Group 2A Mains 2025 Question Paper – Part 1 (Q 1–52)

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Group 2A Mains 2025 Question Paper – Part 1 (Q 1–52) – 46 வினாக்கள், பாடம்: குரூப் 2A Mains. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவுக்கும் சரியான விடையும் ஒரு வரி விளக்கமும் உண்டு; "Show Answer" அழுத்திப் பாருங்கள். TNPSC குரூப் 1, 2, 2A, 4, SI, TET தேர்வுகளுக்கான இலவசப் பயிற்சி – சண்முகம் ஐ.ஏ.எஸ். அகாடமி, கோயம்புத்தூர்.

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1.  
Arrange the following OSI layers in order
(1) Data Link Layer
(2) Physical Layer
(3) Transport Layer
(4) Network Layer

Correct Answer: A [(2), (1), (4), (3)]

விளக்கம்:

OSI model from the bottom: Physical (1st) → Data Link (2nd) → Network (3rd) → Transport (4th) layer.

2.  
Assertion [A] : In humans, individuals inherit Mitochondrial DNA strictly from their mothers.
Reason [R] : Therefore, the mtDNA sequences obtained from maternally related individuals such as a brother and a sister (or) a mother and a daughter exactly match each other when there is no mutation in either of cases.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

mtDNA is inherited only from the mother, so maternal relatives share identical mtDNA (barring mutation). [R] is a consequence of [A] ('Therefore'), not its explanation.

3.  
In IVF technique, fusion of sperm and ovum takes place in

Correct Answer: C [Culture medium]

விளக்கம்:

In vitro fertilisation means fertilisation outside the body – sperm and ovum fuse in a culture medium in the laboratory; the embryo is later transferred to the uterus.

4.  
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(i) Atal Tinkering Lab – Nurtures an innovative mindset towards research amongst high school students
(ii) Krishi Neev – Platform to promote technology interventions in agriculture
(iii) Palna – Provides support service like safe accommodation and Medical assistance to working women
(iv) Unnati – Technology platform integrated with artificial intelligence to match job providers with seekers

Correct Answer: C [(iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Palna (Mission Shakti) is the National Creche scheme – day-care for children of working mothers; safe accommodation for working women is Sakhi Niwas.

5.  
Match the following :
(a) Hydrogen bomb – 1. Uncontrolled nuclear fission reaction
(b) Power reactor – 2. Controlled fusion reaction
(c) Magnetic confinement of plasma – 3. Controlled fission reaction
(d) Atom bomb – 4. Fission - Fusion reaction

Correct Answer: D [4 3 2 1]

விளக்கம்:

H-bomb uses a fission trigger + fusion (4); power reactor = controlled fission (3); magnetic confinement (tokamak) = controlled fusion (2); atom bomb = uncontrolled fission (1).

6.  
Which of the following is/are correct about Dip-Pen Nano Lithography (DPN)?
(i) It is a direct method
(ii) It works on diffusion through water molecules
(iii) It patterns a variety of materials
(iv) It is a fast scanning process

Correct Answer: C [(i), (ii) and (iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

DPN is a direct-write AFM-tip method; ink molecules diffuse to the surface through a water meniscus and many materials can be patterned. It is a serial, slow process – so (iv) is wrong.

7.  
The primary objective of Global One-Stop Centres (OSCs) established by Ministry of external affairs is

Correct Answer: C [Provide comprehensive assistance to women in vulnerable situations]

விளக்கம்:

In 2024 the Government approved 9 One Stop Centres in Indian Missions abroad (Gulf countries, Singapore, Toronto etc.) to give counselling, legal, medical and shelter help to Indian women in distress.

8.  
Arranging chronological order/event type
Arrange the following poverty alleviation programmes in chronological order
(1) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(2) Swarnajayanthi Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(3) Integrated Rural Development Project
(4) Food for Work Program

Correct Answer: B [(4), (3), (2), (1)]

விளக்கம்:

Food for Work 1977 → IRDP 1978-79 (nationwide 1980) → SGSY 1 April 1999 → SGRY 25 September 2001.

