Group 2A Mains 2026 Question Paper – Part 1 (Q 1–54)

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Group 2A Mains 2026 Question Paper – Part 1 (Q 1–54) – 47 வினாக்கள், பாடம்: குரூப் 2A Mains. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவுக்கும் சரியான விடையும் ஒரு வரி விளக்கமும் உண்டு; "Show Answer" அழுத்திப் பாருங்கள். TNPSC குரூப் 1, 2, 2A, 4, SI, TET தேர்வுகளுக்கான இலவசப் பயிற்சி – சண்முகம் ஐ.ஏ.எஸ். அகாடமி, கோயம்புத்தூர்.

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1.  
Which of the following statement/s is/are true about Papa Umanath of Tamil Nadu?
(1) She was the first woman in South India to have been arrested by the British for Salt Sathyagraha.
(2) She organised a Peasant movement in Thuvariman Village.
(3) She became part of the Ponmalai Women's Association.
(4) She joined the Congress Party in 1945.

Correct Answer: D [(2) and (3) are true]

விளக்கம்:

Pappa Umanath (b. 1931) could not be in the 1930 Salt Satyagraha, and in 1945 she joined the Communist Party (CPI), not Congress; (2) and (3) are true.

2.  
Which is/are the following facts about Thomas Munroe correct?
(i) He introduced Ryotwari system.
(ii) He donated a big vessel to Tirupathi Tirumala temple.
(iii) He replaced pagoda with rupee.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Munro introduced the Ryotwari system and gifted a large vessel ('Munro gangalam') to Tirumala; the rupee replaced the pagoda in Madras in 1818, before he became Governor (1820).

3.  
Speaking bitterly when sweet words prevail, is eating the sour for ripe fruits in the couplet, which of the following human values is stressed for human good relations?

Correct Answer: A [Not to use harsh words]

விளக்கம்:

Kural 100 (Iniyavai Kooral): using harsh words when sweet ones exist is like choosing unripe fruit over ripe – avoid harsh words.

4.  
Choose the correct matches from the given matches:
(1) Chera King – Vanji–Thondi
(2) Chola King – Madurai–Korkai
(3) Pandiya king – Uraiyur–Poombugar
(4) King Ashoka – Samba Inscription

Correct Answer: B [(1) and (4) only]

விளக்கம்:

Chera capital Vanji, port Thondi – correct; Madurai–Korkai belong to Pandyas and Uraiyur–Puhar to Cholas, so (2),(3) are wrong; only option B is possible.

5.  
Match the Sangam books published by U.V.SA. with the years they were published:
(a) Pathupattu – 1. 1903
(b) Purananuru – 2. 1889
(c) Ingurunuru – 3. 1904
(d) Pathitrupathu – 4. 1894

Correct Answer: B [(a)-2 (b)-4 (c)-1 (d)-3]

விளக்கம்:

U.Ve.Sa published Pathuppattu 1889, Purananuru 1894, Ainkurunuru 1903, Pathitrupathu 1904.

6.  
People living in BC 6th century were literate. Because,
(1) The pot found at the Keezhadi has Tamizhi scripts engraved on it.
(2) Most of the pots found at the Keezhadi were inscribed with letters after the pot had dried
(3) The black and red coloured pots found in Keezhadi have the image of God engraved on them.
(4) The letter written on the pot were in the same script.

Correct Answer: D [(1) and (2) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

Keezhadi sherds bear Tamil-Brahmi (Tamizhi) letters, mostly scratched after the pots were made/dried, showing common people could write; no god images were found and scripts varied in hand.

7.  
Consider the following statements and find the correct statements.
During Peraringnar Anna's rule, preferences were given to Tamil language. Many steps were taken by him to incorporate Tamil in different fields.
(i) Removed 'Satyameva Jayate' from the Government Motto and incorporated the Tamil words 'Vaimaye Vellum' in it.
(ii) The name board 'Tamilaga Arasu Thalaimai Cheiyalakam' was opened in St. George Fort for the first time.
(iii) Measures were taken to write Thirukkural verses on Tamil Nadu Government buses.

Correct Answer: D [(i), (ii) and (iii)]

விளக்கம்:

Under Anna (1967–69) 'Vaimaiye Vellum' replaced 'Satyameva Jayate' in the state emblem, the Secretariat board was put up in Tamil and Thirukkural couplets appeared in govt buses.

