Group 2A Mains 2026 Question Paper – Part 4 (Q 158–200)

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Group 2A Mains 2026 Question Paper – Part 4 (Q 158–200) – 41 வினாக்கள், பாடம்: குரூப் 2A Mains. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவுக்கும் சரியான விடையும் ஒரு வரி விளக்கமும் உண்டு; "Show Answer" அழுத்திப் பாருங்கள். TNPSC குரூப் 1, 2, 2A, 4, SI, TET தேர்வுகளுக்கான இலவசப் பயிற்சி – சண்முகம் ஐ.ஏ.எஸ். அகாடமி, கோயம்புத்தூர்.

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1.  
Which of the following statements are true about the Union Budget 2025-2026 on education sector?
(i) To nurture innovation and entrepreneurship among students, 50,000 "Atal Tinkering" Labs will be established in government schools over the next five years.
(ii) All government secondary schools will receive broadband connectivity under the Bharat Project.
(iii) Centre of Excellence in "AI" for education will be established.

Correct Answer: D [(i), (ii) and (iii)]

விளக்கம்:

Budget 2025-26 announced 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs in 5 years, broadband to all government secondary schools under BharatNet, and a Centre of Excellence in AI for education (Rs 500 crore) – all three are true.

2.  
Which are the objectives of a Kalaignar Kaivinai Thittam?
(i) To provide financial assistance to all artisans in the state.
(ii) To provide Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Development Training for starting new Industrial units and expanding existing units.
(iii) To provide 50% subsidy upto a maximum of Rs. 50,000.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

விளக்கம்:

The scheme gives artisans financial assistance and skill/entrepreneurship training; the subsidy is 25% of the loan, up to Rs 50,000 – not 50%, so (iii) is wrong.

3.  
As per 2011 census, arrange the district rank-wise based on their Literacy rate.
(1) The Nilgiris
(2) Chennai
(3) Thoothukudi
(4) Kanyakumari

Correct Answer: C [(4), (2), (3), (1)]

விளக்கம்:

Census 2011 literacy: Kanyakumari 91.75%, Chennai 90.18%, Thoothukudi 86.16%, The Nilgiris 85.20%.

4.  
Samagra Shiksha subsumes three erstwhile schemes viz _______.

Correct Answer: C [Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rastriya Madyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education]

விளக்கம்:

Samagra Shiksha (2018) merged Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education.

5.  
Match the correct answer :
(a) National Food Security Mission – 1. Augmenting Mechanisation in agriculture
(b) Rainfed Area Development Programme – 2. Improving rainfed farming
(c) National Agricultural Development Programme – 3. Increase production of rice and pulses
(d) Drought Prone Area Programme – 4. Promotion of horticulture in rainfed area

Correct Answer: B [(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2]

விளக்கம்:

NFSM aims to raise rice, wheat and pulses output (3); RADP promotes horticulture-based rainfed farming systems (4); NADP/RKVY funds farm development incl. mechanisation (1); DPAP improves drought-prone rainfed farming (2).

6.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : Tamilnadu Government Declared the Cauvery Delta Zone as a protected special Agricultural Zone.
Reason [R] : In the Agriculture Budget 2023-24, the Government has allotted Rs.1,000 Crores to build Infrastructure in the Cauvery Delta Zone.

Correct Answer: D [Both [A] and [R] true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

The delta was declared a Protected Special Agricultural Zone by the 2020 Act to shield farmland; the 2023-24 agri budget's Rs 1,000 crore (5 years, delta agro-industrial corridor) is true but is not the reason.

7.  
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(1) NEET – National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test
(2) NEP – National Education Policy
(3) NCF – National Council Framework
(4) NCTE – National Commission for Teacher Education

Correct Answer: D [(3) and (4) are incorrect]

விளக்கம்:

NCF is the National Curriculum Framework and NCTE is the National Council for Teacher Education, so (3) and (4) are wrongly expanded.

8.  
Which is/are the features of Tamilnadu State Budget 2025-26?
(i) 1% less stamp duty if property and other assets is registered in the name of women for properties worth upto Rs.10 lakh.
(ii) Rs. 2,000 stipend for children who lost both parents to continue their education.
(iii) Earned leave surrender system will be restored to encash by surrendering upto 30 days of earned leave.

