1922 (Act V of 1923) and Periyar launched the Self-Respect Movement in 1925. The HRE Act (1925) and Annamalai University (1929) are correct.

21.  
Choose the pillars that support the Hall of Testimony (Saandranmai Mandabam) :
(i) Love, Shy
(ii) Delay, Tiff
(iii) Dignity, Sky
(iv) Compromise, Truth, Overview

Correct Answer: C [(i), (iv) are right]

விளக்கம்:

Thirukkural 983: 'அன்புநாண் ஒப்புரவு கண்ணோட்டம் வாய்மையொடு ஐந்துசால் ஊன்றிய தூண்' – love, modesty, beneficence, kindness and truthfulness are the five pillars of perfect virtue.

22.  
Consider the following and find out the correct statement/statements.
(a) Evidence of a planned town, warehouse and ring wells are found in Arikkamedu
(b) The Cheras ruled over Kauveri delta and their capital was uraiyur
(c) The Chola emblem was the tiger and they issued square copper coins with images of a tiger
(d) The Sangam Age has its roots in the Bronze Age

Correct Answer: C [(a) and (c) is correct]

விளக்கம்:

Arikamedu shows a planned settlement with warehouse and ring wells, and the early Cholas (tiger emblem) issued square copper coins with a tiger; the Kaveri delta/Uraiyur belonged to the Cholas, not the Cheras, and the Sangam Age has its roots in the Iron Age.

23.  
The effects of Independent Tamil Movement :
(1) Tamil Language can maintain its traditional integrity without the loan words from English and Sanskrit
(2) Reclaiming chaste Tamil's glory that was a pride of the Sangam Period
(3) Actively opposing the Hindi language
(4) Avoid Hindi and accept only the English words

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (2) correct]

விளக்கம்:

The Pure (Thani) Tamil Movement of Maraimalai Adigal (1916) showed Tamil can function without Sanskrit/English loan words and sought to restore the chaste Tamil of the Sangam age; it was not merely anti-Hindi or pro-English.

24.  
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) Meetings of the Justice Party held in English only
(2) Meetings of the Indian National Congress held in Tamil also in order to attract common people
(3) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy was elected as Deputy Speaker of Legislature in 1927

Correct Answer: D [(1), (2) and (3) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

Justice Party meetings were conducted in English, while Congress also used Tamil to reach the masses. Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy became Deputy President of the Madras Legislative Council in 1927.

25.  
When Madras Mahajana Sabha was started?

Correct Answer: C [May 16, 1884]

விளக்கம்:

The Madras Mahajana Sabha was founded on 16 May 1884 by M. Viraraghavachari, G. Subramania Iyer, P. Ananda Charlu and others, with P. Rangaiah Naidu as first president.

26.  
Arrange the following Tamil Scholars in chronological order :
(1) Mayooram Vedanayagam Pillai
(2) Vedanayagam Sastriar
(3) Thanjavur Abraham Pandithar
(4) H.A. Krishnapillai

Correct Answer: C [(2), (1), (4), (3)]

விளக்கம்:

Vedanayagam Sastriar (b. 1774), Mayuram Vedanayagam Pillai (b. 1826), H.A. Krishna Pillai (b. 1827) and Abraham Pandithar (b. 1859) – order 2, 1, 4, 3.

27.  
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Treaty of Bassein (1802)?
(i) The Treaty of Bassein was signed between Peshwa Baji Rao II and the British.
(ii) Peshwa agreed to cede in perpetuity to the company territories yielding an income of 26 lakhs rupees.
(iii) Peshwa agreed to surrender the city of surat to companies.

Correct Answer: D [(i), (ii) and (iii)]

விளக்கம்:

By the Treaty of Bassein (31 Dec 1802) Baji Rao II accepted subsidiary alliance, ceded territories yielding Rs 26 lakh a year and surrendered the city of Surat to the Company.

28.  
V.N. Gadgil committee on policy and programmes was constituted in the year

Correct Answer: D [1988]

விளக்கம்:

The Committee on Policy and Programmes headed by V.N. Gadgil was set up by the Congress party in 1988; its recommendations on constitutional status for Panchayati Raj led to the 64th Amendment Bill (1989).