8.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : Lokmanya Tilak preferred to replace Swaraj and redesigned it as Home Rule
Reason [R] : The British Government was quite allergic to the term Swaraj and considered it seditious.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

Since the British treated 'Swaraj' as seditious, Tilak used the legally safer term 'Home Rule' (1916) for the same goal – R explains A.

9.  
Choose the correctly matched pairs from the following.
(1) Dharmalayam – V.V. Subramaniam
(2) Bharata Mata Sangam – Neelakanta Bramachari
(3) Bharathi Ashramam – V.O. Chidambaram
(4) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company – Subramania Siva

Correct Answer: B [(1) and (2) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

Bharata Matha Sangam was founded by Neelakanta Brahmachari; the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Co. was V.O. Chidambaram's (not Siva's) and Bharata Ashram was Siva's (not VOC's) – so (1) and (2).

10.  
Arrange the following Governors of Madras Presidency in chronological order.
(1) Lushington
(2) Thomas Munroe
(3) Huge Elliot
(4) George Barlow

Correct Answer: C [(4), (3), (2), (1)]

விளக்கம்:

George Barlow 1807–13, Hugh Elliot 1814–20, Thomas Munro 1820–27, Stephen Lushington 1827–32.

11.  
The Ramakrishna Mission upholds Vedanta Doctrine
(i) To protect ancient culture of India.
(ii) To develop highest spirituality inherent in man.
(iii) To believe in the truth of Hindu religion only.

Correct Answer: A [(i) and (ii) only]

விளக்கம்:

The Mission preaches the harmony and truth of all religions, not of Hinduism alone; (i) and (ii) are its aims.

12.  
Choose the right matches among the following Settlements/ Headquarters
(1) Santhome – The Portuguese
(2) Port Nova – The Dutch
(3) Tranquebar – The English
(4) Devanampattinam – The French

Correct Answer: B [(1) and (2) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

San Thome was Portuguese and Porto Novo a Dutch settlement; Tranquebar was Danish and Devanampattinam (Fort St. David) English.

13.  
Identify the correct statements about Dr. Dharmambal Ammaiyar Ninaivu Widow Remarriage Assistance Scheme.
(i) There is an income ceiling and educational qualification prescribed to avail benefit under the scheme.
(ii) The degree/diploma holders are given 50,000, out of which 30,000 through ECS and 20,000 given as National Savings Certificate.
(iii) The degree/diploma holders are also given 8 gram 22 carat gold coin.

Correct Answer: D [(ii) and (iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

The scheme has no income ceiling or educational qualification; graduates/diploma holders get Rs 50,000 (Rs 30,000 ECS + Rs 20,000 NSC) plus an 8 g 22-carat gold coin.

14.  
Match correctly the Tamilnadu State Public Sector undertakings with their corresponding established year:
(a) Tamilnadu Industrial Investment Corporation – 1. 1949
(b) Tamilnadu Civil Supplies Corporation – 2. 1965
(c) Tamilnadu Industrial Development Corporation – 3. 1971
(d) State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamilnadu – 4. 1972

Correct Answer: D [(a)-1 (b)-4 (c)-2 (d)-3]

விளக்கம்:

TIIC 1949, TIDCO 1965, SIPCOT 1971, TN Civil Supplies Corporation 1972.

15.  
Consider the following statements, choose the correct answer :
(i) Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya located in Chennai and Thoothukudi District.
(ii) EMIS - is the Grievance Redressal Mechanisms for the TN Government Employees.
(iii) Chief Minister's "Nutritive Vegetable Garden Schemes" aimed towards "House wives".
(iv) The Nutritive Vegetable Garden Scheme is for the people living in the Urban areas.

Correct Answer: C [(iii) and (iv) only correct]

விளக்கம்:

KGBVs are in educationally backward blocks (not Chennai/Thoothukudi) and EMIS is the school Educational Management Information System, so (i),(ii) are false; only option C remains.

16.  
Choose the right matches from the following.
(1) SiTN – Simplify TN
(2) SeMT – State e-Mission Team
(3) ARIVU – Natural Language Processing Chatbot jointly developed by TNeGA and Anna University
(4) CEET – Centre for Emerging Electronic Technologies

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (2) only]

விளக்கம்:

The TNeGA–AU-KBC Tamil NLP chatbot is 'ANIL', not ARIVU, and CEET is the Centre of Excellence in Emerging Technologies. (1) and (2) are correct.

17.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : The word 'Tahsildar' is derived from the Mughal word 'tahsil', meaning 'revenue-generating area'.
Reason [R] : Since the 'Tahsil' were renamed as taluks, The Tahsildars were called Taluk Officers.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct]

விளக்கம்:

'Tahsildar' comes from the Mughal revenue unit 'tahsil'. The later renaming of tahsils as taluks is true but does not explain the word's origin.

