Group 2A Mains PYQ

TNPSC Group 2A Mains 2025 Question Paper with Answers and Explanations

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20262025 Group 2A Mains – pattern & daily practice

TNPSC Combined Civil Services Exam-II – Group 2A Mains 2025, Paper II · 2025 · GST2AM/2025

The 2025 paper had Part A General Studies (Q1–100), Part B Aptitude & Mental Ability (Q101–140) and Part C General Tamil (Q141–200). General Tamil is not part of the current (2026) pattern, so only Q1–140 are given here.

⬇ Free PDF – questions with answers (Tamil + English)

Unit-wise questions in this paper

Unit III – Science & Technology17
Unit IV – TN economy & social issues21
Unit II – Administration of States (TN)28
Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management14
Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society20
General Intelligence & Reasoning40

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Questions, answers and explanations

Q 1 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Arrange the following OSI layers in order (1) Data Link Layer (2) Physical Layer (3) Transport Layer (4) Network Layer
  1. (A) (2), (1), (4), (3)
  2. (B) (2), (3), (1), (4)
  3. (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)
  4. (D) (3), (1), (4), (2)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (2), (1), (4), (3)

OSI model from the bottom: Physical (1st) → Data Link (2nd) → Network (3rd) → Transport (4th) layer.

Q 2 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Assertion [A] : In humans, individuals inherit Mitochondrial DNA strictly from their mothers. Reason [R] : Therefore, the mtDNA sequences obtained from maternally related individuals such as a brother and a sister (or) a mother and a daughter exactly match each other when there is no mutation in either of cases.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false, [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

mtDNA is inherited only from the mother, so maternal relatives share identical mtDNA (barring mutation). [R] is a consequence of [A] ('Therefore'), not its explanation.

Q 3 · Unit III – Science & Technology
In IVF technique, fusion of sperm and ovum takes place in
  1. (A) Vagina
  2. (B) Fallopian tube
  3. (C) Culture medium
  4. (D) Uterus
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Culture medium

In vitro fertilisation means fertilisation outside the body – sperm and ovum fuse in a culture medium in the laboratory; the embryo is later transferred to the uterus.

Q 4 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Choose the right matches among type The methods employed in micro propagation and improvement of tree species are (1) Clonal multiplication – Prosopis cineraria (2) Protoplast culture and genetic engineering – Dalbergia sisso (3) By somatic embryogenesis – Cupressus arizonica (4) Germplasm conservation – Tectona grandis
  1. (A) (1) and (3) correct
  2. (B) (1) and (4) correct
  3. (C) (2) and (3) correct
  4. (D) (3) and (4) correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (1) and (4) correct

Clonal multiplication is established for Prosopis cineraria and teak (Tectona grandis) is a standard case of in vitro germplasm conservation; the Cupressus arizonica tissue-culture work is adventitious-bud organogenesis, not somatic embryogenesis.

TNPSC placed this question before its Expert Committee for a final decision.
Q 5 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (i) Atal Tinkering Lab – Nurtures an innovative mindset towards research amongst high school students (ii) Krishi Neev – Platform to promote technology interventions in agriculture (iii) Palna – Provides support service like safe accommodation and Medical assistance to working women (iv) Unnati – Technology platform integrated with artificial intelligence to match job providers with seekers
  1. (A) (iv) only
  2. (B) (i) and (ii) only
  3. (C) (iii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iv) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (iii) only

Palna (Mission Shakti) is the National Creche scheme – day-care for children of working mothers; safe accommodation for working women is Sakhi Niwas.

Q 6 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Match the following : (a) Hydrogen bomb – 1. Uncontrolled nuclear fission reaction (b) Power reactor – 2. Controlled fusion reaction (c) Magnetic confinement of plasma – 3. Controlled fission reaction (d) Atom bomb – 4. Fission - Fusion reaction
  1. (A) 2 1 4 3
  2. (B) 1 3 4 2
  3. (C) 3 4 1 2
  4. (D) 4 3 2 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1

H-bomb uses a fission trigger + fusion (4); power reactor = controlled fission (3); magnetic confinement (tokamak) = controlled fusion (2); atom bomb = uncontrolled fission (1).

Q 7 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Which of the following is/are correct about Dip-Pen Nano Lithography (DPN)? (i) It is a direct method (ii) It works on diffusion through water molecules (iii) It patterns a variety of materials (iv) It is a fast scanning process
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) only
  3. (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
  4. (D) all of the above
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

DPN is a direct-write AFM-tip method; ink molecules diffuse to the surface through a water meniscus and many materials can be patterned. It is a serial, slow process – so (iv) is wrong.

Q 8 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
The primary objective of Global One-Stop Centres (OSCs) established by Ministry of external affairs is
  1. (A) Promote student and faculty exchange programme
  2. (B) Facilitate research and development among Higher Education Institutions
  3. (C) Provide comprehensive assistance to women in vulnerable situations
  4. (D) Support Indian students studying abroad during crisis
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Provide comprehensive assistance to women in vulnerable situations

In 2024 the Government approved 9 One Stop Centres in Indian Missions abroad (Gulf countries, Singapore, Toronto etc.) to give counselling, legal, medical and shelter help to Indian women in distress.