Correct Answer: C [(i) and (ii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Budget 2025-26 gave a 1% cut for women's property registrations up to Rs 10 lakh and Rs 2,000 a month for children who lost both parents; earned-leave surrender was restored for up to 15 days, not 30.

9.  
Arrange the following gases in ascending order of their Global Warming Potential (GWP)
(i) CO2
(ii) CH4
(iii) SF6
(iv) CFC-11
(v) N2O

Correct Answer: B [(i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)]

விளக்கம்:

100-year GWP: CO2 1 < CH4 ~28 < N2O ~265 < CFC-11 ~4,660 < SF6 ~23,500.

10.  
Match the type of hazards with the relevant example.
(a) Natural Hazard – 1. Oil spill
(b) Social Hazard – 2. Bird Flu
(c) Biological Hazard – 3. War
(d) Technological Hazard – 4. Tsunami

Correct Answer: A [(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1]

விளக்கம்:

Tsunami is natural, war is social, bird flu is biological and an oil spill is technological → 4, 3, 2, 1.

11.  
Consider the following statements :
(1) The definition of 'Critical Wildlife Habitat' is incorporated in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
(2) India is the first country in the world to have made provision for the Protection and Conservation of the environment in its constitution.
(3) No alteration of boundaries of a Sanctuary/National park shall be made except on the recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [(2) only]

விளக்கம்:

'Critical wildlife habitat' is defined in the Forest Rights Act 2006, not the WPA; sanctuary/national park boundaries change only on the National Board for Wildlife's recommendation (Sec 26A, 35), not NTCA's. Only (2) remains.

12.  
Which one of the following is an incorrect match?
(a) Evolutionary time Hypothesis – Fisher (1960)
(b) Climate Stability Hypothesis – Schmidt-Nielsen (1964)
(c) Productive Hypothesis – Connell and Orias (1964)
(d) Spatial heterogeneity Hypothesis – Simpson (1964)

Correct Answer: C [(b)]

விளக்கம்:

The climatic stability hypothesis is credited to Klopfer (1959)/Fischer; Schmidt-Nielsen was an animal physiologist, so (b) is the wrong pair.

13.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : Detergent induced soil pollution depresses the growth of soil micro organism.
Reason [R] : The presence of detergents makes the soil acidic.
Choose the appropriate answers from the options :

Correct Answer: B [[A] is true but [R] is false]

விளக்கம்:

Detergents (surfactants) harm soil microbes, but detergents are alkaline and raise soil pH – they do not make soil acidic.

14.  
Find the incorrect statement :
(i) Tamil Nadu excels other states in lignite coal reserves and production.
(ii) It has 90% of reserves in the country.
(iii) Neyveli lignite field is located in Villupuram District.

Correct Answer: C [(iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Neyveli lignite field is in Cuddalore district, not Villupuram; TN leads India in lignite (textbooks put its share near 90%).

15.  
Among the districts of Tamil Nadu, which has 482 million tonnes of Iron ore reserves with a low grade?

Correct Answer: A [Salem]

விளக்கம்:

Low-grade magnetite iron ore in TN is concentrated in Salem district (Kanjamalai, Godumalai, Theerthamalai belt).

16.  
Choose the right pair of Sheep variety and its District :
Sheep Variety – Districts
(1) Mecheri – Salem
(2) Madras Red – Tiruvallur
(3) Ramnad white – Pudhukottai
(4) Kilakarisal – Kanchipuram

Correct Answer: B [(1) and (2) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

Mecheri sheep come from Salem and Madras Red from Chennai–Kancheepuram–Tiruvallur; Ramnad White and Kilakarsal belong to the Ramanathapuram region.

17.  
Match the following soils with their characteristics :
(a) Saline soil – 1. Clayey
(b) Black soil – 2. Sandy
(c) Alluvial soil – 3. Infertile
(d) Red soil – 4. Porous and loamy

Correct Answer: A [(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 2]

விளக்கம்:

Saline soil is infertile, black soil is clayey, alluvial soil is porous and loamy, red soil is sandy → 3, 1, 4, 2.