18.  
Tamilnadu Government Service Rules are made under the provision of power confered by Indian Constitution provides in

Correct Answer: C [Article 309]

விளக்கம்:

Article 309 (proviso) empowers the Governor to make rules on recruitment and conditions of service of State government servants.

19.  
Which of the following are related to evolution of Tamilnadu Administration is incorrectly paired?
(1) 1800 – Political Department
(2) 1751 – Ecclesiastical Department
(3) 1843 – Public Works Department
(4) 1809 – Post of Chief Secretary

Correct Answer: B [(2) and (4)]

விளக்கம்:

The Madras Ecclesiastical Department dates from the early 19th century, not 1751, and the post of Chief Secretary existed before 1809. So (2) and (4) are wrongly paired.

20.  
Which of the following is incorrectly paired with regard to educating children with special needs?
(1) PECS – Picture Exchange Communication System
(2) ADHD – Attention Disorder and Hyperactivity Deficit
(3) ABA – Applied Behaviour Analysis
(4) ASD – Autism Spectrum Deficiency

Correct Answer: B [(2) and (4)]

விளக்கம்:

ADHD = Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder and ASD = Autism Spectrum Disorder; PECS and ABA are correct.

21.  
Match the following :
Space Station/Centre – Place
(a) Vikram Sarabai Space Centre – 1. Andaman Islands – Port Blair
(b) Satish Dhawan Space Centre – 2. Dehradun
(c) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing – 3. Sriharikota
(d) Down Range Station – 4. Thiruvananthapuram

Correct Answer: A [(a)-4 (b)-3 (c)-2 (d)-1]

விளக்கம்:

VSSC – Thiruvananthapuram, SDSC SHAR – Sriharikota, IIRS – Dehradun, Down Range Station – Port Blair.

22.  
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
(1) Public procurement in India reached upto 20-25% of the GDP
(2) Government e-Market place (GeM) was conceptualised as a special purpose vehicle.
(3) Government e-Market promotes inclusive development, corruption – free governance.
(4) Government e-Market place in the digital portal was set up in August 2006.

Correct Answer: B [(3), (2) and (1) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

The GeM portal was launched on 9 August 2016 (not 2006) and is run by the GeM SPV. Public procurement is about 20–25% of GDP, and GeM promotes transparent, inclusive procurement.

23.  
Match the following :
Article Provision – Subject
(a) Article 243 A – 1. Gram Sabha
(b) Article 243 I – 2. State Finance Commission
(c) Article 243 K – 3. State Election Commission
(d) Article 243 O – 4. Bar to interference by Courts

Correct Answer: A [(a)-1 (b)-2 (c)-3 (d)-4]

விளக்கம்:

Art 243A Gram Sabha, 243I State Finance Commission, 243K State Election Commission, 243O bar to interference by courts.

24.  
Match the following given below :
(a) Dhar Commission – 1. Panchayat Raj
(b) Mandal Commission – 2. Fundamental Duties
(c) Swaran Singh Committee – 3. States – Reorganisation
(d) Ashok Mehta Committee – 4. Reservation

Correct Answer: A [(a)-3 (b)-4 (c)-2 (d)-1]

விளக்கம்:

Dhar Commission (1948) – linguistic states; Mandal – OBC reservation; Swaran Singh (1976) – Fundamental Duties; Ashok Mehta (1977) – Panchayati Raj.

25.  
Match the following Articles of the Indian Constitution with the Provisions concerned :
(a) Article 178 – 1. Power of Deputy Speaker to perform the duties of Speaker
(b) Article 180 – 2. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
(c) Article 182 – 3. Power of Deputy Chairman to perform the duties of Chairman
(d) Article 184 – 4. The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council

Correct Answer: C [(a)-2 (b)-1 (c)-4 (d)-3]

விளக்கம்:

Art 178 Speaker & Deputy Speaker; 180 Deputy Speaker acting as Speaker; 182 Chairman & Deputy Chairman of Council; 184 Deputy Chairman acting as Chairman.

26.  
Which of the following feature for amending Indian Constitution requires ratification by not less than half of the State legislatures?
(i) Addition of a new principle
(ii) Abolition of Fundamental Rights
(iii) Amendment is the power of the Supreme Court
(iv) Change in the powers of the States

Correct Answer: D [(iii) and (iv) only]

விளக்கம்:

Under the proviso to Art 368(2), changes to the Union judiciary (Supreme Court) and to Centre–State distribution of powers need ratification by half the States.

