Group 2A Mains PYQ

TNPSC Group 2A Mains 2026 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations

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TNPSC Combined Civil Services Exam-II – Group 2A Mains (re-examination) 2026, Paper II (CBT/objective): Part A General Studies + Part B General Intelligence & Reasoning · 2026 · RE/GS2AM/2026

200 questions, 300 marks, 3 hours – the current pattern (150 General Studies + 50 Reasoning).

⬇ Free PDF – questions with answers (Tamil + English)

Unit-wise questions in this paper

Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society31
Unit IV – TN economy & social issues39
Unit II – Administration of States (TN)36
Unit III – Science & Technology22
Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management22
General Intelligence & Reasoning50

Group 2 / 2A Mains coaching – 16 November 2026 · Coimbatore · Madurai · Online · CBT mock tests for 2A
Batch details📞 99941 46662

Questions, answers and explanations

Q 1 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which of the following statement/s is/are true about Papa Umanath of Tamil Nadu? (1) She was the first woman in South India to have been arrested by the British for Salt Sathyagraha. (2) She organised a Peasant movement in Thuvariman Village. (3) She became part of the Ponmalai Women's Association. (4) She joined the Congress Party in 1945.
  1. (A) (1) and (2) are true
  2. (B) (2) and (4) are true
  3. (C) (1) and (4) are true
  4. (D) (2) and (3) are true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (2) and (3) are true

Pappa Umanath (b. 1931) could not be in the 1930 Salt Satyagraha, and in 1945 she joined the Communist Party (CPI), not Congress; (2) and (3) are true.

Q 2 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which is/are the following facts about Thomas Munroe correct? (i) He introduced Ryotwari system. (ii) He donated a big vessel to Tirupathi Tirumala temple. (iii) He replaced pagoda with rupee.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

Munro introduced the Ryotwari system and gifted a large vessel ('Munro gangalam') to Tirumala; the rupee replaced the pagoda in Madras in 1818, before he became Governor (1820).

Q 3 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Speaking bitterly when sweet words prevail, is eating the sour for ripe fruits in the couplet, which of the following human values is stressed for human good relations?
  1. (A) Not to use harsh words
  2. (B) Not to speak meaningless words
  3. (C) Not to speak untruthful words
  4. (D) Not to use unknowledgeable words
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Not to use harsh words

Kural 100 (Iniyavai Kooral): using harsh words when sweet ones exist is like choosing unripe fruit over ripe – avoid harsh words.

Q 4 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
According to Valluvar to whom poverty will be pondered?
  1. (A) Righteous
  2. (B) Thieves
  3. (C) Baseness
  4. (D) Evil friends
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Righteous

Kural 169: 'அவ்வித் தழுக்கா றுடையான் ஆக்கமும் செவ்வியான் கேடும் நினைக்கப் படும்'. The ruin (poverty) of the upright (செவ்வியான்) is pondered upon.

TNPSC placed this question before its Expert Committee for a final decision.
Q 5 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Choose the correct matches from the given matches: (1) Chera King – Vanji–Thondi (2) Chola King – Madurai–Korkai (3) Pandiya king – Uraiyur–Poombugar (4) King Ashoka – Samba Inscription
  1. (A) (3) and (4) only
  2. (B) (1) and (4) only
  3. (C) (2) and (3) only
  4. (D) (4) and (2) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (1) and (4) only

Chera capital Vanji, port Thondi – correct; Madurai–Korkai belong to Pandyas and Uraiyur–Puhar to Cholas, so (2),(3) are wrong; only option B is possible.

Q 6 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Match the Sangam books published by U.V.SA. with the years they were published: (a) Pathupattu – 1. 1903 (b) Purananuru – 2. 1889 (c) Ingurunuru – 3. 1904 (d) Pathitrupathu – 4. 1894
  1. (A) (a)-4 (b)-1 (c)-2 (d)-3
  2. (B) (a)-2 (b)-4 (c)-1 (d)-3
  3. (C) (a)-3 (b)-2 (c)-4 (d)-1
  4. (D) (a)-1 (b)-4 (c)-3 (d)-2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (a)-2 (b)-4 (c)-1 (d)-3

U.Ve.Sa published Pathuppattu 1889, Purananuru 1894, Ainkurunuru 1903, Pathitrupathu 1904.

Q 7 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
People living in BC 6th century were literate. Because, (1) The pot found at the Keezhadi has Tamizhi scripts engraved on it. (2) Most of the pots found at the Keezhadi were inscribed with letters after the pot had dried (3) The black and red coloured pots found in Keezhadi have the image of God engraved on them. (4) The letter written on the pot were in the same script.
  1. (A) (1) only correct
  2. (B) (2) only correct
  3. (C) (3) and (4) are correct
  4. (D) (1) and (2) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (1) and (2) are correct

Keezhadi sherds bear Tamil-Brahmi (Tamizhi) letters, mostly scratched after the pots were made/dried, showing common people could write; no god images were found and scripts varied in hand.

Q 8 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Consider the following statements and find the correct statements. During Peraringnar Anna's rule, preferences were given to Tamil language. Many steps were taken by him to incorporate Tamil in different fields. (i) Removed 'Satyameva Jayate' from the Government Motto and incorporated the Tamil words 'Vaimaye Vellum' in it. (ii) The name board 'Tamilaga Arasu Thalaimai Cheiyalakam' was opened in St. George Fort for the first time. (iii) Measures were taken to write Thirukkural verses on Tamil Nadu Government buses.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Under Anna (1967–69) 'Vaimaiye Vellum' replaced 'Satyameva Jayate' in the state emblem, the Secretariat board was put up in Tamil and Thirukkural couplets appeared in govt buses.

Q 9 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Lokmanya Tilak preferred to replace Swaraj and redesigned it as Home Rule Reason [R] : The British Government was quite allergic to the term Swaraj and considered it seditious.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) [A] is false but [R] is true
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Since the British treated 'Swaraj' as seditious, Tilak used the legally safer term 'Home Rule' (1916) for the same goal – R explains A.

Q 10 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Choose the correctly matched pairs from the following. (1) Dharmalayam – V.V. Subramaniam (2) Bharata Mata Sangam – Neelakanta Bramachari (3) Bharathi Ashramam – V.O. Chidambaram (4) Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company – Subramania Siva
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are correct
  2. (B) (1) and (2) are correct
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are correct
  4. (D) (3) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (1) and (2) are correct

Bharata Matha Sangam was founded by Neelakanta Brahmachari; the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Co. was V.O. Chidambaram's (not Siva's) and Bharata Ashram was Siva's (not VOC's) – so (1) and (2).

Q 11 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Arrange the following Governors of Madras Presidency in chronological order. (1) Lushington (2) Thomas Munroe (3) Huge Elliot (4) George Barlow
  1. (A) (4), (3), (1), (2)
  2. (B) (3), (2), (1), (4)
  3. (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
  4. (D) (1), (2), (3), (4)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)

George Barlow 1807–13, Hugh Elliot 1814–20, Thomas Munro 1820–27, Stephen Lushington 1827–32.

Q 12 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
The Ramakrishna Mission upholds Vedanta Doctrine (i) To protect ancient culture of India. (ii) To develop highest spirituality inherent in man. (iii) To believe in the truth of Hindu religion only.
  1. (A) (i) and (ii) only
  2. (B) (i) only
  3. (C) (ii) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) only

The Mission preaches the harmony and truth of all religions, not of Hinduism alone; (i) and (ii) are its aims.

Q 13 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Arrange the following events with regard to South Indian Rebellion in chronological order. (1) Tirunelveli confederacy (2) Dindugal confederacy (3) Peninsular confederacy (4) Regional leagues
  1. (A) (3), (1), (2), (4)
  2. (B) (2), (4), (1), (3)
  3. (C) (4), (1), (2), (3)
  4. (D) (4), (3), (2), (1)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (4), (1), (2), (3)

The rebels first formed regional leagues, then the Tirunelveli and Dindigul confederacies, which finally merged into the Peninsular (South Indian) confederacy of 1800–01 under the Marudu brothers.

TNPSC placed this question before its Expert Committee for a final decision.
Q 14 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Choose the right matches among the following Settlements/ Headquarters (1) Santhome – The Portuguese (2) Port Nova – The Dutch (3) Tranquebar – The English (4) Devanampattinam – The French
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are correct
  2. (B) (1) and (2) are correct
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are correct
  4. (D) (3) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (1) and (2) are correct

San Thome was Portuguese and Porto Novo a Dutch settlement; Tranquebar was Danish and Devanampattinam (Fort St. David) English.

Q 15 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (1) Namakku Naame Thittam – Bus shelters (2) Thozhi – Monthly allowance of Rs. 1,000 (3) Namma Ooru Superu – Anganwadis (4) Pudhumai Penn Scheme – Hostel scheme for women
  1. (A) (1) and (3)
  2. (B) (2) and (4)
  3. (C) (1) and (2)
  4. (D) (3) and (4)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (2) and (4)

'Thozhi' is the working-women's hostel scheme and 'Pudhumai Penn' gives Rs 1,000 a month to girl students – the two are swapped.

Q 16 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Identify the correct statements about Dr. Dharmambal Ammaiyar Ninaivu Widow Remarriage Assistance Scheme. (i) There is an income ceiling and educational qualification prescribed to avail benefit under the scheme. (ii) The degree/diploma holders are given 50,000, out of which 30,000 through ECS and 20,000 given as National Savings Certificate. (iii) The degree/diploma holders are also given 8 gram 22 carat gold coin.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (ii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (ii) and (iii) only

The scheme has no income ceiling or educational qualification; graduates/diploma holders get Rs 50,000 (Rs 30,000 ECS + Rs 20,000 NSC) plus an 8 g 22-carat gold coin.

Q 17 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Match correctly the Tamilnadu State Public Sector undertakings with their corresponding established year: (a) Tamilnadu Industrial Investment Corporation – 1. 1949 (b) Tamilnadu Civil Supplies Corporation – 2. 1965 (c) Tamilnadu Industrial Development Corporation – 3. 1971 (d) State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamilnadu – 4. 1972
  1. (A) (a)-1 (b)-2 (c)-3 (d)-4
  2. (B) (a)-1 (b)-4 (c)-3 (d)-2
  3. (C) (a)-4 (b)-3 (c)-2 (d)-1
  4. (D) (a)-1 (b)-4 (c)-2 (d)-3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (a)-1 (b)-4 (c)-2 (d)-3

TIIC 1949, TIDCO 1965, SIPCOT 1971, TN Civil Supplies Corporation 1972.

Q 18 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Consider the following statements, choose the correct answer : (i) Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya located in Chennai and Thoothukudi District. (ii) EMIS - is the Grievance Redressal Mechanisms for the TN Government Employees. (iii) Chief Minister's "Nutritive Vegetable Garden Schemes" aimed towards "House wives". (iv) The Nutritive Vegetable Garden Scheme is for the people living in the Urban areas.
  1. (A) (i) and (ii) only correct
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only correct
  3. (C) (iii) and (iv) only correct
  4. (D) (iv) and (i) only correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (iii) and (iv) only correct

KGBVs are in educationally backward blocks (not Chennai/Thoothukudi) and EMIS is the school Educational Management Information System, so (i),(ii) are false; only option C remains.

Q 19 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the right matches from the following. (1) SiTN – Simplify TN (2) SeMT – State e-Mission Team (3) ARIVU – Natural Language Processing Chatbot jointly developed by TNeGA and Anna University (4) CEET – Centre for Emerging Electronic Technologies
  1. (A) (1) and (2) only
  2. (B) (1) and (3) only
  3. (C) (2) and (3) only
  4. (D) (3) and (4) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (1) and (2) only

The TNeGA–AU-KBC Tamil NLP chatbot is 'ANIL', not ARIVU, and CEET is the Centre of Excellence in Emerging Technologies. (1) and (2) are correct.

