Group 2A Mains 2026 Question Paper – Part 3 (Q 108–157)

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Group 2A Mains 2026 Question Paper – Part 3 (Q 108–157) – 42 வினாக்கள், பாடம்: குரூப் 2A Mains. ஒவ்வொரு வினாவுக்கும் சரியான விடையும் ஒரு வரி விளக்கமும் உண்டு; "Show Answer" அழுத்திப் பாருங்கள். TNPSC குரூப் 1, 2, 2A, 4, SI, TET தேர்வுகளுக்கான இலவசப் பயிற்சி – சண்முகம் ஐ.ஏ.எஸ். அகாடமி, கோயம்புத்தூர்.

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1.  
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Five Tamil inscriptions were found in Maankulam area of Madurai.
(ii) Jainism spread to Tamil Nadu through the common Northern border of the Tamil Nadu and Andhra.
(iii) Inscriptions found in Tamil literature are called as Tamil Inscriptions.
(iv) In and around Madurai region, we can find 24 bed caves carved into the rock.

Correct Answer: B [(i), (iii) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

Inscriptions in the oldest Tamil script are called Tamili (Tamil-Brahmi) inscriptions (iii). Jainism reached Tamil Nadu via Karnataka, not Andhra (ii). Statement (i) on Mangulam is common to every option.

2.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : Anna introduced their economic policy name as scientific socialism
Reason [R] : He mentioned that try to create all are equal is socialism

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true]

விளக்கம்:

Anna called the DMK's economic policy 'scientific socialism' and defined socialism as striving to create equality – both statements are true.

3.  
Match correctly
(a) Arrival of Simon Commission – 1. Chennai
(b) No Paying Tax movement – 2. Vaikom
(c) Temple entry movement – 3. Bombay
(d) Neil Statue Satyagraha – 4. Bardoli

Correct Answer: A [3 4 2 1]

விளக்கம்:

Simon Commission landed at Bombay (1928); no-tax campaign – Bardoli; temple entry – Vaikom; Neill statue satyagraha – Madras (1927).

4.  
Which one of the following is not a correct statement ?
(i) He started "Dravida Nadu" newspaper.
(ii) Kalki Krishna Murthy compared C.N. Annadurai with German Dramatist Ibsen.
(iii) E.V. Ramasamy gave 'Arignar' title to C.N. Annadurai.
(iv) C.N. Annadurai wrote a drama "Shivaji Kanda Rajyam".

Correct Answer: C [(iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

The title 'Arignar' was given to Anna by Kalki Krishnamurthy, not by E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar).

5.  
Which of the following statements are true about the third session of the INC at Madras?
(i) It was held in the Island Grounds, Chennai
(ii) 236 representatives from Madras Presidency were participated
(iii) Lord Cannimara, the Governor offered grand feast to the delegates
(iv) Rao Saheb Mookanachari headed the reception committee

Correct Answer: C [(iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

The 1887 Madras session met at Mackay's Gardens with 607 delegates (362 from Madras); Sir T. Madhava Rao chaired the reception committee; Governor Lord Connemara entertained the delegates.

6.  
Who made it clear that his idea was to establish, "a worship of the heart and not of the hand, a sacrifice of the self and not of the possessions of the self"?

Correct Answer: C [Raja Ram Mohan Roy]

விளக்கம்:

When founding the Brahmo Sabha (1828), Raja Ram Mohan Roy described his aim as worship of the heart, not of the hand: a sacrifice of self, not of possessions.

7.  
Match correctly the Tamil Palayakkarars with the British Generals
(a) Pulithevan – 1. McCauley
(b) Kattabomman – 2. Heron
(c) Oomai Thurai – 3. Harris
(d) Dheeran Chinnamalai – 4. Bannerman

Correct Answer: B [2 4 1 3]

விளக்கம்:

Heron fought Pulithevan (1755); Bannerman captured Panchalankurichi from Kattabomman (1799); Macaulay fought Oomaithurai (1801); Chinnamalai fought under Tipu against General Harris (1799).

8.  
Read the assertion and reason and select the correct answer from the code given below
Assertion [A] : Tipu decided to attack Travancore in April 1790.
Reason [R] : The Raja of Travancore purchased Jaikottai and Cranganore from the Dutch in Cochin state.