29.  
People in Tamil Nadu Greets Chief Minister as "Thayumanavar" (Man who becomes Mother) for the introduction of the scheme.

Correct Answer: A [Breakfast in schools]

விளக்கம்:

Providing a mother's care of morning food to school children through the Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme (2022) earned the CM the praise 'Thayumanavar' (one who became a mother).

30.  
Which of the following statements are true about Athikadavu – Avinashi project?
(i) Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode Districts are the beneficiaries of this project.
(ii) This project proposes to take 1.5 TMC of surplus water from the Kalingarayan anicut in Erode District.
(iii) This project was implemented at a cost of 2456.41 crores and irrigate 28,464 acres of farmlands in these districts.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

விளக்கம்:

The scheme (inaugurated 17-08-2024) lifts 1.5 TMC of Bhavani surplus water below Kalingarayan anicut to 1,045 tanks in Erode, Tiruppur and Coimbatore; it cost Rs 1,916.41 crore and benefits 24,468 acres, so (iii) is wrong.

31.  
"Neengal Nalama" – is the scheme inaugurated by the Government of Tamil Nadu.

Correct Answer: D [All of these]

விளக்கம்:

'Neengal Nalama' (launched 06-03-2024) is an e-governance feedback programme in which the CM and officials directly contact beneficiaries to check that welfare schemes reach them and to bridge people and government.

32.  
Consider the following statements about ELCOT and choose the correct answer:
(i) ELCOT is registered under the Cooperative society Registration Act
(ii) It is partially owned by the Government of Tamil Nadu
(iii) It is the Nodal Agency for IT and infrastructure development for the Government of Tamil Nadu
(iv) It was established in the year 1977

Correct Answer: A [(iii) and (iv) only correct]

விளக்கம்:

ELCOT (Electronics Corporation of Tamil Nadu Ltd) was set up in 1977 as a company wholly owned by the Government of Tamil Nadu under the Companies Act, and is the State's nodal agency for IT infrastructure.

33.  
iTNT Hub is located at

Correct Answer: A [Anna University]

விளக்கம்:

The iTNT Hub (Innovation Technology Network of Tamil Nadu), India's first deep-tech innovation hub, was inaugurated in 2023 on the Anna University campus, Guindy, Chennai.

34.  
Match correctly the evolution of district administration with their corresponding year.
(a) Royal commission on decentralization – 1. 1772
(b) The Indian statutory commission – 2. 1885
(c) The Bengal local self-Government Act – 3. 1909
(d) The office of the collector – 4. 1927

Correct Answer: D [3 4 2 1]

விளக்கம்:

Royal Commission on Decentralisation reported in 1909, the Indian Statutory (Simon) Commission was appointed in 1927, the Bengal Local Self-Government Act was passed in 1885, and Warren Hastings created the office of Collector in 1772.

35.  
Identify the correct statement about the State Disaster Management Authority of TamilNadu
(i) It is responsible for coordinating the response to disasters and reducing risks
(ii) The chief secretary act as the chairperson for monitoring the disaster management activities in the state
(iii) When approving the state disaster management plan, the state cabinet follows the guidelines provided by the National Disaster Management Authority

Correct Answer: A [(i) only]

விளக்கம்:

The SDMA coordinates response and risk reduction (i). It is chaired by the Chief Minister, not the Chief Secretary (ii), and the State Plan is approved by the SDMA, not the Cabinet (iii).

36.  
Which one does not include in three-tier system of local Government?

Correct Answer: B [Grama Sabha]

விளக்கம்:

The three tiers under the 73rd Amendment are village (Gram Panchayat), intermediate (Panchayat Samiti) and district (Zila Parishad); the Gram Sabha is the assembly of village voters, not a tier.