Q 20 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : The word 'Tahsildar' is derived from the Mughal word 'tahsil', meaning 'revenue-generating area'. Reason [R] : Since the 'Tahsil' were renamed as taluks, The Tahsildars were called Taluk Officers.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false, [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct

'Tahsildar' comes from the Mughal revenue unit 'tahsil'. The later renaming of tahsils as taluks is true but does not explain the word's origin.

Q 21 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Tamilnadu Government Service Rules are made under the provision of power confered by Indian Constitution provides in
  1. (A) Article 360
  2. (B) Article 365
  3. (C) Article 309
  4. (D) Article 311
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Article 309

Article 309 (proviso) empowers the Governor to make rules on recruitment and conditions of service of State government servants.

Q 22 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following are related to evolution of Tamilnadu Administration is incorrectly paired? (1) 1800 – Political Department (2) 1751 – Ecclesiastical Department (3) 1843 – Public Works Department (4) 1809 – Post of Chief Secretary
  1. (A) (1) and (3)
  2. (B) (2) and (4)
  3. (C) (2) and (3)
  4. (D) (3) and (4)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (2) and (4)

The Madras Ecclesiastical Department dates from the early 19th century, not 1751, and the post of Chief Secretary existed before 1809. So (2) and (4) are wrongly paired.

Q 23 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following is incorrectly paired with regard to educating children with special needs? (1) PECS – Picture Exchange Communication System (2) ADHD – Attention Disorder and Hyperactivity Deficit (3) ABA – Applied Behaviour Analysis (4) ASD – Autism Spectrum Deficiency
  1. (A) (1) and (3)
  2. (B) (2) and (4)
  3. (C) (2) and (3)
  4. (D) (1) and (4)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (2) and (4)

ADHD = Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder and ASD = Autism Spectrum Disorder; PECS and ABA are correct.

Q 24 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Match the following : Space Station/Centre – Place (a) Vikram Sarabai Space Centre – 1. Andaman Islands – Port Blair (b) Satish Dhawan Space Centre – 2. Dehradun (c) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing – 3. Sriharikota (d) Down Range Station – 4. Thiruvananthapuram
  1. (A) (a)-4 (b)-3 (c)-2 (d)-1
  2. (B) (a)-3 (b)-2 (c)-4 (d)-1
  3. (C) (a)-2 (b)-3 (c)-1 (d)-4
  4. (D) (a)-2 (b)-4 (c)-3 (d)-1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (a)-4 (b)-3 (c)-2 (d)-1

VSSC – Thiruvananthapuram, SDSC SHAR – Sriharikota, IIRS – Dehradun, Down Range Station – Port Blair.

Q 25 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer. (1) Public procurement in India reached upto 20-25% of the GDP (2) Government e-Market place (GeM) was conceptualised as a special purpose vehicle. (3) Government e-Market promotes inclusive development, corruption – free governance. (4) Government e-Market place in the digital portal was set up in August 2006.
  1. (A) (1) and (2) are correct
  2. (B) (3), (2) and (1) are correct
  3. (C) (3) and (4) only correct
  4. (D) (1) only correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (3), (2) and (1) are correct

The GeM portal was launched on 9 August 2016 (not 2006) and is run by the GeM SPV. Public procurement is about 20–25% of GDP, and GeM promotes transparent, inclusive procurement.

Q 26 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match the following : Article Provision – Subject (a) Article 243 A – 1. Gram Sabha (b) Article 243 I – 2. State Finance Commission (c) Article 243 K – 3. State Election Commission (d) Article 243 O – 4. Bar to interference by Courts
  1. (A) (a)-1 (b)-2 (c)-3 (d)-4
  2. (B) (a)-2 (b)-3 (c)-1 (d)-4
  3. (C) (a)-1 (b)-3 (c)-2 (d)-4
  4. (D) (a)-3 (b)-1 (c)-2 (d)-4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (a)-1 (b)-2 (c)-3 (d)-4

Art 243A Gram Sabha, 243I State Finance Commission, 243K State Election Commission, 243O bar to interference by courts.

Q 27 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match the following given below : (a) Dhar Commission – 1. Panchayat Raj (b) Mandal Commission – 2. Fundamental Duties (c) Swaran Singh Committee – 3. States – Reorganisation (d) Ashok Mehta Committee – 4. Reservation
  1. (A) (a)-3 (b)-4 (c)-2 (d)-1
  2. (B) (a)-1 (b)-3 (c)-4 (d)-2
  3. (C) (a)-2 (b)-1 (c)-3 (d)-4
  4. (D) (a)-4 (b)-2 (c)-1 (d)-3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (a)-3 (b)-4 (c)-2 (d)-1

Dhar Commission (1948) – linguistic states; Mandal – OBC reservation; Swaran Singh (1976) – Fundamental Duties; Ashok Mehta (1977) – Panchayati Raj.

Q 28 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match the following Articles of the Indian Constitution with the Provisions concerned : (a) Article 178 – 1. Power of Deputy Speaker to perform the duties of Speaker (b) Article 180 – 2. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly (c) Article 182 – 3. Power of Deputy Chairman to perform the duties of Chairman (d) Article 184 – 4. The Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council
  1. (A) (a)-3 (b)-4 (c)-1 (d)-2
  2. (B) (a)-2 (b)-4 (c)-1 (d)-3
  3. (C) (a)-2 (b)-1 (c)-4 (d)-3
  4. (D) (a)-1 (b)-4 (c)-3 (d)-2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (a)-2 (b)-1 (c)-4 (d)-3

Art 178 Speaker & Deputy Speaker; 180 Deputy Speaker acting as Speaker; 182 Chairman & Deputy Chairman of Council; 184 Deputy Chairman acting as Chairman.

Q 29 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following feature for amending Indian Constitution requires ratification by not less than half of the State legislatures? (i) Addition of a new principle (ii) Abolition of Fundamental Rights (iii) Amendment is the power of the Supreme Court (iv) Change in the powers of the States
  1. (A) (i) and (iii) only
  2. (B) (i) and (ii) only
  3. (C) (ii) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (iii) and (iv) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (iii) and (iv) only

Under the proviso to Art 368(2), changes to the Union judiciary (Supreme Court) and to Centre–State distribution of powers need ratification by half the States.

Q 30 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Reason and Assertion type : Assertion [A] : The Prime Minister is not responsible for the appointment of the Ministers and allocation of work among them. Reason [R] : The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in the Lok-Sabha and also he is the Head of the Council of Ministers
  1. (A) [A] is true, but [R] is false.
  2. (B) [A] is false, but [R] is true.
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A].
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A].
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) [A] is false, but [R] is true.

Ministers are appointed by the President on the PM's advice (Art 75) and the PM allocates portfolios, so A is false; R is true.

Q 31 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Under Indian Constitution which of the following is/are not a Fundamental Duties? (a) To protect and improve the natural environment. (b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence. (c) To promote International peace and security.
  1. (A) (a) only
  2. (B) (a) and (b)
  3. (C) (c) only
  4. (D) (b) and (c)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (c) only

Promotion of international peace and security is a Directive Principle (Art 51), not a Fundamental Duty; (a) and (b) are in Art 51A(g),(i).

Q 32 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Religions instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly provided by the State funds Reason [R] : A State should maintains a neutral and impartial attitude towards all religions.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false, [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) [A] is false, [R] is true

Art 28(1): no religious instruction in institutions wholly maintained out of State funds – A is false; State neutrality towards religions (secularism) is true.

Q 33 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
In case, a member of the Tamilnadu Cabinet wants to resign his/her Ministerial post; to whom he/she may submit the resignation letter?
  1. (A) To the Chief Minister
  2. (B) To the Governor
  3. (C) To the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
  4. (D) To the President of his/her political party
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) To the Chief Minister

By convention a Minister sends the resignation to the Chief Minister, who forwards it to the Governor with a recommendation to accept (e.g. Senthil Balaji, Feb 2024).

Q 34 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
The ways of losing citizenship under the Constitution of India are (1) When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country. (2) The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously. (3) The citizen has been imprisoned in any country for two years. Select the correct answer using code given below :
  1. (A) (1) and (2) only
  2. (B) (2) and (3) only
  3. (C) (2) only
  4. (D) (1), (2) and (3)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (1), (2) and (3)

Citizenship Act 1955: voluntary acquisition of foreign citizenship ends it (s.9); a registered/naturalised citizen can be deprived for 7 years' continuous residence abroad or imprisonment of 2+ years in any country within 5 years (s.10).

Q 35 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the right matches. (1) UK – Bicameral Legislature (2) USSR – Independent Judiciary (3) Australia – Five Year Plan (4) US – Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges
  1. (A) (1) and (3)
  2. (B) (2) and (3)
  3. (C) (1) and (4)
  4. (D) (4) and (2)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (1) and (4)

Bicameralism is borrowed from the UK and removal of SC/HC judges from the USA; independent judiciary is from the USA and five-year plans from the USSR.

Q 36 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the right matches (1) Quasi-Federal – K.C. Wheare (2) Bargaining Federalism – C.R. Dass (3) Co-operative Federalism – Granville Austin (4) Federation with a Centralising Tendency – Jawaharlal Nehru
  1. (A) (1) and (3) only
  2. (B) (1) and (2) only
  3. (C) (2) and (3) only
  4. (D) (3) and (4) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (1) and (3) only

K.C. Wheare – quasi-federal; Granville Austin – cooperative federalism; 'bargaining federalism' is Morris-Jones and 'federation with centralising tendency' is Ivor Jennings.

Q 37 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Arrange the following events in chronological order based on geographical area (1) WAN (2) PAN (3) MAN (4) LAN
  1. (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
  2. (B) (2), (4), (3), (1)
  3. (C) (2), (3), (4), (1)
  4. (D) (3), (4), (2), (1)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (2), (4), (3), (1)

By coverage area: Personal (PAN) < Local (LAN) < Metropolitan (MAN) < Wide (WAN).

Q 38 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : In relational database a foreign key in one table is used to reference the primary key in another table. Reason [R] : Foreign key is used to ensure the referential integrity between table.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are false
  4. (D) [A] is false but [R] is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true

A foreign key references the primary key of another table and thereby enforces referential integrity – both are true.

Q 39 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Choose the incorrect matches (1) Albert Bruce Sabin – Live Polio Vaccine (2) Max Theiler – BCG Vaccine (3) Jonas Salk – Killed Polio Vaccine (4) Albert Calmette – Yellow Fever Vaccine
  1. (A) (1) and (3)
  2. (B) (1) and (2)
  3. (C) (2) and (4)
  4. (D) (3) and (4)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (2) and (4)

Max Theiler developed the yellow fever vaccine and Albert Calmette (with Guérin) the BCG – (2) and (4) are swapped.

Q 40 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Which of the following statements are true about M.S. Swaminathan? (i) He was the Father of Green Revolution in India (ii) He was an Agronomist and Plant Geneticist (iii) He wrote the book "Cotton" (iv) He was a Pioneer in mutation plant breeding
  1. (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

M.S. Swaminathan, agronomist and plant geneticist, is called the father of India's Green Revolution and pioneered mutation breeding; he did not write a book titled 'Cotton'.

Q 41 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Mention the tool used for detecting specific DNA sequences in molecular diagnostics.
  1. (A) Southern Blotting
  2. (B) ELISA
  3. (C) PCR
  4. (D) Flow cytometry
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) PCR

PCR amplifies and detects specific DNA sequences and is the standard molecular-diagnostic tool. ELISA detects proteins and flow cytometry analyses cells.

Q 42 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Choose the correct answer : (1) Natural Polymer – DNA (2) Synthetic Polymer – PVC (3) Addition Polymerisation – Loss of H2O, HCl, NH3 (4) Condensation Polymerisation – Monomer Addition
  1. (A) (1) and (4) are correct
  2. (B) (2) and (3) are correct
  3. (C) (1) and (2) are correct
  4. (D) (4) and (3) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (1) and (2) are correct

DNA is a natural and PVC a synthetic polymer; loss of small molecules (H2O, HCl, NH3) marks condensation, and simple monomer addition marks addition polymerisation – (3),(4) are swapped.