Correct Answer: C [Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

Travancore's purchase of Jaikottai and Cranganore (in Cochin, Tipu's tributary) from the Dutch provoked Tipu to attack Travancore, starting the Third Mysore War.

9.  
Choose the wrong matches type
(1) Fort David – British
(2) Castle Geldria – Danes
(3) Tarrangambadi Fort – Dutch
(4) Fort Louis – French

Correct Answer: B [(2) and (3)]

விளக்கம்:

Castle Geldria (Pulicat) was Dutch and Tranquebar (Dansborg) fort was Danish – so (2) and (3) are wrongly matched.

10.  
The primary aim of launching Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana.
(1) Additional wage and employment in villages.
(2) To provide food security and improve the nutritional level.
(3) Removing large number of people who are unemployed.
(4) Creation of community social and economic assets and infrastructure development in villages.

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (2) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

SGRY's primary objective: additional wage employment in rural areas and thereby food security and better nutrition; asset creation is its secondary objective.

11.  
The office of the District Collector in India was created by

Correct Answer: A [Warren Hasting]

விளக்கம்:

Warren Hastings created the office of District Collector in 1772 to collect revenue.

12.  
Arrange the following District Administrative officials in the hierarchial order.
(1) Tahsildar
(2) District Revenue Officer
(3) District Collector
(4) Revenue Divisional Officer

Correct Answer: D [(3), (2), (4), (1)]

விளக்கம்:

Collector → District Revenue Officer → Revenue Divisional Officer → Tahsildar.

13.  
Choose the correct matches.
(1) The Public department was established in Tamilnadu – 1670
(2) The Chief Secretary was constituted in Tamilnadu – 1800
(3) The Military Board was established – 1796
(4) The Board of Revenue was created – 1838

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (2) only]

விளக்கம்:

The Public Department dates from 1670 and the Chief Secretary post from 1800; the Madras Board of Revenue was set up in 1786, not 1838.

14.  
Choose correct matches.
(1) Institute of Road Transport – Transport Department
(2) Tamilnadu Chief Minister Fellowship Programme – Social Welfare and Women Development
(3) Tamilnadu Skill Development Corporation – Labour Welfare and Skill Development
(4) Training Department – Human Resources Development

Correct Answer: A [(1) and (4) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

The Institute of Road Transport is under the Transport Department and the Training Department under Human Resources Management. The CM Fellowship Programme is not under Social Welfare.

15.  
"Makkaludan Muthalvar" (Chief Minister with the people) is the scheme by the Government of Tamilnadu to ensure

Correct Answer: D [Disposal of people's grievances]

விளக்கம்:

Makkaludan Muthalvar (Dec 2023) holds camps where people's petitions are received and settled quickly.

16.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : The Ayothidoss Pandithar habitation development scheme was introduced in Tamilnadu.
Reason [R] : It provides and improves the basic facilities such as providing shelters for urban homeless.

Correct Answer: A [[A] is true but [R] is false]

விளக்கம்:

The Ayothidoss Pandithar Habitation Development Scheme provides basic infrastructure in Adi Dravidar habitations; shelters for urban homeless are a different (NULM) scheme.

17.  
Ordinance – making power of the Governor is given under which Article?

Correct Answer: C [Article 213]

விளக்கம்:

Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when the legislature is not in session.

18.  
Consider the following statements regarding the Money Bill
(i) Money Bill can be originated in either Houses of the Parliament.
(ii) The House of people have no power to reject the Money Bill recommended by the Council of States.
(iii) A Money Bill is associated with imposition, abolition, remission of any tax.
(iv) A Money Bill also associated with appropriation Money out of the consolidated fund of India.

Correct Answer: D [(iii) and (iv) only correct]

விளக்கம்:

Art. 110: a Money Bill deals with taxes and appropriation from the Consolidated Fund; it originates only in Lok Sabha, which may reject Rajya Sabha's recommendations.

19.  
Choose the correct pair
(1) Right to Equality – Articles 14-18
(2) Right to Freedom – Articles 25-28
(3) Right against Exploitation – Articles 23-24
(4) Cultural and Educational Rights – Articles 25-26

Correct Answer: C [(1) and (3) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

Equality 14–18 and against exploitation 23–24 are right; freedom is 19–22 and cultural & educational rights 29–30.