9.  
Assertion [A] : The lack of alternate employment, skill training (or) credit facilities for women, is another factor that keeps them in poverty.
Reason [R] : Poverty is increasingly becoming a feminine identity.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

Both are true (feminisation of poverty), but lack of jobs, skills and credit is a cause of women's poverty; 'poverty becoming feminine' does not explain it.

10.  
Article ________ of the Indian Constitution Prohibits the employment of children in Factories, Mines, or any other hazardous occupation.

Correct Answer: B [24]

விளக்கம்:

Article 24: no child below 14 years shall be employed in any factory, mine or other hazardous employment.

11.  
Match the schemes with years.
(a) Neengal Nalama – 1. 2000
(b) Manu Needhi – 2. 2021
(c) Kural Mutrodhal – 3. 2024
(d) Illam Thedi Kalvi – 4. 1969

Correct Answer: C [3 4 1 2]

விளக்கம்:

Neengal Nalama – launched March 2024; Manu Needhi scheme – 1969; Kural Mutrodhal prize scheme – 2000; Illam Thedi Kalvi – 2021 (post-COVID learning recovery).

12.  
Tamil Nadu skill development corporations established a new platform by using AI Technology to guide the youth's employment and skill training is called as

Correct Answer: B ['Ilaya']

விளக்கம்:

'Ilaya' is TNSDC's AI-powered WhatsApp chatbot (built with Gupshup) that guides job seekers to jobs and skill training.

13.  
________ state has the highest percentage of unemployment during the year 2022-23.

Correct Answer: A [Kerala]

விளக்கம்:

PLFS 2022-23 (usual status, 15+): Kerala about 7.0% – higher than Haryana and Punjab (about 6.1%) and Tamil Nadu (about 4.3%).

14.  
The Total Gross Enrollment Ratio of Tamil Nadu in higher education during 2021-2022 was ________.

Correct Answer: C [47 percent]

விளக்கம்:

AISHE 2021-22: Tamil Nadu's GER (18–23 years) in higher education was 47.0%, against the national 28.4%.

15.  
Which of the following credit schemes for Farmers Producers Organisations (FPOs) is incorrectly paired?
(i) Credit guarantee scheme – Direct cash grants
(ii) Mezzanine capital assistance – Non repayable credit
(iii) Revolving fund support – Concessional credit
(iv) Nabkisan – Initiates credit schemes with T.N.

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (ii)]

விளக்கம்:

A credit guarantee scheme gives collateral-free guarantee cover to lenders, not cash grants; mezzanine capital is a repayable soft loan, not a non-repayable credit. Revolving fund (concessional credit) and NABKISAN (credit schemes with TN Govt) are correct.

16.  
Which of the following statements are True about features of Tamil Nadu Economy?
(i) Tamil Nadu has 7th highest GSDP per capita
(ii) Tamil Nadu has low industries and small service sectors
(iii) Tamil Nadu is second largest economy among the states in India

Correct Answer: C [(iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Tamil Nadu is India's second-largest state economy (after Maharashtra) with a large industrial and service base, so (ii) is false. No option pairs (i) with (iii), so (iii) only is the answer.

17.  
Match the following climate conferences with respective themes.
(a) Kyoto protocol – 1. Limit global temperature rise
(b) Rio Earth summit – 2. Protecting Ozone layer
(c) Paris Agreement – 3. Global Framework for sustainable development
(d) Montreal protocol – 4. Commitment to reduce emissions

Correct Answer: C [4 3 1 2]

விளக்கம்:

Kyoto (1997) – binding emission-reduction commitments; Rio Earth Summit (1992) – Agenda 21, sustainable development framework; Paris (2015) – keep warming well below 2°C; Montreal (1987) – protect the ozone layer.

18.  
Assertion [A] : COP28 marked a significant milestone in global climate action by explicitly calling for a transition away from fossil fuels.
Reason [R] : The Global stocktake, a key component of the Paris Agreement, highlighted the urgent need to accelerate climate action.

Correct Answer: A [Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

The first Global Stocktake concluded at COP28 (Dubai, 2023) found the world off-track; its decision (1/CMA.5) is the text that calls for 'transitioning away from fossil fuels'.