37.  
Which of the following is correctly paired?
(1) C. Rajagopalachari – Legislative Assembly
(2) B.P. Mandal – Legislative Council
(3) Morarji Desai – Legislative Council
(4) C.N. Annadurai – Legislative Council

Correct Answer: C [(2) and (3) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

The pairing is about Chief Ministers who held office as members of the Legislative Council: Rajaji (1952) was a nominated MLC, not an Assembly member, so (1) is wrong; this rules out A, B and D, leaving (2) B.P. Mandal and (3) Morarji Desai.

38.  
Match the following and choose the correct option given below.
Union Minister category – Function
(a) Cabinet Minister – 1. Does not work under a Cabinet Minister
(b) Minister of state with independent charge – 2. Pretend and participates in every meeting of the cabinet
(c) Minister of state – 3. Works under a Cabinet Minister
(d) Deputy Minister – 4. Does not have independent charge of any department

Correct Answer: A [2 1 4 3]

விளக்கம்:

Cabinet Ministers attend every Cabinet meeting; a Minister of State (Independent Charge) does not work under a Cabinet Minister; a Minister of State without independent charge has no department of his own; a Deputy Minister works under/assists a Cabinet Minister.

39.  
Choose the incorrect one from the given below.
(1) Fundamental freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 are automatically suspended during emergency.
(2) The President has the power to suspend few rights under Article 359.
(3) Some of the fundamental rights are available only to citizen of India.
(4) The Parliament has power to grant fundamental rights to persons serving in the armed forces.

Correct Answer: D [(4) only]

விளக்கம்:

Article 33 empowers Parliament to restrict or abrogate (not grant) the fundamental rights of members of the armed forces; Art 358 suspends Art 19 automatically, Art 359 lets the President suspend enforcement of rights, and Arts 15, 16, 19, 29, 30 are for citizens only.

40.  
Assertion [A] : An autonomous sub-state called Meghalaya was established within the state of Assam by the Assam Reorganisation (Meghalaya) Act 1969.
Reason [R] : The state executive and legislature can alter or redistribute the territories of the units of the federation if they so desire.

Correct Answer: A [[A] is true but [R] is false]

விளக்கம்:

Parliament's Assam Reorganisation (Meghalaya) Act, 1969 created Meghalaya as an autonomous State within Assam (full State in 1972); under Article 3 only Parliament – not a State executive or legislature – can alter State boundaries.

41.  
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to "Objective resolution" of the Indian Constitution?
(1) The author of this resolution was Dr.B.R. Ambedkar
(2) It was adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22, 1947.
(3) The goal of this resolution was to declare India as a sovereign, Socialist, Democratic Republic.
(4) This resolution was later framed as the preamble of the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answer: B [(2) and (4)]

விளக்கம்:

The Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru (13-12-1946), adopted on 22-01-1947 and later became the Preamble; it spoke of an 'Independent Sovereign Republic' – 'Socialist' was added only in 1976.

42.  
Choose the best alternative as the answer.
A factory always has

Correct Answer: C [Workers]

விளக்கம்:

A factory cannot run without workers; electricity, chimney or files are not essential to every factory.

43.  
The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages is

Correct Answer: B [990]

விளக்கம்:

Pages 1–9: 9 digits; 10–99: 90×2 = 180; 100–366: 267×3 = 801; total 9+180+801 = 990.

44.  
δ=βF2*KS75#$PLVS@MUE6↑QG93&TY
Which of the following is exactly in the middle of ninth from left end and fifteenth from right end in the above arrangement?

Correct Answer: B [$]

விளக்கம்:

Counting all 29 symbols (including '='), 9th from left is 7 (position 9) and 15th from right is V (position 15); the middle position 12 is '$'.

45.  
A dog runs 50 feet towards South and turns to left runs 20 feet and turns to left runs 7 feet and again turns to left runs 6 feet and then turns to right runs 15 feet and finally turns to right and runs 5 feet. Now which direction is the dog facing?

Correct Answer: A [East]

விளக்கம்:

Facing: South → left = East → left = North → left = West → right = North → right = East.

46.  
If A is 50 m north east of B, B is 50 m north west of C, then C is in which direction of A?

Correct Answer: C [South]

விளக்கம்:

From A, B is 50 m south-west and C is 50 m south-east of B; the east–west parts cancel, so C is due South of A.

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