27.  
Reason and Assertion type :
Assertion [A] : The Prime Minister is not responsible for the appointment of the Ministers and allocation of work among them.
Reason [R] : The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in the Lok-Sabha and also he is the Head of the Council of Ministers

Correct Answer: B [[A] is false, but [R] is true.]

விளக்கம்:

Ministers are appointed by the President on the PM's advice (Art 75) and the PM allocates portfolios, so A is false; R is true.

28.  
Under Indian Constitution which of the following is/are not a Fundamental Duties?
(a) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
(c) To promote International peace and security.

Correct Answer: C [(c) only]

விளக்கம்:

Promotion of international peace and security is a Directive Principle (Art 51), not a Fundamental Duty; (a) and (b) are in Art 51A(g),(i).

29.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : Religions instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly provided by the State funds
Reason [R] : A State should maintains a neutral and impartial attitude towards all religions.

Correct Answer: C [[A] is false, [R] is true]

விளக்கம்:

Art 28(1): no religious instruction in institutions wholly maintained out of State funds – A is false; State neutrality towards religions (secularism) is true.

30.  
The ways of losing citizenship under the Constitution of India are
(1) When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country.
(2) The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.
(3) The citizen has been imprisoned in any country for two years.
Select the correct answer using code given below :

Correct Answer: D [(1), (2) and (3)]

விளக்கம்:

Citizenship Act 1955: voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship ends it (s.9); a registered/naturalised citizen can be deprived for 7 years' continuous residence abroad or imprisonment of 2+ years in any country within 5 years (s.10).

31.  
Choose the right matches.
(1) UK – Bicameral Legislature
(2) USSR – Independent Judiciary
(3) Australia – Five Year Plan
(4) US – Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (4)]

விளக்கம்:

Bicameralism is borrowed from the UK and removal of SC/HC judges from the USA; independent judiciary is from the USA and five-year plans from the USSR.

32.  
Choose the right matches
(1) Quasi-Federal – K.C. Wheare
(2) Bargaining Federalism – C.R. Dass
(3) Co-operative Federalism – Granville Austin
(4) Federation with a Centralising Tendency – Jawaharlal Nehru

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (3) only]

விளக்கம்:

K.C. Wheare – quasi-federal; Granville Austin – cooperative federalism; 'bargaining federalism' is Morris-Jones and 'federation with centralising tendency' is Ivor Jennings.

33.  
Arrange the following events in chronological order based on geographical area
(1) WAN
(2) PAN
(3) MAN
(4) LAN

Correct Answer: B [(2), (4), (3), (1)]

விளக்கம்:

By coverage area: Personal (PAN) < Local (LAN) < Metropolitan (MAN) < Wide (WAN).

34.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : In relational database a foreign key in one table is used to reference the primary key in another table.
Reason [R] : Foreign key is used to ensure the referential integrity between table.

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true]

விளக்கம்:

A foreign key references the primary key of another table and thereby enforces referential integrity – both are true.

35.  
Choose the incorrect matches
(1) Albert Bruce Sabin – Live Polio Vaccine
(2) Max Theiler – BCG Vaccine
(3) Jonas Salk – Killed Polio Vaccine
(4) Albert Calmette – Yellow Fever Vaccine

Correct Answer: C [(2) and (4)]

விளக்கம்:

Max Theiler developed the yellow fever vaccine and Albert Calmette (with Guérin) the BCG – (2) and (4) are swapped.

36.  
Which of the following statements are true about M.S. Swaminathan?
(i) He was the Father of Green Revolution in India
(ii) He was an Agronomist and Plant Geneticist
(iii) He wrote the book "Cotton"
(iv) He was a Pioneer in mutation plant breeding

Correct Answer: C [(i), (ii) and (iv) only]

விளக்கம்:

M.S. Swaminathan, agronomist and plant geneticist, is called the father of India's Green Revolution and pioneered mutation breeding; he did not write a book titled 'Cotton'.

37.  
Mention the tool used for detecting specific DNA sequences in molecular diagnostics.

Correct Answer: C [PCR]

விளக்கம்:

PCR amplifies and detects specific DNA sequences and is the standard molecular-diagnostic tool. ELISA detects proteins and flow cytometry analyses cells.