Q 43 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Match correctly the gaseous fuels with their corresponding calorific values : (a) Oil gas – 1. 12,000 to 14,000 K.cal/m³ (b) Natural gas – 2. 4,500 to 5,400 K.cal/m³ (c) Producer gas – 3. 27,800 K.cal/m³ (d) Liquefied petroleum gas – 4. 1,300 K.cal/m³
  1. (A) (a)-2 (b)-1 (c)-4 (d)-3
  2. (B) (a)-2 (b)-3 (c)-4 (d)-1
  3. (C) (a)-4 (b)-1 (c)-2 (d)-3
  4. (D) (a)-4 (b)-2 (c)-1 (d)-3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (a)-2 (b)-1 (c)-4 (d)-3

Producer gas has the lowest (~1,300 kcal/m³) and LPG the highest (~27,800) value; oil gas is ~4,500–5,400 and natural gas ~12,000–14,000 kcal/m³.

Q 44 · Unit III – Science & Technology
The most important use of Schmitt trigger circuit is to convert
  1. (A) A very slowly varying input voltage into an output having an abrupt waveform
  2. (B) Steady input into a steady output waveform
  3. (C) Abrupt input into a very slowly varying output
  4. (D) A Sawtooth waveform to a square waveform
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) A very slowly varying input voltage into an output having an abrupt waveform

A Schmitt trigger (comparator with hysteresis) squares up a slowly varying input into an output with sharp (abrupt) transitions – its standard textbook use.

Q 45 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the techniques used for nanomaterial synthesis? (i) Ordered structural organisation of molecules occur when the system is in equilibrium without dissipating energy which is called static self assembly. (ii) Electron beam Lithography uses beam of electromagnetic wave to generate patterns for integrated circuits at nanoscale. (iii) Atomic force microscope tips can be used as a nanoscale write head to deposit chemicals on a surface.
  1. (A) (i) and (ii) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (ii) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (ii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i) and (iii) only

Static self-assembly occurs at equilibrium without energy dissipation; AFM tips act as nanoscale 'pens' (dip-pen nanolithography); e-beam lithography uses electrons, not electromagnetic waves.

Q 46 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following statements are true about "SWAVALAMBAN"? (i) Empower the women in Gandhian way of Self-reliance (ii) Market led vocational skill building initiative (iii) Initiated in the year 2001
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (ii) only
  3. (C) (ii) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i) and (ii) only

Swavalamban is described as empowering women to be self-reliant in the Gandhian way through market-led vocational skill building. The 2001 start year is not supported.

Source not fully confirmed – check against the TNPSC final key.
Q 47 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Arrange the following in chronological order : (1) Scheduled Castes Development Corporations (SCDCs). (2) Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship Scheme for SC students. (3) National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation. (4) Scheduled Castes Sub-Plan.
  1. (A) (4), (3), (2), (1)
  2. (B) (1), (4), (3), (2)
  3. (C) (3), (2), (4), (1)
  4. (D) (4), (3), (1), (2)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (1), (4), (3), (2)

State SCDCs began in the 1970s (central aid from 1978-79), the Special Component Plan/SC Sub-Plan in 1979-80, NSFDC in 1989 and the Rajiv Gandhi National Fellowship in 2005-06.

Q 48 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following are incorrectly paired? (1) SCDC – South Asian Countries Development Corporation (2) TRIFED – The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (3) NSFDC – The National Scheduled Castes Fortune Development Corporation (4) LAMS – Large Area Multi-Purpose Societies
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are incorrect
  2. (B) (1) and (2) are incorrect
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are incorrect
  4. (D) (3) and (4) are incorrect
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (1) and (3) are incorrect

SCDC = Scheduled Castes Development Corporation and NSFDC = National Scheduled Castes Finance and Development Corporation; TRIFED and LAMPS are correctly expanded.

Q 49 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which is/are the aim(s) of the National Medical Commission Bill, 2019? (i) to improve access to quality and affordable medical education and high quality medical professionals in all parts of the country. (ii) to improve access, research and development and adoption of latest scientific advancement. (iii) to establish 75 New medical colleges.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

The NMC Act's preamble seeks quality, affordable medical education with adequate professionals everywhere and adoption of the latest medical research; 75 new medical colleges was a separate Cabinet decision (Aug 2019).

Q 50 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following statements are true about Child Bonded Labourers in Tamil Nadu? (i) Out of the total number of bonded labourers in Tamil Nadu, 8.7% are found to be children. (ii) Most of them were found as Domestic Workers. (iii) Governments of Tamil Nadu allots Rs.1.25 crore every year towards payment of immediate assistance to the rescued bonded labourers.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i) and (iii) only

Children are about 8.7% of bonded labourers identified in TN, mostly in brick kilns and rice mills rather than domestic work. TN sets apart Rs 1.25 crore a year for immediate relief.

Q 51 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : A large part of our Social and Technical skills are acquired through deliberate instruction. Reason [R] : For imparting Education, Govt. of India allocates Rs. 1.29 lakh crores in 2025-26.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

Skills are learnt mainly through deliberate instruction (education) – true. Union Budget 2025-26 gave education about ₹1.28 lakh crore (≈1.29) – also true, but a budget figure does not explain how skills are acquired.

Q 52 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which among the following statements are true about Vetri Nichayam scheme? (i) This scheme has been introduced to upskill the unemployed youth. (ii) This scheme targets all the students aged 18-35 years. (iii) This scheme includes school dropouts also as beneficiaries.
  1. (A) (i) and (ii) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) all
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii) all

TN Skill Development Corporation describes Vetri Nichayam as upskilling unemployed youth, 'targeting all the students aged 18–35', including school dropouts.

Q 53 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Arrange the following states having the population in the age group of 60 and above as per 2011 census with ascending order. (1) West Bengal (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Bihar (4) Maharashtra (5) Uttar Pradesh (6) Tamil Nadu
  1. (A) (1), (4), (6), (3), (2), (5)
  2. (B) (5), (1), (2), (4), (6), (3)
  3. (C) (4), (2), (3), (1), (5), (6)
  4. (D) (3), (5), (2), (1), (4), (6)
Answer & explanation

Answer: None of the options is fully correct (closest: (D))

Census 2011 share of people aged 60+: Bihar 7.4%, UP 7.8%, West Bengal 8.5%, Andhra Pradesh 9.9%, Maharashtra 9.9%, Tamil Nadu 10.4%, i.e. (3),(5),(1),(2),(4),(6). No option matches exactly.

Q 54 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which scheme transformed as the "Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Higher Education Assurance scheme"?
  1. (A) Magalir Urimai Thogai Scheme
  2. (B) Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Marriage Assistance Scheme
  3. (C) Annai Theresa Ninaivu Marriage Assistance Scheme for orphan girls
  4. (D) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy Ninaivu Inter Caste Marriage Assistance Scheme
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Marriage Assistance Scheme

In 2022 the Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar Memorial Marriage Assistance Scheme was converted into the Higher Education Assurance Scheme (Pudhumai Penn – ₹1,000 a month to girls from govt schools).

Q 55 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Unemployment is the major social problems causing sickness, personal, family and community disorganization. Reason [R] : Social provisions for financial aid to those who face economic disabilities alleviates the suffering which unemployed entails.
  1. (A) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
  2. (B) [A] is true; but [R] is false
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  4. (D) [A] is false ; [R] is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]

Unemployment does cause sickness and personal, family and community disorganisation (A true). Financial aid reduces its suffering (R true), but R is a remedy, not the reason for A.

Q 56 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Choose the Right Matches. (1) Grains Portal – To Access Food Grains (2) Jack Mission – Promotes Production of Jack Fruit (3) Moringa Mission – Export Zones for Health Benefiting crops (4) Uzhavar Aluvalar Thodarbu Thittam – To create farmers Database
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are correct
  2. (B) (1) and (2) are correct
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are correct
  4. (D) (3) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (2) and (3) are correct

Jack Mission promotes jackfruit production and Moringa Mission sets up export zones for moringa (a health crop) – correct. GRAINS is a farmers' database portal (not for food grains) and Uzhavar–Aluvalar Thodarbu Thittam is a farmer–officer contact programme.

Q 57 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Arrange the following in chronological order (i) TIIC (ii) TANSI (iii) SIDCO (iv) SIPCOT
  1. (A) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  2. (B) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
  3. (C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
  4. (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

TIIC (as Madras Industrial Investment Corporation) 1949 → TANSI 1965 → SIDCO 1970 → SIPCOT 1971.

Q 58 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
How many Coastal Districts of Tamilnadu are involved in the TN-SHORE (Neithal Meetchi Iyakkam) Project?
  1. (A) 14
  2. (B) 12
  3. (C) 08
  4. (D) 20
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 14

TN-SHORE (Neithal Meetchi Iyakkam, World Bank aided) covers all 14 coastal districts of Tamil Nadu.

Q 59 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following schemes is correctly matched? (i) Kalaignar Women's Rights Grant Scheme – 2023 (ii) Chief Minister's Thayumanavar Scheme – 2025 (iii) Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme – 2021
  1. (A) (iii) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (ii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i) and (ii) only

Kalaignar Magalir Urimai Thogai was launched on 15-09-2023 and CM's Thayumanavar scheme in August 2025 – correct. CM's Breakfast Scheme began on 15-09-2022, not 2021.

Q 60 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Choose the right matches from the following. I. Revenue expenditure – Money spent by the Government II. Capital receipts – Social Services III. Non-tax revenue – Interest receipts from State Government IV. States own tax revenue – Sale of goods
  1. (A) I and II only
  2. (B) I and III only
  3. (C) I and IV only
  4. (D) II and IV only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) I and III only

Revenue expenditure is money spent by the government, and interest received on loans to States is non-tax revenue. Capital receipts are not 'social services', and the State's own tax revenue is not 'sale of goods'.

Q 61 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
A hurricane's low pressure centre of relative calm is called the eye (of the storm) and the radius of the eye is
  1. (A) 10-25 km
  2. (B) 30-65 km
  3. (C) 20-55 km
  4. (D) 40-50 km
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 10-25 km

The eye is generally 20–50 km in diameter (hurricanescience.org), so its radius is about 10–25 km. 30–65 km (B) is a diameter figure.

TNPSC placed this question before its Expert Committee for a final decision.
Q 62 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : The eastern coast of India is affected by the tropical cyclones more than the western coast of India. Reason [R] : Tropical cyclones forms only in the Bay of Bengal. Select the correct answer from the option given below :
  1. (A) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is true, but [R] is false
  4. (D) [A] is false, but [R] is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) [A] is true, but [R] is false

The east coast gets more cyclones (A true), but cyclones also form in the Arabian Sea (e.g., Tauktae 2021, Biparjoy 2023), so R is false.

Q 63 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
The sustainable development has three main aspects namely
  1. (A) Social, Environment, Natural Resources Management
  2. (B) Social, Environment, Economy
  3. (C) Social, Environment, Pollution Control
  4. (D) Social, Environment, Technology
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Social, Environment, Economy

Sustainable development rests on three pillars: social, environmental and economic.

Q 64 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
The National Environment Tribunal Act was passed in the year
  1. (A) 1994
  2. (B) 1975
  3. (C) 1995
  4. (D) 1974
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 1995

The National Environment Tribunal Act was enacted in 1995.