Q 9 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Arranging chronological order/event type Arrange the following poverty alleviation programmes in chronological order (1) Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (2) Swarnajayanthi Gram Swarozgar Yojana (3) Integrated Rural Development Project (4) Food for Work Program
  1. (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
  2. (B) (4), (3), (2), (1)
  3. (C) (2), (4), (3), (1)
  4. (D) (3), (4), (1), (2)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Food for Work 1977 → IRDP 1978-79 (nationwide 1980) → SGSY 1 April 1999 → SGRY 25 September 2001.

Q 10 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Assertion [A] : The lack of alternate employment, skill training (or) credit facilities for women, is another factor that keeps them in poverty. Reason [R] : Poverty is increasingly becoming a feminine identity.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false but [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not correct explanation of [A]

Both are true (feminisation of poverty), but lack of jobs, skills and credit is a cause of women's poverty; 'poverty becoming feminine' does not explain it.

Q 11 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Article ________ of the Indian Constitution Prohibits the employment of children in Factories, Mines, or any other hazardous occupation.
  1. (A) 21 A
  2. (B) 24
  3. (C) 17
  4. (D) 39
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 24

Article 24: no child below 14 years shall be employed in any factory, mine or other hazardous employment.

Q 12 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match the schemes with years. (a) Neengal Nalama – 1. 2000 (b) Manu Needhi – 2. 2021 (c) Kural Mutrodhal – 3. 2024 (d) Illam Thedi Kalvi – 4. 1969
  1. (A) 2 3 4 1
  2. (B) 1 2 3 4
  3. (C) 3 4 1 2
  4. (D) 4 1 2 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2

Neengal Nalama – launched March 2024; Manu Needhi scheme – 1969; Kural Mutrodhal prize scheme – 2000; Illam Thedi Kalvi – 2021 (post-COVID learning recovery).

Q 13 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Tamil Nadu skill development corporations established a new platform by using AI Technology to guide the youth's employment and skill training is called as
  1. (A) 'Inaya'
  2. (B) 'Ilaya'
  3. (C) 'Naan Mudhalvan'
  4. (D) 'You are your own king' Scheme
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 'Ilaya'

'Ilaya' is TNSDC's AI-powered WhatsApp chatbot (built with Gupshup) that guides job seekers to jobs and skill training.

Q 14 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
________ state has the highest percentage of unemployment during the year 2022-23.
  1. (A) Kerala
  2. (B) Haryana
  3. (C) Punjab
  4. (D) Tamil Nadu
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Kerala

PLFS 2022-23 (usual status, 15+): Kerala about 7.0% – higher than Haryana and Punjab (about 6.1%) and Tamil Nadu (about 4.3%).

Q 15 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
The Total Gross Enrollment Ratio of Tamil Nadu in higher education during 2021-2022 was ________.
  1. (A) 45 percent
  2. (B) 46 percent
  3. (C) 47 percent
  4. (D) 48 percent
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 47 percent

AISHE 2021-22: Tamil Nadu's GER (18–23 years) in higher education was 47.0%, against the national 28.4%.

Q 16 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following credit schemes for Farmers Producers Organisations (FPOs) is incorrectly paired? (i) Credit guarantee scheme – Direct cash grants (ii) Mezzanine capital assistance – Non repayable credit (iii) Revolving fund support – Concessional credit (iv) Nabkisan – Initiates credit schemes with T.N.
  1. (A) (i) and (iv)
  2. (B) (i) and (ii)
  3. (C) (iii) and (iv)
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i) and (ii)

A credit guarantee scheme gives collateral-free guarantee cover to lenders, not cash grants; mezzanine capital is a repayable soft loan, not a non-repayable credit. Revolving fund (concessional credit) and NABKISAN (credit schemes with TN Govt) are correct.

Q 17 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following statements are True about features of Tamil Nadu Economy? (i) Tamil Nadu has 7th highest GSDP per capita (ii) Tamil Nadu has low industries and small service sectors (iii) Tamil Nadu is second largest economy among the states in India
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (ii) only
  3. (C) (iii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (iii) only

Tamil Nadu is India's second-largest state economy (after Maharashtra) with a large industrial and service base, so (ii) is false. No option pairs (i) with (iii), so (iii) only is the answer.

Q 18 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Match the following climate conferences with respective themes. (a) Kyoto protocol – 1. Limit global temperature rise (b) Rio Earth summit – 2. Protecting Ozone layer (c) Paris Agreement – 3. Global Framework for sustainable development (d) Montreal protocol – 4. Commitment to reduce emissions
  1. (A) 2 3 1 4
  2. (B) 4 2 3 1
  3. (C) 4 3 1 2
  4. (D) 2 1 4 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 4 3 1 2

Kyoto (1997) – binding emission-reduction commitments; Rio Earth Summit (1992) – Agenda 21, sustainable development framework; Paris (2015) – keep warming well below 2°C; Montreal (1987) – protect the ozone layer.