19.  
The threatened species found in the Agasthiayamalai Biosphere Reserve are
(i) Lion-tailed macaque, slender loris and great pied hornbill
(ii) Rudraksh tree, black plums, wild dahman and gaub tree
(iii) Slender loris, lion-tailed macaque, black plums rudraksh tree and green pit viper

Correct Answer: A [(i) and (ii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Threatened fauna of Agasthyamalai BR: lion-tailed macaque, slender loris, great pied hornbill; threatened flora: rudraksha, black plum, wild dhaman, gaub. List (iii) adds green pit viper, not in the threatened list.

20.  
Consider the following statements.
(a) Forests regulate floods and droughts
(b) Almost 10% of tropical forests are lost each year
(c) Nearly 47% of forests Worldwide are tropical forests
(d) 45% of the World's forest are under protected areas
The correct statements are :

Correct Answer: C [(a) and (c)]

விளக்கம்:

Forests regulate water flow (floods/droughts) and nearly half (about 45–47%) of the world's forests are tropical. Annual tropical forest loss is well under 1% (not 10%), and only about 18% of forests lie in protected areas (not 45%).

21.  
________ satellite was sent by ISRO on 1st January 2024 to study cosmic X rays.

Correct Answer: D [Xposat]

விளக்கம்:

XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) was launched by PSLV-C58 on 1 January 2024 – India's first satellite to study polarisation of cosmic X-rays.

22.  
Central salt and marine chemicals Research Institute is located at

Correct Answer: C [Bhavnagar]

விளக்கம்:

CSIR-Central Salt and Marine Chemicals Research Institute (CSMCRI) is at Bhavnagar, Gujarat.

23.  
Clean Air Act was passed in the year ________.

Correct Answer: A [1970]

விளக்கம்:

The landmark US Clean Air Act was enacted in 1970 (it created national air-quality standards; US EPA set up the same year).

24.  
Match the following Bird Sancturies with their districts :
Bird Sancturies – Districts
(a) Vettangudi – 1. Sivagangai
(b) Mayura Thottam – 2. Ariyalur
(c) Vellode – 3. Thoothukudi
(d) Karaivetti – 4. Erode

Correct Answer: C [1 3 4 2]

விளக்கம்:

Vettangudi – Sivagangai; Vellode – Erode; Karaivetti – Ariyalur; so Mayura Thottam goes with Thoothukudi. Only option C fits.

25.  
Arrange the following periods in order :
(1) Prehistoric period
(2) Chola's period
(3) Sangam period
(4) Pallava's period

Correct Answer: C [(1), (3), (4), (2)]

விளக்கம்:

Prehistoric → Sangam age (c. 3rd c. BCE–3rd c. CE) → Pallavas (c. 6th–9th c. CE) → Imperial Cholas (9th–13th c. CE).

26.  
Assertion [A] : V.O.C charged with sedition, was sentenced to forty years of imprisonment.
Reason [R] : He attended Surat Congress session and followed Tilak and preached his philosophy.

Correct Answer: C [Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

In 1908 V.O.C. was convicted of sedition and given two life terms (40 years, later reduced). He did attend the 1907 Surat session as a Tilak follower, but the sedition case arose from his speeches during the Tirunelveli/Coral Mill agitation – so [R] is not the explanation.

27.  
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar setup school for girls at

Correct Answer: D [Calcutta]

விளக்கம்:

Vidyasagar helped J.E.D. Bethune found the girls' school in Calcutta (1849) and opened about 35 girls' schools in Bengal.

28.  
What have to be realized if you want to overcome the ignorance and feel healthy?

Correct Answer: A [Be aware and believe on the immaculate truth]

விளக்கம்:

Thirukkural 352 (Meyyunarthal): 'இருள்நீங்கி இன்பம் பயக்கும் மருள்நீங்கி மாசறு காட்சி யவர்க்கு' – darkness leaves and bliss comes to those who, free from delusion, see the pure truth.