Q 65 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Match the following: (a) Institute of Veterinary preventive medicine – 1. Madhavaram (b) Livestock research station – 2. Ranipet (c) Tamilnadu Veterinary and animal sciences university – 3. Nandanam (d) Tamilnadu livestock development corporation – 4. Kattupakkam
  1. (A) (a)-4 (b)-3 (c)-2 (d)-1
  2. (B) (a)-1 (b)-4 (c)-3 (d)-2
  3. (C) (a)-2 (b)-3 (c)-1 (d)-4
  4. (D) (a)-3 (b)-1 (c)-4 (d)-2
Answer & explanation

Answer: None of the options is fully correct (closest: (C))

IVPM – Ranipet, Livestock Research Station – Kattupakkam, TANUVAS – Madhavaram, TN Livestock Development (Agency) – Nandanam. The correct code a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3 is not among the options.

TNPSC placed this question before its Expert Committee for a final decision.
Q 66 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using answer codes : (a) Corundum – 1. Gasoline (b) Vanadium – 2. Abrasives (c) Titanium – 3. Alloys (d) Lead – 4. Pigments
  1. (A) (a)-4 (b)-2 (c)-1 (d)-3
  2. (B) (a)-2 (b)-3 (c)-4 (d)-1
  3. (C) (a)-3 (b)-4 (c)-1 (d)-2
  4. (D) (a)-4 (b)-1 (c)-3 (d)-2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (a)-2 (b)-3 (c)-4 (d)-1

Corundum – abrasives; vanadium – alloys (steel); titanium – pigments (TiO2 white); lead – gasoline (tetra-ethyl lead).

Q 67 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
________ is declared as small port of Tiruvallur district which is closer to Ennore major port.
  1. (A) Kulaichal
  2. (B) Manapaddu
  3. (C) Kattupalli
  4. (D) Thiruchopuram
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Kattupalli

Kattupalli in Tiruvallur district, next to Kamarajar (Ennore) Port, is a notified minor port.

Q 68 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Arrange the following industries in chronological order based on their Establishment Years : (1) TANSI – Tamil Nadu Small Industries Corporation Ltd. (2) TANMAG – Tamil Nadu Magnesite Limited (3) TAMIN – Tamil Nadu Minerals Limited (4) TANCEM – Tamil Nadu Cement Corporation
  1. (A) (1), (4), (3), (2)
  2. (B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
  3. (C) (1), (3), (4), (2)
  4. (D) (1), (2), (4), (3)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (1), (4), (3), (2)

TANSI 1965 → TANCEM 1976 → TAMIN 1978 → TANMAG 1979.

Q 69 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Choose the incorrect statement about Tank irrigation in Tamil Nadu : (i) Tamil Nadu has an area of 589 thousand hectares of tank irrigation. (ii) It covers three fourth of the country's area. (iii) There are about 24,000 tanks in Tamil Nadu.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (ii) only
  3. (C) (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (ii) only

Statement (ii) is wrong: Tamil Nadu has about a quarter to a third of India's tank-irrigated area, not three-fourths.

Q 70 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Which of the following statements are true about tropical evergreen rain forest biome? (i) The tropical evergreen rain forest biome has the largest plant and animal species (ii) The average annual rainfall is 25 cm to 50 cm (iii) These forests are dense and has tall trees.
  1. (A) (i) and (iii) are correct
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) are correct
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) are correct
  4. (D) (ii) only is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (i) and (iii) are correct

Tropical evergreen rain forests have the greatest variety of plants and animals and dense, tall trees; their rainfall is above 200 cm, not 25–50 cm.

Q 71 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which of the following is presently called as Island Grounds?
  1. (A) Elambore river Island
  2. (B) Ennore Island
  3. (C) Quibble Island
  4. (D) Tivukottai Island
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Elambore river Island

Chennai's Island Grounds is the river island formed between the Cooum and the Elambore (North) river.

Q 72 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Agrometeorological Advisory Service is related to
  1. (A) Weather forecasting
  2. (B) Cyclone forecasting
  3. (C) Crop forecasting
  4. (D) Crop-weather forecasting
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Crop-weather forecasting

Agrometeorological Advisory Service (IMD's Gramin Krishi Mausam Sewa) gives weather forecasts with crop-specific advice – crop-weather forecasting.

Q 73 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
The Union Government unveiled the green credits programme on ________
  1. (A) October, 2024
  2. (B) October, 2023
  3. (C) July, 2023
  4. (D) January, 2024
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) October, 2023

The Green Credit Programme (Green Credit Rules, 2023) was notified by MoEFCC in October 2023.

Q 74 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Which of the following species has been recently (2025) focused on conserving lesser-known endangered species by the Government of Tamilnadu? (i) Lion Tailed Macaque and Madras Hedgehog (ii) Gharial and Hawksbill Sea Turtle (iii) Striped Hyena and hump – Headed Mahseer Fish (iv) Pygmy Hog and Malabar Civet
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (iv) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i) and (iii) only

In 2025 Tamil Nadu sanctioned ₹1 crore to conserve four lesser-known species: lion-tailed macaque, Madras hedgehog, striped hyena and hump-backed mahseer.

Q 75 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
What will be there in the place of question mark in the following series? EG 35, IK 99, ___?___, QS 323, UW 483
  1. (A) NS 173
  2. (B) MP 165
  3. (C) MO 195
  4. (D) NQ 195
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) MO 195

Each number is the product of the letters' positions: E×G = 5×7 = 35, I×K = 99, Q×S = 323, U×W = 483. Letters skip by 4, so the missing term is M×O = 13×15 = 195.

Q 76 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find the missing letters. PTVX, AEGI, LPRT, ________ HLNP
  1. (A) WACE
  2. (B) KNQT
  3. (C) KPQS
  4. (D) HKLO
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) WACE

The first letters move +11 each time (P→A→L→W→H). Inside each group the gaps are +4, +2, +2, so W gives WACE.

Q 77 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following diagrams best represents the relationship among classes given below : Red, Blue, Green
  1. (A) Three circles mutually overlapping (Venn type)
  2. (B) Three circles in a row, each overlapping the next
  3. (C) Three concentric circles
  4. (D) Three separate circles (no overlap)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Three separate circles (no overlap)

Red, blue and green are three separate colours with no common members, so the diagram is three separate circles.

Q 78 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Below are depicted the three different positions of a dice. Find the number of dots on the face opposite to the face with one dot.
  1. (A) 2
  2. (B) 3
  3. (C) 4
  4. (D) 6
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 6

1 touches 3, 2 and 5. 2 touches 1, 3, 5 and 6, so 4 is opposite 2. That leaves 6 opposite 1.

Q 79 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which of the following option is wrong?
  1. (A) P(A) > 1
  2. (B) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1
  3. (C) P(φ) = 0
  4. (D) P(A) + P(Ā) = 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) P(A) > 1

A probability always lies between 0 and 1, so P(A) > 1 is impossible.

Q 80 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Read the given instructions carefully and answer : A sales representative plans to visit each of six companies M, N, P, Q, R and S exactly once during the course of one day. She is setting up her schedule for the day according to the following conditions (1) She must visit M before N and R (2) She must visit N before Q (3) The third company she visits must be P. If the sales representative visits Q immediately before R and immediately after S, when must she visit Q?
  1. (A) First
  2. (B) Second
  3. (C) Fourth
  4. (D) Fifth
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Fifth

P is 3rd and S-Q-R must come one after another, so they take places 4, 5 and 6. M and N take 1 and 2, which puts Q 5th.

Q 81 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Pointing to a boy, Veena said 'He is the only son of my grandmother's only child'. How is the boy related to Veena?
  1. (A) Son
  2. (B) Brother
  3. (C) Uncle
  4. (D) Father
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Brother

Grandmother's only child is Veena's parent, and that parent's only son is Veena's brother.

Q 82 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Column I – Column II VIOLET – a b c p q r CLEAR – t u s q p VOWEL – p c q d r Decode the language and choose the correct code for the word 'WRITE'
  1. (A) d s a b p
  2. (B) a r b q d
  3. (C) s r b a q
  4. (D) t s r c b
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) d s a b p

Matching common letters: W = d, E = p/q, I and T = a/b, and R is one of t/u/s. Only 'd s a b p' fits WRITE.

Q 83 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and Matrix II from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and then column number. Identify the correct set for the word ROAD Matrix I (rows/columns 0–4): 0 1 2 3 4 0: F O M S R 1: S R F O M 2: O M S R F 3: R F O M S 4: M S R F O Matrix II (rows/columns 5–9): 5 6 7 8 9 5: A T D I P 6: I P A T D 7: T D I P A 8: P A T D I 9: D I P A T
  1. (A) 42, 32, 79, 58
  2. (B) 23, 32, 98, 99
  3. (C) 11, 13, 67, 69
  4. (D) 04, 20, 55, 78
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 11, 13, 67, 69

R = 11 (row 1, column 1), O = 13, A = 67, D = 69. The other sets each have a wrong letter (58 = I, 99 = T, 78 = P).

Q 84 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the number pair/group which is different from others :
  1. (A) 17, 187
  2. (B) 15, 165
  3. (C) 14, 134
  4. (D) 12, 132
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 14, 134

187 = 17×11, 165 = 15×11 and 132 = 12×11, but 14×11 = 154, not 134.

Q 85 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the number which is different from others in the group.
  1. (A) 225
  2. (B) 125
  3. (C) 64
  4. (D) 216
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 225

125 = 5³, 64 = 4³ and 216 = 6³ are perfect cubes; 225 = 15² is not a cube.

Q 86 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the odd pair of words.
  1. (A) Odometer : Current
  2. (B) Barometer : Pressure
  3. (C) Seismograph : Earthquakes
  4. (D) Thermometer : Temperature
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Odometer : Current

Each instrument measures its pair (barometer–pressure, etc.), but an odometer measures distance, not electric current.

Q 87 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
________ is to race as slow is to ________
  1. (A) Rapid : Stop
  2. (B) Rapid : Stroll
  3. (C) Gallop : Fast
  4. (D) Run : Fast
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Rapid : Stroll

Rapid describes a race, and slow describes a stroll.

Q 88 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
'Kilogram' is related to 'Mass' in the same way as 'Newton' is related to ________
  1. (A) Energy
  2. (B) Volume
  3. (C) Pressure
  4. (D) Force
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Force

The kilogram is the SI unit of mass, and the newton is the SI unit of force.

Q 89 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Complete the analysis pair. Pulp : Paper : : Hemp : ?
  1. (A) Basket
  2. (B) Yarn
  3. (C) Rope
  4. (D) Cotton
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Rope

Paper is made from pulp, and rope is made from hemp fibre.

Q 90 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If a mirror is placed on line MN, which is the correct image?
  1. (A) Figure (A)
  2. (B) Figure (B)
  3. (C) Figure (C)
  4. (D) Figure (D)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Figure (B)

A vertical mirror swaps left and right only: the up-right arrows become up-left and the feathered arrow runs from top-right to bottom-left, which is figure B.

Q 91 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Consider the following statements : Statement : Drinking habit is one of those human weaknesses which tend to test the will power of the drunkards to the edge. Conclusions I : It is very difficult for the drunkards to give up drinking even if they want to do so. II : Human beings have other weaknesses as well
  1. (A) I follows
  2. (B) II follows
  3. (C) Both I and II follows
  4. (D) Either I or II follows
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Both I and II follows

Calling it something that tests will power 'to the edge' means it is hard to quit (I), and 'one of those weaknesses' implies there are others (II).

Q 92 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
The total of ages of 4 persons is 86 years. What was their average age, 4 year ago?
  1. (A) 20.5 yr
  2. (B) 19.5 yr
  3. (C) 20 yr
  4. (D) 17.5 yr
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 17.5 yr

The average now is 86 ÷ 4 = 21.5 years, so 4 years ago it was 21.5 − 4 = 17.5 years.

Q 93 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If L stands for ×, M stands for +, N stands for – and P stands for ÷, then what 15 L 10 M 33 P 11 N 8 = is?
  1. (A) 150
  2. (B) 170
  3. (C) 145
  4. (D) 120
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 145

15 × 10 + 33 ÷ 11 − 8 = 150 + 3 − 8 = 145.

