UPSC Science and Technology – Chapter 7: Diseases, Vaccines and Health Technology (37 MCQs)

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UPSC Science and Technology – Chapter 7: Diseases, Vaccines and Health Technology (37 MCQs) – 37 questions, subject: Science & Technology. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Which of the following diseases is spread by the female Anopheles mosquito?

Correct Answer: C [Malaria]

Explanation:

Malaria is caused by the protozoan Plasmodium, which is carried from person to person by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito.

2.  

Viruses that infect bacteria are called:

Correct Answer: A [bacteriophages]

Explanation:

Bacteriophages are viruses that infect and multiply inside bacteria, showing that viruses can infect every kind of life.

3.  

Which of the following hepatitis viruses spread mainly through contaminated water and food?

Correct Answer: B [A and E]

Explanation:

Hepatitis A and E viruses spread by the faecal–oral route through contaminated water and food.

4.  

The only human disease eradicated worldwide so far is:

Correct Answer: A [smallpox]

Explanation:

WHO certified smallpox eradicated worldwide in 1980; no other human disease has yet been eradicated.

5.  

ZyCoV-D, approved in India in 2021, is notable as the world's first:

Correct Answer: D [DNA vaccine approved for humans]

Explanation:

ZyCoV-D by Zydus uses a DNA plasmid to make the spike protein and was the first DNA vaccine approved for human use.

6.  

Tetanus and diphtheria vaccines are examples of:

Correct Answer: A [toxoid vaccines]

Explanation:

These vaccines contain inactivated bacterial toxins (toxoids) that train the body to neutralise the real tetanus and diphtheria toxins.

7.  

Monoclonal antibodies were first produced using the:

Correct Answer: C [hybridoma technique]

Explanation:

Köhler and Milstein, 1975.

8.  

Corbevax, a COVID-19 vaccine developed in India by Biological E, is based on which vaccine platform?

Correct Answer: D [Recombinant protein subunit]

Explanation:

Corbevax uses the receptor-binding domain of the spike protein, made by genetic engineering, as a recombinant protein subunit vaccine.

9.  

Which imaging technique does not use ionising radiation?

Correct Answer: D [MRI]

Explanation:

uses magnetic fields and radio waves.

10.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India was certified polio-free in 2014.
2. India was declared free of yaws by WHO in 2016.
3. Diphtheria has been eliminated in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

India was certified polio-free in 2014 and yaws-free by WHO in 2016, but diphtheria cases still occur in India.

11.  

Assertion (A): Infections associated with medical implants are often hard to treat with antibiotics.

Reason (R): Bacteria growing as biofilms on implants are far more resistant to antibiotics.

Correct Answer: A [Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A]

Explanation:

Both are true, and biofilm bacteria's high antibiotic resistance is exactly why implant infections are hard to treat.

12.  

RT-PCR tests for COVID-19 detect:

Correct Answer: C [the genetic material of the virus]

Explanation:

RT-PCR converts viral RNA into DNA and amplifies it, so it detects the virus's genetic material.

13.  

India's ban on colistin in animal feed (2019) was aimed at:

Correct Answer: C [checking antimicrobial resistance]

Explanation:

colistin is a last-resort antibiotic.

14.  

Rotavac, an indigenous vaccine, protects against:

Correct Answer: A [rotavirus diarrhoea]

Explanation:

Rotavac is an oral live attenuated vaccine against rotavirus, the leading cause of severe diarrhoea in infants.

15.  

Japanese encephalitis is spread mainly by:

Correct Answer: A [Culex mosquitoes]

Explanation:

The Japanese encephalitis virus is transmitted mainly by Culex mosquitoes that breed in paddy fields.

16.  

The Chennai Declaration of 2012 relates to:

Correct Answer: B [antimicrobial resistance]

Explanation:

The 2012 Chennai Declaration was a roadmap drawn up by Indian medical societies to tackle antimicrobial resistance.