Q 19 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Assertion [A] : COP28 marked a significant milestone in global climate action by explicitly calling for a transition away from fossil fuels. Reason [R] : The Global stocktake, a key component of the Paris Agreement, highlighted the urgent need to accelerate climate action.
  1. (A) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is true, but [R] is false
  4. (D) [A] is false, but [R] is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Both [A] and [R] are true, and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

The first Global Stocktake concluded at COP28 (Dubai, 2023) found the world off-track; its decision (1/CMA.5) is the text that calls for 'transitioning away from fossil fuels'.

Q 20 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
The threatened species found in the Agasthiayamalai Biosphere Reserve are (i) Lion-tailed macaque, slender loris and great pied hornbill (ii) Rudraksh tree, black plums, wild dahman and gaub tree (iii) Slender loris, lion-tailed macaque, black plums rudraksh tree and green pit viper
  1. (A) (i) and (ii) only
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (iii) and (i) only
  4. (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (i) and (ii) only

Threatened fauna of Agasthyamalai BR: lion-tailed macaque, slender loris, great pied hornbill; threatened flora: rudraksha, black plum, wild dhaman, gaub. List (iii) adds green pit viper, not in the threatened list.

Q 21 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Consider the following statements. (a) Forests regulate floods and droughts (b) Almost 10% of tropical forests are lost each year (c) Nearly 47% of forests Worldwide are tropical forests (d) 45% of the World's forest are under protected areas The correct statements are :
  1. (A) (b) and (c)
  2. (B) (a), (b) and (c)
  3. (C) (a) and (c)
  4. (D) (c) and (d)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (a) and (c)

Forests regulate water flow (floods/droughts) and nearly half (about 45–47%) of the world's forests are tropical. Annual tropical forest loss is well under 1% (not 10%), and only about 18% of forests lie in protected areas (not 45%).

Q 22 · Unit III – Science & Technology
________ satellite was sent by ISRO on 1st January 2024 to study cosmic X rays.
  1. (A) ASTROSAT
  2. (B) Aditya - 1
  3. (C) Chandrayan – 1
  4. (D) Xposat
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Xposat

XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) was launched by PSLV-C58 on 1 January 2024 – India's first satellite to study polarisation of cosmic X-rays.

Q 23 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Central salt and marine chemicals Research Institute is located at
  1. (A) Cochin
  2. (B) Chennai
  3. (C) Bhavnagar
  4. (D) Narimanam
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Bhavnagar

CSIR-Central Salt and Marine Chemicals Research Institute (CSMCRI) is at Bhavnagar, Gujarat.

Q 24 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Clean Air Act was passed in the year ________.
  1. (A) 1970
  2. (B) 1972
  3. (C) 1969
  4. (D) 1980
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 1970

The landmark US Clean Air Act was enacted in 1970 (it created national air-quality standards; US EPA set up the same year).

Q 25 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Match the following Bird Sancturies with their districts : Bird Sancturies – Districts (a) Vettangudi – 1. Sivagangai (b) Mayura Thottam – 2. Ariyalur (c) Vellode – 3. Thoothukudi (d) Karaivetti – 4. Erode
  1. (A) 4 3 2 1
  2. (B) 1 2 3 4
  3. (C) 1 3 4 2
  4. (D) 3 2 1 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 1 3 4 2

Vettangudi – Sivagangai; Vellode – Erode; Karaivetti – Ariyalur; so Mayura Thottam goes with Thoothukudi. Only option C fits.

Q 26 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Arrange the following periods in order : (1) Prehistoric period (2) Chola's period (3) Sangam period (4) Pallava's period
  1. (A) (1), (4), (3), (2)
  2. (B) (2), (4), (1), (3)
  3. (C) (1), (3), (4), (2)
  4. (D) (2), (3), (4), (1)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (1), (3), (4), (2)

Prehistoric → Sangam age (c. 3rd c. BCE–3rd c. CE) → Pallavas (c. 6th–9th c. CE) → Imperial Cholas (9th–13th c. CE).

Q 27 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Assertion [A] : V.O.C charged with sedition, was sentenced to forty years of imprisonment. Reason [R] : He attended Surat Congress session and followed Tilak and preached his philosophy.
  1. (A) [A] is true, [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
  4. (D) [A] is false, [R] is true
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

In 1908 V.O.C. was convicted of sedition and given two life terms (40 years, later reduced). He did attend the 1907 Surat session as a Tilak follower, but the sedition case arose from his speeches during the Tirunelveli/Coral Mill agitation – so [R] is not the explanation.

Q 28 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar setup school for girls at
  1. (A) Bombay
  2. (B) Surat
  3. (C) Lahore
  4. (D) Calcutta
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Calcutta

Vidyasagar helped J.E.D. Bethune found the girls' school in Calcutta (1849) and opened about 35 girls' schools in Bengal.

Q 29 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
What have to be realized if you want to overcome the ignorance and feel healthy?
  1. (A) Be aware and believe on the immaculate truth
  2. (B) Duty concious
  3. (C) Karmic Action
  4. (D) Medicinal knowledge
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Be aware and believe on the immaculate truth

Thirukkural 352 (Meyyunarthal): 'இருள்நீங்கி இன்பம் பயக்கும் மருள்நீங்கி மாசறு காட்சி யவர்க்கு' – darkness leaves and bliss comes to those who, free from delusion, see the pure truth.