38.  
Choose the correct answer :
(1) Natural Polymer – DNA
(2) Synthetic Polymer – PVC
(3) Addition Polymerisation – Loss of H2O, HCl, NH3
(4) Condensation Polymerisation – Monomer Addition

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (2) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

DNA is a natural and PVC a synthetic polymer; loss of small molecules (H2O, HCl, NH3) marks condensation, and simple monomer addition marks addition polymerisation – (3),(4) are swapped.

39.  
Match correctly the gaseous fuels with their corresponding calorific values :
(a) Oil gas – 1. 12,000 to 14,000 K.cal/m³
(b) Natural gas – 2. 4,500 to 5,400 K.cal/m³
(c) Producer gas – 3. 27,800 K.cal/m³
(d) Liquefied petroleum gas – 4. 1,300 K.cal/m³

Correct Answer: A [(a)-2 (b)-1 (c)-4 (d)-3]

விளக்கம்:

Producer gas has the lowest (~1,300 kcal/m³) and LPG the highest (~27,800) value; oil gas is ~4,500–5,400 and natural gas ~12,000–14,000 kcal/m³.

40.  
The most important use of Schmitt trigger circuit is to convert

Correct Answer: A [A very slowly varying input voltage into an output having an abrupt waveform]

விளக்கம்:

A Schmitt trigger (comparator with hysteresis) squares up a slowly varying input into an output with sharp (abrupt) transitions – its standard textbook use.

41.  
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the techniques used for nanomaterial synthesis?
(i) Ordered structural organisation of molecules occur when the system is in equilibrium without dissipating energy which is called static self assembly.
(ii) Electron beam Lithography uses beam of electromagnetic wave to generate patterns for integrated circuits at nanoscale.
(iii) Atomic force microscope tips can be used as a nanoscale write head to deposit chemicals on a surface.

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Static self-assembly occurs at equilibrium without energy dissipation; AFM tips act as nanoscale 'pens' (dip-pen nanolithography); e-beam lithography uses electrons, not electromagnetic waves.

42.  
Arrange the following in chronological order :
(1) Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs).
(2) Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship Scheme for SC students.
(3) National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation.
(4) Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan.

Correct Answer: B [(1), (4), (3), (2)]

விளக்கம்:

State SCDCs began in the 1970s (central aid from 1978-79), the Special Component Plan/SC Sub-Plan in 1979-80, NSFDC in 1989 and the Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship in 2005-06.

43.  
Which of the following are incorrectly paired?
(1) SCDC – South Asian Countries Development Corporation
(2) TRIFED – The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India
(3) NSFDC – The National Scheduled Castes Fortune Development Corporation
(4) LAMS – Large Area Multi-Purpose Societies

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (3) are incorrect]

விளக்கம்:

SCDC = Scheduled Castes Development Corporation and NSFDC = National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation; TRIFED and LAMPS are correctly expanded.

44.  
Which is/are the aim(s) of the National Medical Commission Bill, 2019?
(i) to improve access to quality and affordable medical education and high quality medical professionals in all parts of the country.
(ii) to improve access, research and development and adoption of latest scientific advancement.
(iii) to establish 75 New medical colleges.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

விளக்கம்:

The NMC Act's preamble seeks quality, affordable medical education with adequate professionals everywhere and adoption of the latest medical research; 75 new medical colleges was a separate Cabinet decision (Aug 2019).

45.  
Which of the following statements are true about Child Bonded Labourers in Tamil Nadu?
(i) Out of the total number of bonded labourers in Tamil Nadu, 8.7% are found to be children.
(ii) Most of them were found as Domestic Workers.
(iii) Governments of Tamil Nadu allots Rs.1.25 crore every year towards payment of immediate assistance to the rescued bonded labourers.

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Children are about 8.7% of bonded labourers identified in TN, mostly in brick kilns and rice mills rather than domestic work. TN sets apart Rs 1.25 crore a year for immediate relief.

46.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : A large part of our Social and Technical skills are acquired through deliberate instruction.
Reason [R] : For imparting Education, Govt. of India allocates Rs. 1.29 lakh crores in 2025-26.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

Skills are learnt mainly through deliberate instruction (education) – true. Union Budget 2025-26 gave education about ₹1.28 lakh crore (≈1.29) – also true, but a budget figure does not explain how skills are acquired.

47.  
Which scheme transformed as the "Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Higher Education Assurance scheme"?

Correct Answer: B [Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Marriage Assistance Scheme]

விளக்கம்:

In 2022 the Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Memorial Marriage Assistance Scheme was converted into the Higher Education Assurance Scheme (Pudhumai Penn – ₹1,000 a month to girls from govt schools).

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