20.  
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) B.P. Mandal was the Chairman of Second Backward Class Commission.
(ii) The Commission submitted its report in 1982.
(iii) The Commission did not recommended for reservation of 27% Government jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

Correct Answer: A [(i) only]

விளக்கம்:

B.P. Mandal headed the Second Backward Classes Commission, which reported in December 1980 and did recommend 27% reservation for OBCs.

21.  
Match the newly created state with the parent state :
(a) Haryana – 1. Uttar Pradesh
(b) Uttarakhand – 2. Punjab
(c) Gujarat – 3. Madhya Pradesh
(d) Chhattisgarh – 4. Bombay

Correct Answer: A [2 1 4 3]

விளக்கம்:

Haryana from Punjab (1966), Uttarakhand from UP (2000), Gujarat from Bombay (1960), Chhattisgarh from MP (2000).

22.  
Which of the following is correctly paired?
(1) Citizenship by Descent – A person born outside India on or after 26th January 1950, but before the 10th of December 1992.
(2) Citizenship by Registration – A foreigner, not being an illegal migrant, can acquire Indian citizenship on application for registration with the Government of India.
(3) Citizenship by Naturalization – If any new territory becomes a part of India, the Government of India shall specify the person of that territory who shall be a citizen of India.

Correct Answer: B [(1) only]

விளக்கம்:

(1) describes citizenship by descent (father a citizen); (2) describes naturalisation and (3) describes incorporation of territory, so only (1) is correctly paired.

23.  
Which one of the following is not a part of Federal Legislature according to Government of India Act 1935?

Correct Answer: D [Responsible Government]

விளக்கம்:

The Federal Legislature consisted of the King (through the Governor-General), the Council of State and the Federal Assembly; responsible government is not a part of it.

24.  
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution under 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 substituted the phrase ________ into ________

Correct Answer: C [(A) and (B)]

விளக்கம்:

The 42nd Amendment changed 'unity of the Nation' to 'unity and integrity of the Nation' in the Preamble.

25.  
Match correctly the devices and its properties :
(a) Flat panel display readers – 1. Black and White
(b) E-ink readers – 2. Print catridges are expensive
(c) Dot-matrix printer – 3. Full colors
(d) Inkjet printer – 4. Contact printers

Correct Answer: B [3 1 4 2]

விளக்கம்:

Flat-panel readers show full colour, e-ink readers are mostly black-and-white, dot-matrix printers are impact (contact) printers, inkjet cartridges are costly.

26.  
Match correctly the E-mail header fields to message transport :
(a) To : – 1. Person or people who created the message
(b) Cc : – 2. Email address for blind carbon copies
(c) Bcc : – 3. Email address of secondary recipient
(d) From : – 4. Email address of primary recipient

Correct Answer: B [4 3 2 1]

விளக்கம்:

To – primary recipient; Cc – secondary recipients; Bcc – blind carbon copies; From – author of the message.

27.  
Minisatellites are DNA

Correct Answer: D [DNA consisting of a 10-60 bp long base pairs]

விளக்கம்:

Minisatellites (VNTRs) are tandem repeats of 10–60 bp units used in DNA fingerprinting.

28.  
Which of the following statements on antibiotics are true?
(i) Antibiotics are biologically active against a large number of microorganisms
(ii) They enhance growth of fungi
(iii) Minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotics effective against different microorganism.

Correct Answer: B [(i) and (iii) only]

விளக்கம்:

Antibiotics act against many micro-organisms, each at its own minimum inhibitory concentration. They do not enhance fungal growth.

29.  
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) disease is caused by ________ in cattle.

Correct Answer: B [virus]

விளக்கம்:

IBR is caused by Bovine herpesvirus-1.

30.  
Choose the correct steps in Enzyme Immobilization.
(1) Copolymerisation and Encapsulation
(2) Entrapment
(3) Adsorption
(4) Covalent bonding

Correct Answer: A [(3), (4), (2), (1)]

விளக்கம்:

Immobilisation methods are listed as adsorption, covalent bonding, entrapment, then copolymerisation/encapsulation.

31.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : Bacillus thuringiensis formed crystals containing toxic insecticidal protein. But it is not killed by that toxic protein
Reason [R] : Actually the Bt. toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins.

Correct Answer: C [Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin and is activated only in the alkaline insect gut, so the bacterium is not harmed.