Q 30 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Match the following : (a) Justice Party – 1. 1949 (b) D.M.K. – 2. 1944 (c) Dravida Kazhagam – 3. 1916 (d) Self Respect Movement – 4. 1925
  1. (A) 4 1 3 2
  2. (B) 2 4 1 3
  3. (C) 3 1 2 4
  4. (D) 3 1 4 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 3 1 2 4

Justice Party (SILF) 1916; Self-Respect Movement 1925; Dravidar Kazhagam 1944 (Salem conference); DMK 1949 (C.N. Annadurai).

Q 31 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
The first state level meet of self respect movement was conducted at which place?
  1. (A) Chengalpet
  2. (B) Madurai
  3. (C) Chennai
  4. (D) Kovai
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Chengalpet

The First Provincial Self-Respect Conference was held at Chengalpattu in February 1929 (presided by W.P.A. Soundarapandian).

Q 32 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which one of the following statements is/are wrong regarding Edward Clive, the Governor of Madras Presidency?
  1. (A) He usurped the regime of Nawab of Arcot
  2. (B) He abolished the poligar system
  3. (C) During his tenure, the supreme court of judicature in madras was founded
  4. (D) He did not show interest in the letter of Veera Pandya Kattabomman stating the insult inflicted on him by Collector Jackson
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) He did not show interest in the letter of Veera Pandya Kattabomman stating the insult inflicted on him by Collector Jackson

Edward Clive (1798–1803) took over the Carnatic (1801), ended the poligar system and saw the Supreme Court of Madras set up (1801). He did act on Kattabomman's complaint – an inquiry was ordered and Collector Jackson was removed – so D is wrong.

Q 33 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Choose the right matches. (1) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee – Anandmath (2) Lord Minto – Madras (3) Swadeshi – VOC (4) Lala Lajpat Rai – The National Council of Education
  1. (A) (1) and (3) correct
  2. (B) (1) and (2) correct
  3. (C) (1) and (4) correct
  4. (D) (4) and (3) correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (1) and (3) correct

Bankim Chandra wrote Anandamath; V.O.C. founded the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (1906). Minto was Viceroy (not of Madras), and the National Council of Education (1906) was formed in Bengal (Satish Mukherjee, Aurobindo), not by Lajpat Rai.

Q 34 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Match the following : (a) Madras Medical School – 1. 1837 (b) Madras Presidency College – 2. 1835 (c) Madras Christian College – 3. 1842 (d) Pachayappas College – 4. 1840
  1. (A) 2 1 4 3
  2. (B) 2 4 1 3
  3. (C) 2 4 3 1
  4. (D) 4 3 2 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3

Madras Medical School 1835; Presidency College began as the Madras Preparatory School in 1840; MCC began as Anderson's General Assembly School in 1837; Pachaiyappa's institution opened in 1842.

Q 35 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Who among the following was appointed as the Zamindar of Ramnad by East India Company in the place of Muthu Ramalinga Sethupathi?
  1. (A) Mangaleswari Nachiyar
  2. (B) Maruthu Pandiyar
  3. (C) Raja Udaiyappa Sethupathi
  4. (D) Raghunatha Sethupathi II
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Mangaleswari Nachiyar

After deposing Muthuramalinga Sethupathi (1795), the Company made his sister Mangaleswari Nachiyar the Zamindar of Ramnad (1803) under the permanent settlement.

Q 36 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Read the following Assertion and Reason and choose the correct answer from the code given below. Assertion [A] : Anwar–ud–Din, the Nawab of Carnatic sent an army to fight against the French in 1746. Reason [R] : Dupleix, the French Governor, failed to keep the promise of surrendering Madras to Nawab after its recapture. Code :
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false but [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

In the First Carnatic War the French captured Madras (1746); Dupleix had promised to hand it to the Nawab but did not, so Anwar-ud-din sent an army, which the French defeated at Adyar (St Thome).

Q 37 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match the constitutional amendments to their corresponding acts correctly. Amendment – Subject matter (a) 91st Amendment Act – 1. The council of Ministers must contain no more than 15% of the Lok Sabha members, including the Prime Minister (b) 102nd Amendment Act – 2. Women are given one-third of all seats in the Lok Sabha (c) 105th Amendment Act – 3. It grants constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward classes (d) 106th Amendment Act – 4. The state government is empowered again to identify and specify socially and economically backward classes
  1. (A) 1 4 2 3
  2. (B) 2 1 3 4
  3. (C) 4 1 3 2
  4. (D) 1 3 4 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 1 3 4 2

91st (2003) – ministry size capped at 15%; 102nd (2018) – constitutional status to NCBC (Art. 338B); 105th (2021) – restored states' power to list SEBCs; 106th (2023) – one-third seats for women in Lok Sabha/Assemblies.