Q 94 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Consider the following statements : Statement : Without the active co-operation between the proprietor and the employees of the company, it cannot remain a profitable concern for long Courses of Action I : The company should be closed down II : The workers should be asked to cooperate with the owner III : The owner should be asked to cooperate with the employees
  1. (A) Only I and II follows
  2. (B) Only II and III follows
  3. (C) Only I and III follows
  4. (D) All follows
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Only II and III follows

Co-operation is needed from both sides, so asking workers (II) and the owner (III) to co-operate follows. Closing the company (I) is too extreme.

Q 95 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find the missing character from among the given alternatives. Figure 1: top 4, left 15, centre 26, right 3, bottom 10 Figure 2: top 6, left 10, centre 8, right 4, bottom 8 Figure 3: top 7, left 12, centre ?, right 3, bottom 5
  1. (A) 85
  2. (B) 65
  3. (C) 50
  4. (D) 60
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 65

Centre = (left − bottom)² + (top − right)²: (15−10)² + (4−3)² = 26 and (10−8)² + (6−4)² = 8, so (12−5)² + (7−3)² = 49 + 16 = 65.

Q 96 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Out of 5 consonants and 5 vowels, how many strings of 2 consonants and 3 vowels can be formed?
  1. (A) 1200
  2. (B) 12500
  3. (C) 12000
  4. (D) 25000
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 12000

Choose the letters: 5C2 × 5C3 = 10 × 10 = 100. Arrange the 5 letters: 5! = 120. Total 100 × 120 = 12,000.

Q 97 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
What is the value of 100C98 – 100C0?
  1. (A) 4550
  2. (B) 4950
  3. (C) 4955
  4. (D) 4949
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 4949

100C98 = 100C2 = 4950 and 100C0 = 1, so 4950 − 1 = 4949.

Q 98 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by the given pair of numbers 30 : 42.
  1. (A) 12 : 20
  2. (B) 25 : 57
  3. (C) 19 : 33
  4. (D) 34 : 31
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 12 : 20

30 : 42 = 5×6 : 6×7, and in the same way 12 : 20 = 3×4 : 4×5.

Q 99 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
A tree always has which of the following
  1. (A) Branches
  2. (B) Leaves
  3. (C) Fruits
  4. (D) Roots
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Roots

A tree may lack leaves, fruits or even branches at times, but it always has roots.

Q 100 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
The main function of Rajya Sabha is to implement the law.
  1. (A) Never
  2. (B) Sometimes
  3. (C) Often
  4. (D) Always
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Never

Rajya Sabha is a law-making house; laws are implemented by the executive, so the statement is never true.

Q 101 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Who translated Thirukkural in French?
  1. (A) Ariel
  2. (B) Graul
  3. (C) Taylor
  4. (D) Wilson
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Ariel

E.S. Ariel published a French translation of the Thirukkural (1848); Graul translated it into German and Latin.

Q 102 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Better bullock carts and freedom than a train deluxe with subjection : who said?
  1. (A) Annie Besant
  2. (B) M. Veera Raghavachari
  3. (C) B.P. Wadia
  4. (D) G.S. Arundale
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Annie Besant

Annie Besant, leader of the Home Rule Movement, said 'Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection'.

Q 103 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Match the following: (a) Nava Sakthi – 1. Dr. P. Varadarajulu Naidu (b) Tamil Nadu – 2. Thiru. Vi. Ka (c) Suthandara Sangu – 3. Gandhi (d) Nava Jeevan – 4. Subramaniam
  1. (A) 2 1 3 4
  2. (B) 1 2 3 4
  3. (C) 4 3 2 1
  4. (D) 4 3 1 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: None of the options is fully correct (closest: (A))

Navasakthi – Thiru.Vi.Ka; Tamil Nadu – Dr. P. Varadarajulu Naidu; Suthanthira Sangu – Sangu Subramaniam; Navajivan – Gandhi. The correct code 2-1-4-3 is not offered.

Q 104 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Arrange the following events in their chronological order : (1) Treaty of Seringapatam (2) Treaty of Mangalore (3) Treaty of Salbai (4) Treaty of Bassein
  1. (A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
  2. (B) (1), (2), (4), (3)
  3. (C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
  4. (D) (3), (1), (4), (2)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Salbai 1782 → Mangalore 1784 → Seringapatam 1792 → Bassein 1802.

Q 105 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Choose the special features of Kalithogai. (i) The word "Madaleral" has been spoken. (ii) No parables are included. (iii) The love of wicked is present.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i) and (iii) only

Kalithogai speaks of madal-eruthal and of the love of lowly persons (kaikkilai/perunthinai); it is rich in similes, so (ii) is false.

Q 106 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Manimegalai of Chithalai Satanar mentioned that the most popular festival of Indira Vizha was celebrated in ________
  1. (A) Puhar
  2. (B) Kancheepuram
  3. (C) Madurai
  4. (D) Uraiyur
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Puhar

Manimekalai (Vizhavarai Kathai) describes the Indra Vizha celebrated at Puhar (Kaveripoompattinam).

Q 107 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which of the following statements are true about myth? (i) Every society has its own unique myths (ii) Myths show how humans migrated from one place to another (iii) Greek myths and Indian myths have no parallels.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

Every society has its own myths, and similar myths in distant lands point to human migration. Greek and Indian myths do have parallels, so (iii) is false.

Q 108 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) Five Tamil inscriptions were found in Maankulam area of Madurai. (ii) Jainism spread to Tamil Nadu through the common Northern border of the Tamil Nadu and Andhra. (iii) Inscriptions found in Tamil literature are called as Tamil Inscriptions. (iv) In and around Madurai region, we can find 24 bed caves carved into the rock.
  1. (A) (i), (ii) are correct
  2. (B) (i), (iii) are correct
  3. (C) (i), (iv) are correct
  4. (D) All the statements are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i), (iii) are correct

Inscriptions in the oldest Tamil script are called Tamili (Tamil-Brahmi) inscriptions (iii). Jainism reached Tamil Nadu via Karnataka, not Andhra (ii). Statement (i) on Mangulam is common to every option.

Q 109 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Anna introduced their economic policy name as scientific socialism Reason [R] : He mentioned that try to create all are equal is socialism
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true
  3. (C) [A] is false but [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are false
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true

Anna called the DMK's economic policy 'scientific socialism' and defined socialism as striving to create equality – both statements are true.

Q 110 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Match correctly (a) Arrival of Simon Commission – 1. Chennai (b) No Paying Tax movement – 2. Vaikom (c) Temple entry movement – 3. Bombay (d) Neil Statue Satyagraha – 4. Bardoli
  1. (A) 3 4 2 1
  2. (B) 1 4 2 3
  3. (C) 4 3 1 2
  4. (D) 3 4 1 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1

Simon Commission landed at Bombay (1928); no-tax campaign – Bardoli; temple entry – Vaikom; Neill statue satyagraha – Madras (1927).

Q 111 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which one of the following is not a correct statement ? (i) He started "Dravida Nadu" newspaper. (ii) Kalki Krishna Murthy compared C.N. Annadurai with German Dramatist Ibsen. (iii) E.V. Ramasamy gave 'Arignar' title to C.N. Annadurai. (iv) C.N. Annadurai wrote a drama "Shivaji Kanda Rajyam".
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) only
  3. (C) (iii) only
  4. (D) (iv) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (iii) only

The title 'Arignar' was given to Anna by Kalki Krishnamurthy, not by E.V. Ramasamy (Periyar).

Q 112 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which of the following statements are true about the third session of the INC at Madras? (i) It was held in the Island Grounds, Chennai (ii) 236 representatives from Madras Presidency were participated (iii) Lord Cannimara, the Governor offered grand feast to the delegates (iv) Rao Saheb Mookanachari headed the reception committee
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) only
  3. (C) (iii) only
  4. (D) (iv) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (iii) only

The 1887 Madras session met at Mackay's Gardens with 607 delegates (362 from Madras); Sir T. Madhava Rao chaired the reception committee; Governor Lord Connemara entertained the delegates.

Q 113 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Who made it clear that his idea was to establish, "a worship of the heart and not of the hand, a sacrifice of the self and not of the possessions of the self"?
  1. (A) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
  2. (B) Swami Vivekananda
  3. (C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  4. (D) Maharishi Devendranath Tagore
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

When founding the Brahmo Sabha (1828), Raja Ram Mohan Roy described his aim as worship of the heart, not of the hand: a sacrifice of self, not of possessions.

Q 114 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Match correctly the Tamil Palayakkarars with the British Generals (a) Pulithevan – 1. McCauley (b) Kattabomman – 2. Heron (c) Oomai Thurai – 3. Harris (d) Dheeran Chinnamalai – 4. Bannerman
  1. (A) 1 4 3 2
  2. (B) 2 4 1 3
  3. (C) 2 4 3 1
  4. (D) 3 4 2 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3

Heron fought Pulithevan (1755); Bannerman captured Panchalankurichi from Kattabomman (1799); Macaulay fought Oomaithurai (1801); Chinnamalai fought under Tipu against General Harris (1799).

Q 115 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Read the assertion and reason and select the correct answer from the code given below Assertion [A] : Tipu decided to attack Travancore in April 1790. Reason [R] : The Raja of Travancore purchased Jaikottai and Cranganore from the Dutch in Cochin state.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) [A] is false but [R] is true
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Travancore's purchase of Jaikottai and Cranganore (in Cochin, Tipu's tributary) from the Dutch provoked Tipu to attack Travancore, starting the Third Mysore War.

Q 116 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Choose the wrong matches type (1) Fort David – British (2) Castle Geldria – Danes (3) Tarrangambadi Fort – Dutch (4) Fort Louis – French
  1. (A) (1) and (4)
  2. (B) (2) and (3)
  3. (C) (3) and (4)
  4. (D) (1) and (2)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (2) and (3)

Castle Geldria (Pulicat) was Dutch and Tranquebar (Dansborg) fort was Danish – so (2) and (3) are wrongly matched.

Q 117 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
The aim of Cradle Baby Scheme by Tamilnadu Government is
  1. (A) To eradicate the evil of foeticide
  2. (B) To eradicate the evil of female infanticide
  3. (C) To eradicate female adoption
  4. (D) To eradicate the evil of male infanticide
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) To eradicate the evil of female infanticide

The Cradle Baby Scheme (1992) lets parents leave unwanted infants in cradles to end female infanticide.

Q 118 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
The post of State Commissioner for the Welfare of the differently abled was created in Tamil Nadu in the year
  1. (A) 1992
  2. (B) 1994
  3. (C) 1996
  4. (D) 1999
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 1999

The Directorate for Rehabilitation of the Disabled (1992) was upgraded as the office of the State Commissioner for the Disabled in 1999.

Q 119 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
What are the objectives of the State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamilnadu (SIPCOT)? (i) It offers term loans for medium scale industries. (ii) It provides necessary raw materials for small industries. (iii) It finds solutions to financial problems faced by small industries.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (i) only

SIPCOT (1971) promotes medium and large industries – industrial parks and term loans; raw materials and small-industry finance are SIDCO/TIIC functions.

Q 120 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
The primary aim of launching Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana. (1) Additional wage and employment in villages. (2) To provide food security and improve the nutritional level. (3) Removing large number of people who are unemployed. (4) Creation of community social and economic assets and infrastructure development in villages.
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are correct
  2. (B) (2) and (3) are correct
  3. (C) (1) and (2) are correct
  4. (D) All the above are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (1) and (2) are correct

SGRY's primary objective: additional wage employment in rural areas and thereby food security and better nutrition; asset creation is its secondary objective.

Q 121 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
The office of the District Collector in India was created by
  1. (A) Warren Hasting
  2. (B) Cornwallis
  3. (C) Robert Clive
  4. (D) Dalhousie
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Warren Hasting

Warren Hastings created the office of District Collector in 1772 to collect revenue.