32.  
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(i) Cellulose nitrate – 35 mm motion picture film
(ii) Polyvinyl pyrrolidone – Additive for dyes
(iii) Polystyrene – Substitute for blood plasma
(iv) Polymethyl methacrylate – X-ray film

Correct Answer: C [(iii) and (iv) only]

விளக்கம்:

Cellulose nitrate was used for 35 mm cine film and PVP as a dye additive (and plasma expander); polystyrene is not a plasma substitute and PMMA is not X-ray film.

33.  
Match the following Scientists from Tamilnadu with their respective fields.
(a) Sir Chandra Sekara Venkataraman – 1. Function of ribosomes
(b) Venki Ramakrishnan – 2. Light scattering
(c) Mylswamy Annadurai – 3. Green Revolution in India
(d) M.S. Swaminathan – 4. Chandrayan – I

Correct Answer: A [2 1 4 3]

விளக்கம்:

C.V. Raman – light scattering; Venki Ramakrishnan – ribosome structure/function; Mylswamy Annadurai – Chandrayaan-1; M.S. Swaminathan – Green Revolution.

34.  
Consider the following statements :
Assertion [A] : Corrosion reaction in Nickel – Metal hydride battery cell, accelerates water loss by changing the balance between positive and negative electrode.
Reason [R] : Corrosion reduces the active material in the negative electrode, shifting the capacity balance toward positive electrode and reducing the material available for hydrogen absorption.

Correct Answer: B [Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]]

விளக்கம்:

Corrosion of the metal-hydride alloy consumes active material and electrolyte water and shrinks the negative electrode's reserve, so gas escapes and water loss speeds up.

35.  
Among the following, the one which is not a precursor test for Gaganyaan is

Correct Answer: D [Lunar landing simulation test]

விளக்கம்:

Gaganyaan is a low-Earth-orbit mission; its precursor tests are PAT, IADT and TV-D test-vehicle flights – no lunar landing test.

36.  
Which committee in India reported that the Dowry Prohibition Act 1961, has failed to curb the evils of dowry?

Correct Answer: C [The Committee on the status of Women (1974)]

விளக்கம்:

The Committee on the Status of Women in India, in its 1974 report 'Towards Equality', found that the Dowry Prohibition Act 1961 had failed to curb dowry.

37.  
Which of the following Act was enacted by the Government of India under Article 253 of Indian Constitution?

Correct Answer: B [Persons with Disabilities Act 1995]

விளக்கம்:

Article 253 lets Parliament legislate to implement international agreements; the PwD Act 1995 was enacted under it to implement the Asia-Pacific Proclamation on Full Participation and Equality of People with Disabilities.

38.  
Match the following :
(a) Anemia Mukt Bharat – 1. 2021
(b) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matriva Abhiyan – 2. 2017
(c) The Mental Health Care Act – 3. 2018
(d) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act – 4. 2016

Correct Answer: C [(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1]

விளக்கம்:

Anemia Mukt Bharat 2018, PMSMA 2016, Mental Healthcare Act 2017, MTP (Amendment) Act 2021 → 3, 4, 2, 1.

39.  
Which of the following programme was launched in 2014, to improve quality of life of children?

Correct Answer: B [Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram]

விளக்கம்:

Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram was launched on 7 January 2014 (adolescents 10–19). RBSK began in 2013, JSSK in 2011 and JSY in 2005.

40.  
Choose the right matches.
(1) National Literacy Mission – Launched in 1989
(2) Successes of the Ernakulam Literacy Campaign – 1990
(3) Continuing Education for Neo-Literates – Approved in 1995
(4) National Adult Education Programme – 1976

Correct Answer: B [(2) and (3) are correct]

விளக்கம்:

NLM was launched in 1988 and NAEP in 1978, so (1) and (4) are wrong; Ernakulam became the first totally literate district in 1990 and the Continuing Education scheme was approved in 1995.

41.  
Consumer confidence survey is released by which one of the following institution?

Correct Answer: C [Reserve Bank of India]

விளக்கம்:

The Consumer Confidence Survey is conducted and released by the Reserve Bank of India along with its bi-monthly monetary policy.

42.  
D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?

Correct Answer: B [Arunachal Pradesh]

விளக்கம்:

D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary is near Pasighat in East Siang district, Arunachal Pradesh.

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