Q 38 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following statements is true about World Tamil Diaspora Day? (i) The Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu declared January 12 as World Tamil Diaspora Day (ii) The Diaspora Tamils conference was successfully held, with the theme of 'we will win' (iii) Rs. 5 crore has been sanctioned for the establishment of Tamil Parapurai Kazhagam to teach Tamil to Tamils living in foreign countries.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (i) only

The TN Chief Minister declared 12 January as World Tamil Diaspora Day (i). The 2024 meet's theme was 'Tamil Vellum' (Tamil will win), not 'we will win' (ii); the Rs 5 crore claim in (iii) is not supported.

Q 39 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following is correctly paired? (1) Manjusha Kanwar – Badminton (2) Vineet Kumar Sharma – Chess (3) Kavitha Selvaraj – Kabaddi (4) R. Vaishali – Hockey
  1. (A) (2) and (4) are correct
  2. (B) (1) and (3) are correct
  3. (C) (3) and (4) are correct
  4. (D) (1) and (2) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (1) and (3) are correct

National Sports Awards 2023 – Dhyan Chand Award (lifetime): Manjusha Kanwar (badminton), Vineet Kumar Sharma (hockey), Kavitha Selvaraj (kabaddi). R. Vaishali (Arjuna 2023) is a chess Grandmaster.

Q 40 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Match the following : Schemes – Beneficiaries (a) Naan Mudalvan – 1. Public Grievances gets resolved (b) Pudumai pen – 2. Women Empowerment (c) Vidiyal Payanam – 3. Education Assistance for Girl Students (d) Makkaludan Mudhalvar – 4. Skill Development
  1. (A) 3 4 1 2
  2. (B) 4 3 2 1
  3. (C) 1 2 3 4
  4. (D) 4 1 2 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

Naan Mudhalvan – skill development of students; Pudhumai Penn – Rs 1,000/month for girl students in higher education; Vidiyal Payanam – free bus travel for women; Makkaludan Mudhalvar – camps to resolve public grievances.

Q 41 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Find out the correct statements about the functions of District Collector. (i) He handles work pertaining to civil defence (ii) He supervises the Municipal Administration in the District (iii) He presides over the District plan Implementation Committee
  1. (A) (i) and (ii) only
  2. (B) (ii) only
  3. (C) (ii) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

As head of district administration the Collector handles civil defence, supervises municipal (urban local body) administration and chairs the district plan implementation committee – all three are correct.

Q 42 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Select the "odd one" out. Consider the statements below regarding the advantages of State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu (SIPCOT) Limited.
  1. (A) It creates and maintains well-designed industrial parks
  2. (B) It facilitates the acquisition of land for industrial purposes for business
  3. (C) It serves as a single point contact for investors
  4. (D) It provides a range of loans and free electricity
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) It provides a range of loans and free electricity

SIPCOT develops and maintains industrial parks, acquires land for industry and acts as a single point of contact for investors; it does not give free electricity.

Q 43 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Assertion [A] : The Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu has ordered Rs. 5 Crore to translate all works of Dr.B.R. Ambedkar. Reason [R] : The translation works of Dr.B.R. Ambedkar into Tamil will be carried out by the Information Technology and Digital Service Department.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false, [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) [A] is true but [R] is false

The CM ordered Rs 5 crore for translating Ambedkar's works into Tamil (2022), but the work is not given to the IT & Digital Services Department, so [R] is false.

Q 44 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
The power of the municipality to suspend (or) abolish tax is conferred by
  1. (A) Section – 110
  2. (B) Section – 111
  3. (C) Section – 112
  4. (D) Section – 113
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Section – 112

Section 112 is headed 'Power of Municipality to suspend or abolish tax' (Rajasthan Municipalities Act, 2009, the Act whose numbering fits the options).

Source not fully confirmed – check against the TNPSC final key.
Q 45 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Assertion [A] : A secretary should be immersed in files and burdened with routine Reason [R] : It is essential that he should have time to grasp the overall picture, size up the problems facing the Government
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false, [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) [A] is false, [R] is true

A Secretary is a policy adviser and should NOT be buried in files and routine; he must have time to see the overall picture and size up the Government's problems. So [A] is false, [R] is true.

Q 46 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Arrange the following committees in chronological order. (1) G.V.K. Rao committee (2) Ashok mehta committee (3) Balwantrai Mehta committee (4) L.M. Singhvi committee
  1. (A) (2), (3), (1), (4)
  2. (B) (3), (2), (1), (4)
  3. (C) (4), (3), (1), (2)
  4. (D) (1), (4), (2), (3)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Balwantrai Mehta 1957 → Ashok Mehta 1977 → G.V.K. Rao 1985 → L.M. Singhvi 1986 (committees on Panchayati Raj).

Q 47 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the correct answer : Which of the following statements are true about the Council of Minister's in State? (i) The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the State Legislative Assembly (ii) The Governor shall administer the oath of office and secrecy to a Minister (iii) The salaries and allowances of State Ministers shall be determined by the Union Legislature
  1. (A) (i) only correct
  2. (B) (i) and (ii) only correct
  3. (C) (ii) and (iii) only correct
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (i) and (ii) only correct

Art. 164(2): collective responsibility to the Legislative Assembly; Art. 164(3): Governor administers oaths; Art. 164(5): salaries of State Ministers are fixed by the State Legislature, not Parliament.