Q 122 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Arrange the following District Administrative officials in the hierarchial order. (1) Tahsildar (2) District Revenue Officer (3) District Collector (4) Revenue Divisional Officer
  1. (A) (1), (4), (2), (3)
  2. (B) (3), (4), (2), (1)
  3. (C) (3), (2), (1), (4)
  4. (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (3), (2), (4), (1)

Collector → District Revenue Officer → Revenue Divisional Officer → Tahsildar.

Q 123 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the correct matches. (1) The Public department was established in Tamilnadu – 1670 (2) The Chief Secretary was constituted in Tamilnadu – 1800 (3) The Military Board was established – 1796 (4) The Board of Revenue was created – 1838
  1. (A) (1) and (2) only
  2. (B) (3) and (4) only
  3. (C) (2) and (3) only
  4. (D) (4) and (1) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (1) and (2) only

The Public Department dates from 1670 and the Chief Secretary post from 1800; the Madras Board of Revenue was set up in 1786, not 1838.

Q 124 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose correct matches. (1) Institute of Road Transport – Transport Department (2) Tamilnadu Chief Minister Fellowship Programme – Social Welfare and Women Development (3) Tamilnadu Skill Development Corporation – Labour Welfare and Skill Development (4) Training Department – Human Resources Development
  1. (A) (1) and (4) are correct
  2. (B) (2) and (3) are correct
  3. (C) (4) and (2) are correct
  4. (D) (3) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (1) and (4) are correct

The Institute of Road Transport is under the Transport Department and the Training Department under Human Resources Management. The CM Fellowship Programme is not under Social Welfare.

Q 125 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
"Makkaludan Muthalvar" (Chief Minister with the people) is the scheme by the Government of Tamilnadu to ensure
  1. (A) Social Assistance
  2. (B) Self Employment
  3. (C) Free transport
  4. (D) Disposal of people's grievances
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Disposal of people's grievances

Makkaludan Muthalvar (Dec 2023) holds camps where people's petitions are received and settled quickly.

Q 126 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : The Ayothidoss Pandithar habitation development scheme was introduced in Tamilnadu. Reason [R] : It provides and improves the basic facilities such as providing shelters for urban homeless.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false, [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) [A] is true but [R] is false

The Ayothidoss Pandithar Habitation Development Scheme provides basic infrastructure in Adi Dravidar habitations; shelters for urban homeless are a different (NULM) scheme.

Q 127 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which section of the Tamilnadu Panchayats Act, 1994 deals with the discretionary powers of Village Panchayats for certain matters?
  1. (A) 111
  2. (B) 145
  3. (C) 152
  4. (D) 189
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 111

Section 110 lists the compulsory duties and Section 111 the optional (discretionary) 'power of Village Panchayat to provide for certain other matters'.

Q 128 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the right matches (i) The Panchayat Raj Act was enacted in the year – 1994 (ii) National Panchayat Raj day – 24th April (iii) Establishment of Local Government – Article 244 (iv) Reservation for SC/ST in Panchayat Raj – 73rd Amendment
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (ii) and (iv) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (ii) and (iv) only

National Panchayati Raj Day is 24 April and the 73rd Amendment (Art. 243D) reserves seats for SC/ST; the Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment) Act is of 1992 and Art. 244 deals with scheduled areas.

Q 129 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Ordinance – making power of the Governor is given under which Article?
  1. (A) Article 201
  2. (B) Article 210
  3. (C) Article 213
  4. (D) Article 215
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Article 213

Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate ordinances when the legislature is not in session.

Q 130 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following statements are true about the appointment of Chief Minister of a State? (i) The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the President of India (ii) A person who is not a member of a State Legislature may be appointed as Chief Minister (iii) Other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of Chief Minister
  1. (A) (i) and (ii) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (iii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii) only

Under Art. 164 the Governor (not the President) appoints the CM and, on his advice, other ministers; a non-member can be CM for six months.

Q 131 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Assertion [A] Reason [R] type question : Assertion [A] : Under the Constitution the Chief Minister holds the office till the pleasure of the Governor. Reason [R] : The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor.
  1. (A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is true but [R] is false
  4. (D) [A] is false but [R] is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Art. 164(1): the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor and Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Governor. The appointing authority's pleasure governs the tenure.

Q 132 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the correct statement(s) with regard to the qualifications required to be the Vice President of India. (i) He/She should be a Citizen of India. (ii) He/She should have completed 35 years of age. (iii) He/She should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

Art. 66(3): the Vice-President must be a citizen, aged 35 and qualified for election to the Rajya Sabha (not Lok Sabha).

Q 133 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Consider the following statements regarding the Money Bill (i) Money Bill can be originated in either Houses of the Parliament. (ii) The House of people have no power to reject the Money Bill recommended by the Council of States. (iii) A Money Bill is associated with imposition, abolition, remission of any tax. (iv) A Money Bill also associated with appropriation Money out of the consolidated fund of India.
  1. (A) (i) only correct
  2. (B) (ii) only correct
  3. (C) (ii) and (iii) only correct
  4. (D) (iii) and (iv) only correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (iii) and (iv) only correct

Art. 110: a Money Bill deals with taxes and appropriation from the Consolidated Fund; it originates only in Lok Sabha, which may reject Rajya Sabha's recommendations.

Q 134 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the correct pair (1) Right to Equality – Articles 14-18 (2) Right to Freedom – Articles 25-28 (3) Right against Exploitation – Articles 23-24 (4) Cultural and Educational Rights – Articles 25-26
  1. (A) (1) and (2) are correct
  2. (B) (2) and (3) are correct
  3. (C) (1) and (3) are correct
  4. (D) (2) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (1) and (3) are correct

Equality 14–18 and against exploitation 23–24 are right; freedom is 19–22 and cultural & educational rights 29–30.

Q 135 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following statements are correct? (i) B.P. Mandal was the Chairman of Second Backward Class Commission. (ii) The Commission submitted its report in 1982. (iii) The Commission did not recommended for reservation of 27% Government jobs for the Other Backward Classes (OBCs).
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (iii) and (iv) only
  4. (D) (i) and (ii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (i) only

B.P. Mandal headed the Second Backward Classes Commission, which reported in December 1980 and did recommend 27% reservation for OBCs.

Q 136 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match the newly created state with the parent state : (a) Haryana – 1. Uttar Pradesh (b) Uttarakhand – 2. Punjab (c) Gujarat – 3. Madhya Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh – 4. Bombay
  1. (A) 2 1 4 3
  2. (B) 1 2 3 4
  3. (C) 4 3 2 1
  4. (D) 1 3 2 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

Haryana from Punjab (1966), Uttarakhand from UP (2000), Gujarat from Bombay (1960), Chhattisgarh from MP (2000).

Q 137 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following is correctly paired? (1) Citizenship by Descent – A person born outside India on or after 26th January 1950, but before the 10th of December 1992. (2) Citizenship by Registration – A foreigner, not being an illegal migrant, can acquire Indian citizenship on application for registration with the Government of India. (3) Citizenship by Naturalization – If any new territory becomes a part of India, the Government of India shall specify the person of that territory who shall be a citizen of India.
  1. (A) (1) and (3) only
  2. (B) (1) only
  3. (C) (2) only
  4. (D) (2) and (3) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (1) only

(1) describes citizenship by descent (father a citizen); (2) describes naturalisation and (3) describes incorporation of territory, so only (1) is correctly paired.

Q 138 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which one of the following is not a part of Federal Legislature according to Government of India Act 1935?
  1. (A) The King, represented by the Governor General
  2. (B) The Council of State
  3. (C) The Legislative Assembly
  4. (D) Responsible Government
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Responsible Government

The Federal Legislature consisted of the King (through the Governor-General), the Council of State and the Federal Assembly; responsible government is not a part of it.

Q 139 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution under 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 substituted the phrase ________ into ________
  1. (A) Unity of the Nation
  2. (B) Unity and Integrity of the Nation
  3. (C) (A) and (B)
  4. (D) Armed rebellion into internal disturbance
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (A) and (B)

The 42nd Amendment changed 'unity of the Nation' to 'unity and integrity of the Nation' in the Preamble.

Q 140 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Match correctly the devices and its properties : (a) Flat panel display readers – 1. Black and White (b) E-ink readers – 2. Print catridges are expensive (c) Dot-matrix printer – 3. Full colors (d) Inkjet printer – 4. Contact printers
  1. (A) 1 2 3 4
  2. (B) 3 1 4 2
  3. (C) 3 4 1 2
  4. (D) 4 3 1 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2

Flat-panel readers show full colour, e-ink readers are mostly black-and-white, dot-matrix printers are impact (contact) printers, inkjet cartridges are costly.

Q 141 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Match correctly the E-mail header fields to message transport : (a) To : – 1. Person or people who created the message (b) Cc : – 2. Email address for blind carbon copies (c) Bcc : – 3. Email address of secondary recipient (d) From : – 4. Email address of primary recipient
  1. (A) 4 2 3 1
  2. (B) 4 3 2 1
  3. (C) 1 4 2 3
  4. (D) 1 2 4 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

To – primary recipient; Cc – secondary recipients; Bcc – blind carbon copies; From – author of the message.

Q 142 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Minisatellites are DNA
  1. (A) DNA profiles detected with 32P labelled probes
  2. (B) Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
  3. (C) Other name of PCR
  4. (D) DNA consisting of a 10-60 bp long base pairs
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) DNA consisting of a 10-60 bp long base pairs

Minisatellites (VNTRs) are tandem repeats of 10–60 bp units used in DNA fingerprinting.

Q 143 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Which of the following statements on antibiotics are true? (i) Antibiotics are biologically active against a large number of microorganisms (ii) They enhance growth of fungi (iii) Minimum inhibitory concentration of an antibiotics effective against different microorganism.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i) and (iii) only

Antibiotics act against many micro-organisms, each at its own minimum inhibitory concentration. They do not enhance fungal growth.

Q 144 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis (IBR) disease is caused by ________ in cattle.
  1. (A) bacteria
  2. (B) virus
  3. (C) fungus
  4. (D) protozoa
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) virus

IBR is caused by Bovine herpesvirus-1.

Q 145 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Choose the correct steps in Enzyme Immobilization. (1) Copolymerisation and Encapsulation (2) Entrapment (3) Adsorption (4) Covalent bonding
  1. (A) (3), (4), (2), (1)
  2. (B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
  3. (C) (2), (3), (4), (1)
  4. (D) (4), (1), (2), (3)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (3), (4), (2), (1)

Immobilisation methods are listed as adsorption, covalent bonding, entrapment, then copolymerisation/encapsulation.

Q 146 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Bacillus thuringiensis formed crystals containing toxic insecticidal protein. But it is not killed by that toxic protein Reason [R] : Actually the Bt. toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins.
  1. (A) [A] is true [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  4. (D) [A] is false [R] is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin and is activated only in the alkaline insect gut, so the bacterium is not harmed.

Q 147 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (i) Cellulose nitrate – 35 mm motion picture film (ii) Polyvinyl pyrrolidone – Additive for dyes (iii) Polystyrene – Substitute for blood plasma (iv) Polymethyl methacrylate – X-ray film
  1. (A) (i) and (iii) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iv) only
  3. (C) (iii) and (iv) only
  4. (D) (i) and (ii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (iii) and (iv) only

Cellulose nitrate was used for 35 mm cine film and PVP as a dye additive (and plasma expander); polystyrene is not a plasma substitute and PMMA is not X-ray film.

Q 148 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Match the following Scientists from Tamilnadu with their respective fields. (a) Sir Chandra Sekara Venkataraman – 1. Function of ribosomes (b) Venki Ramakrishnan – 2. Light scattering (c) Mylswamy Annadurai – 3. Green Revolution in India (d) M.S. Swaminathan – 4. Chandrayan – I
  1. (A) 2 1 4 3
  2. (B) 1 2 3 4
  3. (C) 4 2 3 1
  4. (D) 4 3 2 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

C.V. Raman – light scattering; Venki Ramakrishnan – ribosome structure/function; Mylswamy Annadurai – Chandrayaan-1; M.S. Swaminathan – Green Revolution.