17.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. India certified polio-free
2. Discovery of penicillin
3. Jenner's smallpox vaccine
4. Launch of the Universal Immunisation Programme

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [3-2-4-1]

Explanation:

1796, 1928, 1985, 2014.

18.  

The ABHA health ID is a part of:

Correct Answer: D [the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission]

Explanation:

ABHA, the Ayushman Bharat Health Account number, is the digital health ID created under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (2021).

19.  

Kala-azar is caused by:

Correct Answer: B [a protozoan, Leishmania]

Explanation:

spread by sandflies.

20.  

India's first indigenous HPV vaccine, Cervavac, protects mainly against:

Correct Answer: D [cervical cancer]

Explanation:

Cervavac protects against human papillomavirus types that cause most cervical cancers.

21.  
UPSC Prelims 2025

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [I, II and III]

Explanation:

Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-made, bind specific antigens to aid immunity, and are used against viruses such as Nipah (m102.4).

22.  
UPSC Prelims 2025

Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

II. No virus can infect bacteria.

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [None]

Explanation:

oceans hold huge numbers of viruses, bacteriophages infect bacteria, and viruses alter host transcription.

23.  
UPSC Prelims 2023

'Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

Correct Answer: A [Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes]

Explanation:

Wolbachia bacteria introduced into Aedes mosquitoes block dengue, Zika and chikungunya viruses, so the method controls mosquito-borne viral diseases.

24.  
UPSC Prelims 2022

In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements :

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Covishield is a viral vector vaccine.

25.  
UPSC Prelims 2022

Consider the following statements :

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

Biofilms form on implants and food-processing surfaces, and bacteria inside them are far more resistant to antibiotics.

26.  
UPSC Prelims 2021

With reference to recent developments regarding 'Recombinant Vector Vaccines', consider the following statements:

1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

These vaccines are made by genetic engineering, inserting a gene of the target germ into a harmless virus or bacterium vector.

27.  
UPSC Prelims 2021

Consider the following:

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

viruses need living cells.

28.  
UPSC Prelims 2021

The term 'ACE2' is talked about in the context of

Correct Answer: D [spread of viral diseases]

Explanation:

the receptor used by SARS-CoV-2.

29.  
UPSC Prelims 2021

Consider the following statements :

1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometimes caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

Statement 2 is right: adenoviruses cause some common colds and the retrovirus HIV causes AIDS; statement 1 reverses the genome facts.

30.  
UPSC Prelims 2020

What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?

1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

PCV prevents pneumonia, meningitis and sepsis and so cuts antibiotic use, but no vaccine is free of side effects.

31.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

Which of the following statements is not correct?

Correct Answer: B [Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.]

Explanation:

(b) Correct answer – hepatitis B has a vaccine; hepatitis C does not.

32.  
UPSC Prelims 2019

Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multidrug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Incorrect antibiotic doses and antibiotic use in livestock farming drive drug resistance; people's genes and chronic illnesses do not.

33.  
UPSC Prelims 2015

H1N1 virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?

Correct Answer: D [Swine flu]

Explanation:

The H1N1 influenza virus caused the 2009 swine flu pandemic and still causes seasonal outbreaks in India.

34.  
UPSC Prelims 2016

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Viruses can infect

1. bacteria
2. fungi
3. plants

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

Viruses infect bacteria (bacteriophages), fungi (mycoviruses) and plants (such as tobacco mosaic virus).

35.  
UPSC Prelims 2014

Consider the following diseases

1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox

Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

Correct Answer: B [3 only]

Explanation:

Smallpox is the only one of the three eradicated; India's last case was in 1975 and diphtheria and chickenpox still occur.

36.  
UPSC Prelims 2013

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

Viruses lack energy-generating enzymes, so they multiply only in living cells and also spread by air, water, blood and contact.

37.  
UPSC Prelims 2013

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?

1. Chikungunya
2. Hepatitis B
3. HIV-AIDS

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Hepatitis B and HIV spread through blood on unclean tattoo needles, while chikungunya spreads only through Aedes mosquito bites.

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