Q 48 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Consider the following statements about the composition of the House of the people.
  1. (A) It shall be composed of not more than 20 representatives from the Union Territories
  2. (B) It shall be composed of not more than 2 members of the Anglo-Indian community, nominated by the Prime Minister
  3. (C) It shall be composed of not more than 552 representatives of the state
  4. (D) The President shall nominate 12 people having special knowledge in Literature, Science, Art and Social Science.
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) It shall be composed of not more than 20 representatives from the Union Territories

Art. 81: Lok Sabha has not more than 530 members from States and not more than 20 from UTs. Anglo-Indian nomination (by the President, not PM) ended in 2020 (104th Amendment); 552 is the overall maximum; 12 nominations is for the Rajya Sabha.

Q 49 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list. List – I (Writs) – List – II (Literal Meaning) (a) Habeas Corpus – 1. By what authority (b) Mandamus – 2. To be certified (c) Certiorari – 3. We command (d) Quo Warranto – 4. To have the body of
  1. (A) 4 3 2 1
  2. (B) 2 4 1 3
  3. (C) 3 4 1 2
  4. (D) 1 4 3 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Habeas Corpus – 'to have the body of'; Mandamus – 'we command'; Certiorari – 'to be certified'; Quo Warranto – 'by what authority'.

Q 50 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following statements are true? (i) Parliament is empowered to constitute a High Court for any Union Territory. (ii) Of all the Union Territories, Delhi does not have a separate High Court of its own. (iii) Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram became fullfledged states in 1987.
  1. (A) (ii) and (iii) only
  2. (B) (ii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i) and (iii) only

Art. 241 lets Parliament constitute a High Court for a UT; Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram became States on 20 February 1987. Delhi is the UT that does have its own High Court (since 1966) – so (ii) is false.

Q 51 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
In which of the following cases did the supreme court hold that "The preamble is an integral part of the Indian Constitution"?
  1. (A) Shankari Prasad case (1951)
  2. (B) LIC of India case (1995)
  3. (C) Indira Nehru Gandhi case (1975)
  4. (D) Maneka Gandhi case (1978)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) LIC of India case (1995)

In LIC of India v. Consumer Education & Research Centre (1995) the Supreme Court reiterated that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution (after Kesavananda Bharati, 1973).

Q 52 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Arrange the following events of PCR in the correct order of occurrence 1. Annealing 2. Extension 3. Denaturation 4. Gel making
  1. (A) 3, 4, 2, 1
  2. (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
  3. (C) 2, 1, 3, 4
  4. (D) 3, 1, 2, 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 3, 1, 2, 4

A PCR cycle runs denaturation (~94°C) → annealing of primers (~55°C) → extension by Taq polymerase (~72°C); the product is then checked by gel electrophoresis.

Q 53 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Why was the My Scheme Platform introduced by the Government of India?
  1. (A) To provide online shopping for government products
  2. (B) To allow users to discover eligible government schemes based on their demography
  3. (C) To give citizens free access to educational resources
  4. (D) To help people apply for government jobs across the country
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) To allow users to discover eligible government schemes based on their demography

myScheme (MeitY/NeGD) is a national platform for one-stop search and discovery of government schemes for which a citizen is eligible, based on his/her profile.

Q 54 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Match the following : (a) Conjugate vaccine – 1. Polio (b) Toxoid vaccine – 2. Hepatitis-B (c) Killed vaccine – 3. Measles (d) Attenuated vaccine – 4. Diphtheria
  1. (A) 3 2 4 1
  2. (B) 2 4 1 3
  3. (C) 4 3 2 1
  4. (D) 1 3 4 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3

Diphtheria vaccine is a toxoid, inactivated (Salk) polio vaccine is a killed vaccine and measles vaccine is live attenuated; only option B fits, leaving Hepatitis-B for 'conjugate'.

Q 55 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Which plant was recently genetically engineered to help combat climate change by absorbing more CO₂?
  1. (A) Rice
  2. (B) Soya bean
  3. (C) Pine Tree
  4. (D) Corn
Answer & explanation

Answer: More than one option is correct: (A), (C)

Both are documented: rice engineered to take up more CO2 (OSA1 rice, Nagoya/Nanjing 2021; EPSPS-overexpressing rice, Biology 2023), and Living Carbon's loblolly pine/poplar engineered to capture more CO2.

Q 56 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Grape cell cultures are rich in
  1. (A) Anthoxanthin
  2. (B) Anthocyanin
  3. (C) Pyrethrin
  4. (D) Taxol
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Anthocyanin

Grape (Vitis vinifera) cell suspension cultures are a classic system for producing anthocyanin pigments.

Q 57 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Assertion [A] : Acid rain means the presence of acids in rain water. Reason [R] : Atmosphere contains oxides of nitrogen and sulphur produced by combustion of fuels.
  1. (A) [A] is true [R] is false
  2. (B) [A] is false [R] is true
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are false
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correct explanation of [A]

SO₂ and NOₓ from burning fuels dissolve in rain water to form sulphuric and nitric acids, making the rain acidic (pH below 5.6).