Q 149 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Corrosion reaction in Nickel – Metal hydride battery cell, accelerates water loss by changing the balance between positive and negative electrode. Reason [R] : Corrosion reduces the active material in the negative electrode, shifting the capacity balance toward positive electrode and reducing the material available for hydrogen absorption.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false but [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Corrosion of the metal-hydride alloy consumes active material and electrolyte water and shrinks the negative electrode's reserve, so gas escapes and water loss speeds up.

Q 150 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Among the following, the one which is not a precursor test for Gaganyaan is
  1. (A) Pad Abort Test (PAT)
  2. (B) Integrated Air Drop Test (IADT)
  3. (C) Test vehicle flights
  4. (D) Lunar landing simulation test
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Lunar landing simulation test

Gaganyaan is a low-Earth-orbit mission; its precursor tests are PAT, IADT and TV-D test-vehicle flights – no lunar landing test.

Q 151 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which committee in India reported that the Dowry Prohibition Act 1961, has failed to curb the evils of dowry?
  1. (A) Advisory committee on the issues of Women Pradhan (2023)
  2. (B) The Standing Committee on HRD (2020)
  3. (C) The Committee on the status of Women (1974)
  4. (D) Committee on empowerment of Women (1997)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) The Committee on the status of Women (1974)

The Committee on the Status of Women in India, in its 1974 report 'Towards Equality', found that the Dowry Prohibition Act 1961 had failed to curb dowry.

Q 152 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following Act was enacted by the Government of India under Article 253 of Indian Constitution?
  1. (A) Mental Health Act 1987
  2. (B) Persons with Disabilities Act 1995
  3. (C) National Trust for welfare of person with Autism, cerebral palsy, Mental Retardation and Multiple Disability Act 1999
  4. (D) Rehabilitiation Council of India Act 1992
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Persons with Disabilities Act 1995

Article 253 lets Parliament legislate to implement international agreements; the PwD Act 1995 was enacted under it to implement the Asia-Pacific Proclamation on Full Participation and Equality of People with Disabilities.

Q 153 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Match the following : (a) Anemia Mukt Bharat – 1. 2021 (b) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matriva Abhiyan – 2. 2017 (c) The Mental Health Care Act – 3. 2018 (d) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act – 4. 2016
  1. (A) (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
  2. (B) (a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 2
  3. (C) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
  4. (D) (a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1

Anemia Mukt Bharat 2018, PMSMA 2016, Mental Healthcare Act 2017, MTP (Amendment) Act 2021 → 3, 4, 2, 1.

Q 154 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following programme was launched in 2014, to improve quality of life of children?
  1. (A) Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram
  2. (B) Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram
  3. (C) Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram
  4. (D) Janani Suraksha Yojana
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram

Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram was launched on 7 January 2014 (adolescents 10–19). RBSK began in 2013, JSSK in 2011 and JSY in 2005.

Q 155 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Choose the right matches. (1) National Literacy Mission – Launched in 1989 (2) Successes of the Ernakulam Literacy Campaign – 1990 (3) Continuing Education for Neo-Literates – Approved in 1995 (4) National Adult Education Programme – 1976
  1. (A) (1) and (2) are correct
  2. (B) (2) and (3) are correct
  3. (C) (3) and (4) are correct
  4. (D) (1) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (2) and (3) are correct

NLM was launched in 1988 and NAEP in 1978, so (1) and (4) are wrong; Ernakulam became the first totally literate district in 1990 and the Continuing Education scheme was approved in 1995.

Q 156 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Consumer confidence survey is released by which one of the following institution?
  1. (A) National Consumer Forum
  2. (B) NITI Aayog
  3. (C) Reserve Bank of India
  4. (D) NABARD
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India

The Consumer Confidence Survey is conducted and released by the Reserve Bank of India along with its bi-monthly monetary policy.

Q 157 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?
  1. (A) Tamil Nadu
  2. (B) Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (C) Shillong
  4. (D) Manipur
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh

D'Ering Memorial Wildlife Sanctuary is near Pasighat in East Siang district, Arunachal Pradesh.

Q 158 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following statements are true about the Union Budget 2025-2026 on education sector? (i) To nurture innovation and entrepreneurship among students, 50,000 "Atal Tinkering" Labs will be established in government schools over the next five years. (ii) All government secondary schools will receive broadband connectivity under the Bharat Project. (iii) Centre of Excellence in "AI" for education will be established.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Budget 2025-26 announced 50,000 Atal Tinkering Labs in 5 years, broadband to all government secondary schools under BharatNet, and a Centre of Excellence in AI for education (Rs 500 crore) – all three are true.

Q 159 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which are the objectives of a Kalaignar Kaivinai Thittam? (i) To provide financial assistance to all artisans in the state. (ii) To provide Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Development Training for starting new Industrial units and expanding existing units. (iii) To provide 50% subsidy upto a maximum of Rs. 50,000.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

The scheme gives artisans financial assistance and skill/entrepreneurship training; the subsidy is 25% of the loan, up to Rs 50,000 – not 50%, so (iii) is wrong.

Q 160 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
As per 2011 census, arrange the district rank-wise based on their Literacy rate. (1) The Nilgiris (2) Chennai (3) Thoothukudi (4) Kanyakumari
  1. (A) (2), (3), (4), (1)
  2. (B) (2), (1), (3), (4)
  3. (C) (4), (2), (3), (1)
  4. (D) (3), (2), (1), (4)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (4), (2), (3), (1)

Census 2011 literacy: Kanyakumari 91.75%, Chennai 90.18%, Thoothukudi 86.16%, The Nilgiris 85.20%.

Q 161 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Samagra Shiksha subsumes three erstwhile schemes viz _______.
  1. (A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, School Education, Teacher Education
  2. (B) Teacher Education, Higher Education, School Education
  3. (C) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rastriya Madyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education
  4. (D) Higher Education, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Teacher Education
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rastriya Madyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education

Samagra Shiksha (2018) merged Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan and Teacher Education.

Q 162 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Match the correct answer : (a) National Food Security Mission – 1. Augmenting Mechanisation in agriculture (b) Rainfed Area Development Programme – 2. Improving rainfed farming (c) National Agricultural Development Programme – 3. Increase production of rice and pulses (d) Drought Prone Area Programme – 4. Promotion of horticulture in rainfed area
  1. (A) (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3
  2. (B) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2
  3. (C) (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1
  4. (D) (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1 (d) 2

NFSM aims to raise rice, wheat and pulses output (3); RADP promotes horticulture-based rainfed farming systems (4); NADP/RKVY funds farm development incl. mechanisation (1); DPAP improves drought-prone rainfed farming (2).

Q 163 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Tamilnadu Government Declared the Cauvery Delta Zone as a protected special Agricultural Zone. Reason [R] : In the Agriculture Budget 2023-24, the Government has allotted Rs.1,000 Crores to build Infrastructure in the Cauvery Delta Zone.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A].
  3. (C) [A] is false but [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

The delta was declared a Protected Special Agricultural Zone by the 2020 Act to shield farmland; the 2023-24 agri budget's Rs 1,000 crore (5 years, delta agro-industrial corridor) is true but is not the reason.

Q 164 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (1) NEET – National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (2) NEP – National Education Policy (3) NCF – National Council Framework (4) NCTE – National Commission for Teacher Education
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are incorrect
  2. (B) (1) and (2) are incorrect
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are incorrect
  4. (D) (3) and (4) are incorrect
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (3) and (4) are incorrect

NCF is the National Curriculum Framework and NCTE is the National Council for Teacher Education, so (3) and (4) are wrongly expanded.

Q 165 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which is/are the features of Tamilnadu State Budget 2025-26? (i) 1% less stamp duty if property and other assets is registered in the name of women for properties worth upto Rs.10 lakh. (ii) Rs. 2,000 stipend for children who lost both parents to continue their education. (iii) Earned leave surrender system will be restored to encash by surrendering upto 30 days of earned leave.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

Budget 2025-26 gave a 1% cut for women's property registrations up to Rs 10 lakh and Rs 2,000 a month for children who lost both parents; earned-leave surrender was restored for up to 15 days, not 30.

Q 166 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Arrange the following gases in ascending order of their Global Warming Potential (GWP) (i) CO2 (ii) CH4 (iii) SF6 (iv) CFC-11 (v) N2O
  1. (A) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (iv)
  2. (B) (i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)
  3. (C) (i), (v), (ii), (iv), (iii)
  4. (D) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (iii)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)

100-year GWP: CO2 1 < CH4 ~28 < N2O ~265 < CFC-11 ~4,660 < SF6 ~23,500.

Q 167 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Match the type of hazards with the relevant example. (a) Natural Hazard – 1. Oil spill (b) Social Hazard – 2. Bird Flu (c) Biological Hazard – 3. War (d) Technological Hazard – 4. Tsunami
  1. (A) (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
  2. (B) (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
  3. (C) (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3
  4. (D) (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

Tsunami is natural, war is social, bird flu is biological and an oil spill is technological → 4, 3, 2, 1.

Q 168 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Consider the following statements : (1) The definition of 'Critical Wildlife Habitat' is incorporated in the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. (2) India is the first country in the world to have made provision for the Protection and Conservation of the environment in its constitution. (3) No alteration of boundaries of a Sanctuary/National park shall be made except on the recommendation of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
  1. (A) (1), (2) and (3) only
  2. (B) (1) and (3) only
  3. (C) (2) only
  4. (D) (2) and (3) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (2) only

'Critical wildlife habitat' is defined in the Forest Rights Act 2006, not the WPA; sanctuary/national park boundaries change only on the National Board for Wildlife's recommendation (Sec 26A, 35), not NTCA's. Only (2) remains.

Q 169 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Which one of the following is an incorrect match? (a) Evolutionary time Hypothesis – Fisher (1960) (b) Climate Stability Hypothesis – Schmidt-Nielsen (1964) (c) Productive Hypothesis – Connell and Orias (1964) (d) Spatial heterogeneity Hypothesis – Simpson (1964)
  1. (A) (d)
  2. (B) (a)
  3. (C) (b)
  4. (D) (c)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (b)

The climatic stability hypothesis is credited to Klopfer (1959)/Fischer; Schmidt-Nielsen was an animal physiologist, so (b) is the wrong pair.

Q 170 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Consider the following statements : Assertion [A] : Detergent induced soil pollution depresses the growth of soil micro organism. Reason [R] : The presence of detergents makes the soil acidic. Choose the appropriate answers from the options :
  1. (A) [A] is false, but [R] is true
  2. (B) [A] is true but [R] is false
  3. (C) Both [A] & [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) [A] is true but [R] is false

Detergents (surfactants) harm soil microbes, but detergents are alkaline and raise soil pH – they do not make soil acidic.

Q 171 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Find the incorrect statement : (i) Tamil Nadu excels other states in lignite coal reserves and production. (ii) It has 90% of reserves in the country. (iii) Neyveli lignite field is located in Villupuram District.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (ii) only
  3. (C) (iii) only
  4. (D) (ii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (iii) only

Neyveli lignite field is in Cuddalore district, not Villupuram; TN leads India in lignite (textbooks put its share near 90%).

Q 172 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Among the districts of Tamil Nadu, which has 482 million tonnes of Iron ore reserves with a low grade?
  1. (A) Salem
  2. (B) Trichy
  3. (C) Madurai
  4. (D) Coimbatore
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Salem

Low-grade magnetite iron ore in TN is concentrated in Salem district (Kanjamalai, Godumalai, Theerthamalai belt).