18.  
Choose the correct statement(s) pertaining to the key objectives of Sustainable Development Goal 2?
(1) Eliminate all forms of malnutrition, focusing on stunting and wasting in children and anaemia in women.
(2) Maintain the genetic diversity of alien seeds, culivated invasive plants and farmed animals.
(3) Ensure modern agricultural practices to enhance the food production.

Correct Answer: C [Only (1) is correct]

விளக்கம்:

Target 2.2 ends all malnutrition (stunting, wasting, anaemia); Target 2.5 is about seeds, cultivated plants and farmed animals – not alien/invasive ones; Target 2.4 asks for sustainable, resilient (not 'modern') practices.

19.  
Match correctly the India's rank on Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2026 based on the main four categories of evaluation :
Categories – Rank
(a) Greenhouse gas emissions – 1. 36
(b) Renewable energy – 2. 26
(c) Energy use – 3. 14
(d) Climate policy – 4. 25

Correct Answer: A [(a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3]

விளக்கம்:

In CCPI 2026 (India 23rd overall) India is rated 'low' only in Renewable Energy, so its weakest rank (36) goes there. GHG 25, Energy Use 26, Climate Policy 14.

20.  
Study the following figure carefully and answer the given questions.
Which region represents Dancers who are neither Singers nor actors?

Correct Answer: C [6]

விளக்கம்:

Region 6 lies only in the Dancers circle (Y), outside Actors (X) and Singers (Z).

21.  
One morning at 7 O'clock Raju started walking with his friend back towards the Sun. Then he turned towards left, walked straight and then turned towards right and walked straight. Then he again turned towards left. Now in which direction is he facing?

Correct Answer: B [South]

விளக்கம்:

Back to the morning Sun = facing West; left → South; right → West; left → South.

22.  
Jayashree was facing North-West direction. If she was playing carrom with Hemalatha in the standard seating pattern, in which direction was Hemalatha facing?

Correct Answer: D [South-East]

விளக்கம்:

Carrom partners sit face to face, so Hemalatha faces the opposite of North-West, i.e. South-East.

23.  
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?

Correct Answer: D [A's son]

விளக்கம்:

Adults A, D, B, E; B–D have G, so E is married to A and their two children are F and C; F and G are the only girls, so C is A's son.

24.  
Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then Anuradha is adjacent to whom?

Correct Answer: A [Rashi]

விளக்கம்:

Monika is 3rd and Rashi 2nd (or 4th); Rashi's other neighbour can be neither Sulekha nor Abha, so Anuradha sits at the end next to Rashi.

25.  
'A + B' means 'A is the father of B'
'A – B' means 'A is the wife of B'
'A × B' means 'A is the brother of B'
'A ÷ B' means 'A is the daughter of B'
If P + R ÷ Q, which of the following is true?

Correct Answer: C [P is the husband of Q]

விளக்கம்:

P is R's father and R is Q's daughter, so Q is R's mother and P is Q's husband.

26.  
In a certain code, 'il be pee' means 'roses are blue', 'sik hee' means 'red flowers' and 'pee mit hee' means 'flowers are vegetables'. How is 'red' written in that code?

Correct Answer: B [sik]

விளக்கம்:

'hee' (common to 2nd and 3rd) = flowers, so in 'sik hee' = 'red flowers', red = sik.

27.  
If the word 'REPRINT' be written as 'FGBFXJK' in coded form, how can 'RENT' be written following the same coding.

Correct Answer: C [FGJK]

விளக்கம்:

Letter-wise code: R=F, E=G, P=B, I=X, N=J, T=K; so RENT = FGJK.

28.  
If ROAST is coded as PQYUR in a certain language, then how will SLOPPY be coded in that language?

Correct Answer: A [QNMRNA]

விளக்கம்:

Pattern −2, +2 alternately (R→P, O→Q, A→Y, S→U, T→R); SLOPPY → Q N M R N A.