Q 58 · Unit III – Science & Technology
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (i) Silicone rubber – inert to body fluids (ii) Plasticizer – make plastics brittle (iii) Laminate – blend of adhesive and adherend (iv) Filler – improve mechanical properties
  1. (A) (i) and (iv) only
  2. (B) (ii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (iii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iv) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (ii) only

A plasticizer is added to make plastics soft and flexible (e.g. phthalates in PVC), not brittle; the other three pairs are correct.

Q 59 · Unit III – Science & Technology
What is the theme of "World Space Week 2024", celebrated from October 4th to 10th 2024?
  1. (A) Space and climate change
  2. (B) Space and energy sustainability
  3. (C) Women in space
  4. (D) The moon : Gateway to the stars
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Space and climate change

The World Space Week Association set 'Space & Climate Change' as the theme for World Space Week 2024 (4–10 October).

Q 60 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which of the following are incorrectly paired? (1) 2016 – The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act (2) 1992 – National Trust Act (3) 2013 – National Food Security Act (4) 1999 – Rehabilitation Council Act
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are incorrect
  2. (B) (1) and (4) are incorrect
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are incorrect
  4. (D) (2) and (4) are incorrect
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (2) and (4) are incorrect

The National Trust Act was passed in 1999 and the Rehabilitation Council of India Act in 1992 – the years in (2) and (4) are swapped; RPwD Act 2016 and NFSA 2013 are correct.

Q 61 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Under POCSO Act 2012, any person who fails to report an offence to the police shall be punishable with which of the following?
  1. (A) imprisonment upto six months
  2. (B) imprisonment upto one year and with fine
  3. (C) imprisonment upto six months or fine or both
  4. (D) imprisonment upto three months
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) imprisonment upto six months or fine or both

Section 21(1) of the POCSO Act, 2012: failure to report or record an offence is punishable with imprisonment up to six months, or fine, or both.

Q 62 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
In which year the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed?
  1. (A) 1989
  2. (B) 1987
  3. (C) 1986
  4. (D) 1985
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 1989

The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is Act No. 33 of 1989 (in force from 30 January 1990).

Q 63 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Assertion [A] : Modern education played a crucial role in smashing the chains of social oppression. Reason [R] : Lack of education among marginalized groups restricted them to do low occupations.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false but [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

Denial of education had confined marginalized groups to low-paid hereditary occupations; modern education opened jobs and mobility, so it helped break social oppression – R explains A.

Q 64 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Choose the right matches among types (1) PMSSY – Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (Prime Minister Health Protection Programme) (2) NTEP – National Tobacco Elimination Programme (3) NVBDCP – National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (4) JSSK – Janani Shiksha Suraksha Karyakram (Mother Education Protection Programme)
  1. (A) (2) and (3) are correct
  2. (B) (3) and (4) are correct
  3. (C) (1) and (3) are correct
  4. (D) (1) and (2) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (1) and (3) are correct

NTEP is the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme and JSSK is Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (free care for mother and sick newborn); PMSSY and NVBDCP are correct.

Q 65 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
With reference to 'Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme'; consider the following statements. (1) This scheme has been started by the Tamil Nadu (2) It will be implemented in all Primary Schools in the State (3) This scheme is a Pioneer Scheme in India and model for others to emulate Select the correct answer using the code given below :
  1. (A) (1) and (2) only
  2. (B) (2) and (3) only
  3. (C) (1) and (3) only
  4. (D) (1), (2) and (3)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (1) and (3) only

TN launched the scheme (15-09-2022) and it is a pioneer scheme copied by other States. It covers government (and later aided) primary schools only, not 'all primary schools', so (2) is false.

Q 66 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
What is/are the primary role/s of the Chief Minister Dashboard in Tamil Nadu? (i) To provide tourism statistics (ii) To monitor government department performance (iii) To manage health care services
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (ii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (ii) only

The CM Dashboard is a real-time monitoring tool that tracks key performance indicators of government departments and schemes; it does not itself run tourism statistics or health services.

Q 67 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Assertion [A] : The Demographic transition varies between Districts. Reason [R] : The districts of high economic growth attract larger population.
  1. (A) [A] is true [R] is false
  2. (B) [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation for [A]
  3. (C) Both [A] and [R] are false
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correctly explaining [A]
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is correctly explaining [A]

Population change differs across districts because economically fast-growing districts (Chennai, Coimbatore, Tiruppur) attract migrants.

Q 68 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Which is/are the feature/s of Tamil Nadu Agriculture Budget schemes 2022-23 is true? (1) The Chief Minister's dry land development mission targets irrigation dependent crops (2) The integrated farming system promotes crop cultivation with livestock rearing (3) Traditional paddy varieties are preserved under Nel Jayaram Mission
  1. (A) (1) only
  2. (B) (1) and (2) only
  3. (C) (2) and (3) only
  4. (D) (1) and (3) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (2) and (3) only

The CM's Dryland Development Mission is for rainfed (non-irrigated) lands, so (1) is wrong; integrated farming combines crops with livestock, and the Nel Jayaraman Mission conserves traditional paddy varieties.