29.  
Match the following :
(a) Justice Party – 1. 1949
(b) D.M.K. – 2. 1944
(c) Dravida Kazhagam – 3. 1916
(d) Self Respect Movement – 4. 1925

Correct Answer: C [3 1 2 4]

விளக்கம்:

Justice Party (SILF) 1916; Self-Respect Movement 1925; Dravidar Kazhagam 1944 (Salem conference); DMK 1949 (C.N. Annadurai).

30.  
The first state level meet of self respect movement was conducted at which place?

Correct Answer: A [Chengalpet]

விளக்கம்:

The First Provincial Self-Respect Conference was held at Chengalpattu in February 1929 (presided by W.P.A. Soundarapandian).

31.  
Which one of the following statements is/are wrong regarding Edward Clive, the Governor of Madras Presidency?

Correct Answer: D [He did not show interest in the letter of Veera Pandya Kattabomman stating the insult inflicted on him by Collector Jackson]

விளக்கம்:

Edward Clive (1798–1803) took over the Carnatic (1801), ended the poligar system and saw the Supreme Court of Madras set up (1801). He did act on Kattabomman's complaint – an inquiry was ordered and Collector Jackson was removed – so D is wrong.

32.  
Choose the right matches.
(1) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee – Anandmath
(2) Lord Minto – Madras
(3) Swadeshi – VOC
(4) Lala Lajpat Rai – The National Council of Education

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (3) correct]

விளக்கம்:

Bankim Chandra wrote Anandamath; V.O.C. founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (1906). Minto was Viceroy (not of Madras), and the National Council of Education (1906) was formed in Bengal (Satish Mukherjee, Aurobindo), not by Lajpat Rai.

33.  
Match the following :
(a) Madras Medical School – 1. 1837
(b) Madras Presidency College – 2. 1835
(c) Madras Christian College – 3. 1842
(d) Pachayappas College – 4. 1840

Correct Answer: B [2 4 1 3]

விளக்கம்:

Madras Medical School 1835; Presidency College began as the Madras Preparatory School in 1840; MCC began as Anderson's General Assembly School in 1837; Pachaiyappa's institution opened in 1842.

34.  
Who among the following was appointed as the Zamindar of Ramnad by East India Company in the place of Muthu Ramalinga Sethupathi?

Correct Answer: A [Mangaleswari Nachiyar]

விளக்கம்:

After deposing Muthuramalinga Sethupathi (1795), the Company made his sister Mangaleswari Nachiyar the Zamindar of Ramnad (1803) under the permanent settlement.

35.  
Read the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
Assertion [A] : Anwar–ud–Din, the Nawab of Carnatic sent an army to fight against the French in 1746.
Reason [R] : Dupleix, the French Governor, failed to keep the promise of surrendering Madras to Nawab after its recapture.
Code :

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

In the First Carnatic War the French captured Madras (1746); Dupleix had promised to hand it to the Nawab but did not, so Anwar-ud-din sent an army, which the French defeated at Adyar (St Thome).

36.  
Match the constitutional amendments to their corresponding acts correctly.
Amendment – Subject matter
(a) 91st Amendment Act – 1. The council of Ministers must contain no more than 15% of the Lok Sabha members, including the Prime Minister
(b) 102nd Amendment Act – 2. Women are given one-third of all seats in the Lok Sabha
(c) 105th Amendment Act – 3. It grants constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward classes
(d) 106th Amendment Act – 4. The state government is empowered again to identify and specify socially and economically backward classes

Correct Answer: D [1 3 4 2]

விளக்கம்:

91st (2003) – ministry size capped at 15%; 102nd (2018) – constitutional status to NCBC (Art. 338B); 105th (2021) – restored states' power to list SEBCs; 106th (2023) – one-third seats for women in Lok Sabha/Assemblies.

37.  
Which of the following is correctly paired?
(1) Manjusha Kanwar – Badminton
(2) Vineet Kumar Sharma – Chess
(3) Kavitha Selvaraj – Kabaddi
(4) R. Vaishali – Hockey

Correct Answer: B [(1) and (3) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

National Sports Awards 2023 – Dhyan Chand Award (lifetime): Manjusha Kanwar (badminton), Vineet Kumar Sharma (hockey), Kavitha Selvaraj (kabaddi). R. Vaishali (Arjuna 2023) is a chess Grandmaster.