Q 173 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Choose the right pair of Sheep variety and its District : Sheep Variety – Districts (1) Mecheri – Salem (2) Madras Red – Tiruvallur (3) Ramnad white – Pudhukottai (4) Kilakarisal – Kanchipuram
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are correct
  2. (B) (1) and (2) are correct
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are correct
  4. (D) (3) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (1) and (2) are correct

Mecheri sheep come from Salem and Madras Red from Chennai–Kancheepuram–Tiruvallur; Ramnad White and Kilakarsal belong to the Ramanathapuram region.

Q 174 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Match the following soils with their characteristics : (a) Saline soil – 1. Clayey (b) Black soil – 2. Sandy (c) Alluvial soil – 3. Infertile (d) Red soil – 4. Porous and loamy
  1. (A) (a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 2
  2. (B) (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
  3. (C) (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
  4. (D) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 2

Saline soil is infertile, black soil is clayey, alluvial soil is porous and loamy, red soil is sandy → 3, 1, 4, 2.

Q 175 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Choose the correct statement(s) pertaining to the key objectives of Sustainable Development Goal 2? (1) Eliminate all forms of malnutrition, focusing on stunting and wasting in children and anaemia in women. (2) Maintain the genetic diversity of alien seeds, culivated invasive plants and farmed animals. (3) Ensure modern agricultural practices to enhance the food production.
  1. (A) Both (1) and (2) are correct
  2. (B) Both (2) and (3) are correct
  3. (C) Only (1) is correct
  4. (D) Only (3) is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Only (1) is correct

Target 2.2 ends all malnutrition (stunting, wasting, anaemia); Target 2.5 is about seeds, cultivated plants and farmed animals – not alien/invasive ones; Target 2.4 asks for sustainable, resilient (not 'modern') practices.

Q 176 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Match correctly the India's rank on Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2026 based on the main four categories of evaluation : Categories – Rank (a) Greenhouse gas emissions – 1. 36 (b) Renewable energy – 2. 26 (c) Energy use – 3. 14 (d) Climate policy – 4. 25
  1. (A) (a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
  2. (B) (a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3
  3. (C) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
  4. (D) (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (a) 4 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

In CCPI 2026 (India 23rd overall) India is rated 'low' only in Renewable Energy, so its weakest rank (36) goes there. GHG 25, Energy Use 26, Climate Policy 14.

Q 177 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Study the following figure carefully and answer the given questions. Which region represents Dancers who are neither Singers nor actors?
  1. (A) 2
  2. (B) 3
  3. (C) 6
  4. (D) 7
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 6

Region 6 lies only in the Dancers circle (Y), outside Actors (X) and Singers (Z).

Q 178 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
One morning at 7 O'clock Raju started walking with his friend back towards the Sun. Then he turned towards left, walked straight and then turned towards right and walked straight. Then he again turned towards left. Now in which direction is he facing?
  1. (A) West
  2. (B) South
  3. (C) North
  4. (D) East
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) South

Back to the morning Sun = facing West; left → South; right → West; left → South.

Q 179 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Jayashree was facing North-West direction. If she was playing carrom with Hemalatha in the standard seating pattern, in which direction was Hemalatha facing?
  1. (A) North-West
  2. (B) North-East
  3. (C) South-West
  4. (D) South-East
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) South-East

Carrom partners sit face to face, so Hemalatha faces the opposite of North-West, i.e. South-East.

Q 180 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two of whom F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?
  1. (A) G's father
  2. (B) F's father
  3. (C) E's daughter
  4. (D) A's son
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) A's son

Adults A, D, B, E; B–D have G, so E is married to A and their two children are F and C; F and G are the only girls, so C is A's son.

Q 181 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Five girls are sitting in a row. Rashi is not adjacent to Sulekha or Abha. Anuradha is not adjacent to Sulekha. Rashi is adjacent to Monika. Monika is at the middle in the row. Then Anuradha is adjacent to whom?
  1. (A) Rashi
  2. (B) Sulekha
  3. (C) Abha
  4. (D) Monika
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Rashi

Monika is 3rd and Rashi 2nd (or 4th); Rashi's other neighbour can be neither Sulekha nor Abha, so Anuradha sits at the end next to Rashi.

Q 182 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
'A + B' means 'A is the father of B' 'A – B' means 'A is the wife of B' 'A × B' means 'A is the brother of B' 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the daughter of B' If P + R ÷ Q, which of the following is true?
  1. (A) P is the brother of Q
  2. (B) P is the son of Q
  3. (C) P is the husband of Q
  4. (D) P is the father of Q
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) P is the husband of Q

P is R's father and R is Q's daughter, so Q is R's mother and P is Q's husband.

Q 183 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
In a certain code, 'il be pee' means 'roses are blue', 'sik hee' means 'red flowers' and 'pee mit hee' means 'flowers are vegetables'. How is 'red' written in that code?
  1. (A) hee
  2. (B) sik
  3. (C) be
  4. (D) none of these
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) sik

'hee' (common to 2nd and 3rd) = flowers, so in 'sik hee' = 'red flowers', red = sik.

Q 184 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If the word 'REPRINT' be written as 'FGBFXJK' in coded form, how can 'RENT' be written following the same coding.
  1. (A) FBJK
  2. (B) FXJK
  3. (C) FGJK
  4. (D) FBXK
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) FGJK

Letter-wise code: R=F, E=G, P=B, I=X, N=J, T=K; so RENT = FGJK.

Q 185 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If ROAST is coded as PQYUR in a certain language, then how will SLOPPY be coded in that language?
  1. (A) QNMRNA
  2. (B) MRNAQN
  3. (C) NRMNQA
  4. (D) RANNMQ
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) QNMRNA

Pattern −2, +2 alternately (R→P, O→Q, A→Y, S→U, T→R); SLOPPY → Q N M R N A.

Q 186 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the best alternative : 18 : 30 : : 36 : ?
  1. (A) 54
  2. (B) 62
  3. (C) 64
  4. (D) 66
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 66

Rule: double the first and subtract 6 – 18×2−6 = 30, so 36×2−6 = 66.

Q 187 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose one out of the four given alternatives, which mentions the quality to the three given words Earth : Mercury : Saturn
  1. (A) Mars
  2. (B) Moon
  3. (C) Jupiter
  4. (D) Planets
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Planets

Earth, Mercury and Saturn are all planets – the common class word.

Q 188 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Fix the correct piece on the square.
  1. (A) Inverted triangle (tall, base on top)
  2. (B) Inverted triangle (short, flat)
  3. (C) Triangle pointing left
  4. (D) Triangle pointing right
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Inverted triangle (tall, base on top)

The gap is a V running from the full top edge down to the bottom edge, so it needs a tall inverted triangle of the same proportions – option A.

Q 189 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
An address is given below which has been reproduced against the four alternatives; Of them, three have some mistake or the other, while one is exactly the same, select the option that is exactly the same as the given address. Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai – 600077.
  1. (A) Mr. B. JAYAKUMAR, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai – 600077.
  2. (B) Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai – 600077.
  3. (C) Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai – 600077.
  4. (D) Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai – 600077.
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Mr. B. JAYAPRAKASH, M.Sc., M.Sc., M.A., No: 14/33, Station Road, Annanur, Chennai – 600077.

A changes the name, B drops 'M.Sc., M.A.' and C drops '/33'; only D matches exactly.

Q 190 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Statement (A) : Vijay Adithiya is a good reader (B) : Readers are intelligent Choose the correct conclusion :
  1. (A) All intelligent are Readers
  2. (B) Vijay Adithiya is intelligent
  3. (C) Both (A) and (B)
  4. (D) None of the above
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Vijay Adithiya is intelligent

Vijay Adithiya is a reader and all readers are intelligent, so he is intelligent; 'all intelligent are readers' does not follow.

Q 191 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Rearrange these letters "UEAGTFI" to form a meaningful word and select from the options the word which is opposite to the formed word.
  1. (A) Weariness
  2. (B) Brisk
  3. (C) Tension
  4. (D) Sweating
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Brisk

UEAGTFI = FATIGUE (tiredness); weariness is a synonym, and 'brisk' (lively, energetic) is the opposite.

Q 192 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: ((0.08)^2 – (0.02)^2) / (0.08 – 0.02)
  1. (A) 0.06
  2. (B) 0.1
  3. (C) 0.16
  4. (D) 0.04
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 0.1

(a² − b²)/(a − b) = a + b = 0.08 + 0.02 = 0.1.

Q 193 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If + means –, – means +, × means ÷ and ÷ means ×, find the value of 12 + 6 ÷ 3 – 8 × 2
  1. (A) –2
  2. (B) 2
  3. (C) 4
  4. (D) 8
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) –2

Becomes 12 − 6 × 3 + 8 ÷ 2 = 12 − 18 + 4 = −2.

Q 194 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the right option that is wrong argument : Statement : Should all the universities in India have the same syllabus? Arguments I : Yes, because immigration of the students from one university to another will not create problem. II : No, because the universities will lose their distinctive character.
  1. (A) Both I and II are strong
  2. (B) Neither I nor II is strong
  3. (C) Only I is strong
  4. (D) Only II is strong
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Both I and II are strong

Both arguments are relevant and substantive: a common syllabus eases student migration (I), and uniformity would erase universities' distinctive academic character (II).

Opinion-based question with a garbled stem – check against the TNPSC final key.
Q 195 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find the missing number. Column 1: 9, 8, 3, 6 Column 2: 8, 5, 25, 10 Column 3: 8, 16, 4, ?
  1. (A) 4
  2. (B) 8
  3. (C) 12
  4. (D) 20
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 8

In each column one number is the square of another and the last is twice that root: 9=3², 6=2×3; 25=5², 10=2×5; 16=4², so ? = 2×4 = 8.

Q 196 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
In a town, 60% people watches the news on television, 40% read a newspaper and 30% read a newspaper and watched the news on television also. What percent of the people neither watched the news on television nor read a newspaper?
  1. (A) 30
  2. (B) 40
  3. (C) 60
  4. (D) 70
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 30

At least one = 60 + 40 − 30 = 70%, so neither = 100 − 70 = 30%.

Q 197 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Data on 450 candidates, who took an examinations in Telugu, English and Hindi are given below: Passed in all subjects 167, Failed in all subjects 60, Failed in Telugu 175, Failed in English 199, Failed in Hindi 191 Passed in Telugu only 62, Passed in English only 48, Passed in Hindi only 52. How many failed in one subject only?
  1. (A) 152
  2. (B) 144
  3. (C) 61
  4. (D) 56
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 61

Passed only one subject = failed exactly two = 62 + 48 + 52 = 162; failed exactly one = 450 − 167 − 60 − 162 = 61 (check: 61 + 2×162 + 3×60 = 565 = 175 + 199 + 191).

Q 198 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If first day of a year which is not a leap year is Sunday, then find the last day of that year?
  1. (A) Sunday
  2. (B) Monday
  3. (C) Tuesday
  4. (D) Wednesday
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Sunday

A 365-day year = 52 weeks + 1 day, so the last day (day 365) falls on the same weekday as the first – Sunday.

Q 199 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
On what dates of March 2035 does Sunday fall?
  1. (A) 7th, 14th, 21st, 28th
  2. (B) 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd
  3. (C) 8th, 15th, 22nd, 29th
  4. (D) 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd
Answer & explanation

Answer: None of the options is fully correct (closest: (D))

1 March 2035 is a Thursday, so the Sundays are 4, 11, 18 and 25. None of the options is correct.

TNPSC placed this question before its Expert Committee for a final decision.
Q 200 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set : (3, 18, 36).
  1. (A) (2, 10, 16)
  2. (B) (4, 24, 48)
  3. (C) (6, 42, 48)
  4. (D) (12, 72, 96)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (4, 24, 48)

3 × 6 = 18 and 18 × 2 = 36; likewise 4 × 6 = 24 and 24 × 2 = 48.

Questions are from the official TNPSC question paper. Answers and explanations are prepared and checked twice by Shanmugam IAS Academy faculty; where TNPSC placed a question before its Expert Committee, it is marked.

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