29.  
Choose the best alternative :
18 : 30 : : 36 : ?

Correct Answer: D [66]

விளக்கம்:

Rule: double the first and subtract 6 – 18×2−6 = 30, so 36×2−6 = 66.

30.  
Choose one out of the four given alternatives, which mentions the quality to the three given words
Earth : Mercury : Saturn

Correct Answer: D [Planets]

விளக்கம்:

Earth, Mercury and Saturn are all planets – the common class word.

31.  
Fix the correct piece on the square.

Correct Answer: A [Inverted triangle (tall, base on top)]

விளக்கம்:

The gap is a V running from the full top edge down to the bottom edge, so it needs a tall inverted triangle of the same proportions – option A.

32.  
An address is given below which has been reproduced against the four alternatives; Of them, three have some mistake or the other, while one is exactly the same, select the option that is exactly the same as the given address.
Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A.,
No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur,
Chennai – 600077.

Correct Answer: D [Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai – 600077.]

விளக்கம்:

A changes the name, B drops 'M.Sc., M.A.' and C drops '/33'; only D matches exactly.

33.  
Statement (A) : Vijay Adithiya is a good reader
(B) : Readers are intelligent
Choose the correct conclusion :

Correct Answer: B [Vijay Adithiya is intelligent]

விளக்கம்:

Vijay Adithiya is a reader and all readers are intelligent, so he is intelligent; 'all intelligent are readers' does not follow.

34.  
Rearrange these letters "UEAGTFI" to form a meaningful word and select from the options the word which is opposite to the formed word.

Correct Answer: B [Brisk]

விளக்கம்:

UEAGTFI = FATIGUE (tiredness); weariness is a synonym, and 'brisk' (lively, energetic) is the opposite.

35.  
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
((0.08)^2 – (0.02)^2) / (0.08 – 0.02)

Correct Answer: B [0.1]

விளக்கம்:

(a² − b²)/(a − b) = a + b = 0.08 + 0.02 = 0.1.

36.  
If + means –, – means +, × means ÷ and ÷ means ×, find the value of
12 + 6 ÷ 3 – 8 × 2

Correct Answer: A [–2]

விளக்கம்:

Becomes 12 − 6 × 3 + 8 ÷ 2 = 12 − 18 + 4 = −2.

37.  
Find the missing number.
Column 1: 9, 8, 3, 6
Column 2: 8, 5, 25, 10
Column 3: 8, 16, 4, ?

Correct Answer: B [8]

விளக்கம்:

In each column one number is the square of another and the last is twice that root: 9=3², 6=2×3; 25=5², 10=2×5; 16=4², so ? = 2×4 = 8.

38.  
In a town, 60% people watches the news on television, 40% read a newspaper and 30% read a newspaper and watched the news on television also. What percent of the people neither watched the news on television nor read a newspaper?

Correct Answer: A [30]

விளக்கம்:

At least one = 60 + 40 − 30 = 70%, so neither = 100 − 70 = 30%.

39.  
Data on 450 candidates, who took an examinations in Telugu, English and Hindi are given below:
Passed in all subjects 167, Failed in all subjects 60, Failed in Telugu 175, Failed in English 199, Failed in Hindi 191 Passed in Telugu only 62, Passed in English only 48, Passed in Hindi only 52.
How many failed in one subject only?

Correct Answer: C [61]

விளக்கம்:

Passed only one subject = failed exactly two = 62 + 48 + 52 = 162; failed exactly one = 450 − 167 − 60 − 162 = 61 (check: 61 + 2×162 + 3×60 = 565 = 175 + 199 + 191).

40.  
If first day of a year which is not a leap year is Sunday, then find the last day of that year?

Correct Answer: A [Sunday]

விளக்கம்:

A 365-day year = 52 weeks + 1 day, so the last day (day 365) falls on the same weekday as the first – Sunday.

41.  
Choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set : (3, 18, 36).

Correct Answer: B [(4, 24, 48)]

விளக்கம்:

3 × 6 = 18 and 18 × 2 = 36; likewise 4 × 6 = 24 and 24 × 2 = 48.

மதிப்பெண்: 0 விடையளித்தவை: 0 / 0