38.  
Match the following :
Schemes – Beneficiaries
(a) Naan Mudalvan – 1. Public Grievances gets resolved
(b) Pudumai pen – 2. Women Empowerment
(c) Vidiyal Payanam – 3. Education Assistance for Girl Students
(d) Makkaludan Mudhalvar – 4. Skill Development

Correct Answer: B [4 3 2 1]

விளக்கம்:

Naan Mudhalvan – skill development of students; Pudhumai Penn – Rs 1,000/month for girl students in higher education; Vidiyal Payanam – free bus travel for women; Makkaludan Mudhalvar – camps to resolve public grievances.

39.  
Assertion [A] : The Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu has ordered Rs. 5 Crore to translate all works of Dr.B.R. Ambedkar.
Reason [R] : The translation works of Dr.B.R. Ambedkar into Tamil will be carried out by the Information Technology and Digital Service Department.

Correct Answer: A [[A] is true but [R] is false]

விளக்கம்:

The CM ordered Rs 5 crore for translating Ambedkar's works into Tamil (2022), but the work is not given to the IT & Digital Services Department, so [R] is false.

40.  
Arrange the following committees in chronological order.
(1) G.V.K. Rao committee
(2) Ashok mehta committee
(3) Balwantrai Mehta committee
(4) L.M. Singhvi committee

Correct Answer: B [(3), (2), (1), (4)]

விளக்கம்:

Balwantrai Mehta 1957 → Ashok Mehta 1977 → G.V.K. Rao 1985 → L.M. Singhvi 1986 (committees on Panchayati Raj).

41.  
Choose the correct answer :
Which of the following statements are true about the Council of Minister's in State?
(i) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly
(ii) The Governor shall administer the oath of office and secrecy to a Minister
(iii) The salaries and allowances of State Ministers shall be determined by the Union Legislature

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (ii) only correct]

விளக்கம்:

Art. 164(2): collective responsibility to the Legislative Assembly; Art. 164(3): Governor administers oaths; Art. 164(5): salaries of State Ministers are fixed by the State Legislature, not Parliament.

42.  
Consider the following statements about the composition of the House of the people.

Correct Answer: A [It shall be composed of not more than 20 representatives from the Union Territories]

விளக்கம்:

Art. 81: Lok Sabha has not more than 530 members from States and not more than 20 from UTs. Anglo-Indian nomination (by the President, not PM) ended in 2020 (104th Amendment); 552 is the overall maximum; 12 nominations is for the Rajya Sabha.

43.  
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list.
List – I (Writs) – List – II (Literal Meaning)
(a) Habeas Corpus – 1. By what authority
(b) Mandamus – 2. To be certified
(c) Certiorari – 3. We command
(d) Quo Warranto – 4. To have the body of

Correct Answer: A [4 3 2 1]

விளக்கம்:

Habeas Corpus – 'to have the body of'; Mandamus – 'we command'; Certiorari – 'to be certified'; Quo Warranto – 'by what authority'.

44.  
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Parliament is empowered to constitute a High Court for any Union Territory.
(ii) Of all the Union Territories, Delhi does not have a separate High Court of its own.
(iii) Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram became fullfledged states in 1987.

Correct Answer: D [(i) and (iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Art. 241 lets Parliament constitute a High Court for a UT; Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram became States on 20 February 1987. Delhi is the UT that does have its own High Court (since 1966) – so (ii) is false.

45.  
In which of the following cases did the supreme court hold that "The preamble is an integral part of the Indian Constitution"?

Correct Answer: B [LIC of India case (1995)]

விளக்கம்:

In LIC of India v. Consumer Education & Research Centre (1995) the Supreme Court reiterated that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution (after Kesavananda Bharati, 1973).

46.  
Arrange the following events of PCR in the correct order of occurrence
1. Annealing
2. Extension
3. Denaturation
4. Gel making

Correct Answer: D [3, 1, 2, 4]

விளக்கம்:

A PCR cycle runs denaturation (~94°C) → annealing of primers (~55°C) → extension by Taq polymerase (~72°C); the product is then checked by gel electrophoresis.

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