Q 69 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Tamil Nadu's GSDP growth rates were 8.13% in 2022-23 and ________% in 2023-24 at constant prices.
  1. (A) 8.18%
  2. (B) 8.23%
  3. (C) 8.28%
  4. (D) 8.33%
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 8.23%

As per the TN Government press release (21-10-2024) based on MoSPI estimates, real GSDP grew 8.13% in 2022-23 and 8.23% in 2023-24.

Q 70 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Which of the following is correctly paired? (1) SDMA – State Disaster Management Action (2) SFDRR – Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction (3) SDMP – State Disaster Management Project (4) NEOC – National Emergency Operation Committee
  1. (A) (1) and (2) are correct
  2. (B) (2) and (4) are correct
  3. (C) (3) and (4) are correct
  4. (D) (1) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: None of the options is fully correct (closest: (A))

Only (2) is right: SDMA = State Disaster Management Authority, SDMP = State Disaster Management Plan, NEOC = National Emergency Operations Centre. No option has (2) alone.

TNPSC placed this question before its Expert Committee for a final decision.
Q 71 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Name one of the cyclones which wrecked havoc in Tamil Nadu and Kerala in the month of November to December 2017.
  1. (A) Vardah
  2. (B) Ockhi
  3. (C) Nisha
  4. (D) Maarutha
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Ockhi

Cyclone Ockhi (29 Nov – 6 Dec 2017) devastated Kanniyakumari district and coastal Kerala, causing heavy loss of fishermen's lives.

Q 72 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
The title of the Brundtland report is
  1. (A) Caring for earth
  2. (B) Caring and sharing
  3. (C) Our common future
  4. (D) Environment - friendly Resource Consumption
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Our common future

The 1987 report of the World Commission on Environment and Development (chaired by Gro Harlem Brundtland) is titled 'Our Common Future'; it defined sustainable development.

Q 73 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using answer codes : (a) Bioassay organism – 1. Vespula germanica (b) Accumulator species – 2. Palm tree (c) Keystone species – 3. Woodlice (d) Exotic species – 4. Trout
  1. (A) 2 4 1 3
  2. (B) 3 1 4 2
  3. (C) 4 3 2 1
  4. (D) 3 2 4 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 4 3 2 1

Trout are standard bioassay (toxicity-test) fish, woodlice accumulate heavy metals, palms act as keystone food sources, and the German wasp Vespula germanica is an invasive exotic species.

Q 74 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Consider the following points about a biosphere reserve? (a) It is the largest continuous mangrove area (b) Tropical semi-evergreen forests (c) Agrosystems, silviculture, pisciculture and prawn culture (d) The largest mangal diversity in the world its core area has been designated as a world heritage site. This biosphere reserve is :
  1. (A) Shankou mangrove biosphere reserve
  2. (B) Can Gio mangrove biosphere reserve
  3. (C) Gulf of mannar biosphere reserve
  4. (D) Sunderbans mangrove biosphere reserve
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Sunderbans mangrove biosphere reserve

The Sundarbans is the largest contiguous mangrove forest with the richest mangrove (mangal) diversity; its core (Sundarbans National Park) is a UNESCO World Heritage Site (1987).

Q 75 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
The work of laying Optical Fibre Cables (OFC) was initiated at ________ village of Kanyakumari District.
  1. (A) Chinnamuttom
  2. (B) Kodimunai
  3. (C) Neyyoor
  4. (D) Muthalakurichi
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Muthalakurichi

On 9 June 2022 the Chief Minister inaugurated the BharatNet (TANFINET) optical-fibre laying work at Muthalakurichi village, Thuckalay block, Kanyakumari district.

Q 76 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? Rivers – Tributaries (1) Cauvery – Amaravathi (2) Thamirabharani – Pampar (3) Vaigai – Pechiyar (4) Vellar – Manjalar
  1. (A) (1) and (3)
  2. (B) (1) and (2)
  3. (C) (3) and (2)
  4. (D) (3) and (4)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (3) and (4)

Amaravathi joins the Cauvery and Pambar is a headwater tributary of the Thamirabharani; Manjalar is a tributary of the Vaigai (not Vellar) and Pechiyar is not a Vaigai tributary, so (3) and (4) are wrong.

Q 77 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which of the following is incorrectly paired? (1) Hindu Religious Endowment Act – 1925 (2) The Madras State Aid to Industries Act – 1923 (3) Annamalai University established – 1929 (4) E.V. Ramaswami launch the Self Respect Movement – 1930
  1. (A) (2) and (4) are not correct
  2. (B) (2) and (3) are not correct
  3. (C) (3) and (4) are not correct
  4. (D) (1) and (4) are not correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (2) and (4) are not correct

The Madras State Aid to Industries Act was passed in 1922 (Act V of 1923) and Periyar launched the Self-Respect Movement in 1925. The HRE Act (1925) and Annamalai University (1929) are correct.

Q 78 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Choose the pillars that support the Hall of Testimony (Saandranmai Mandabam) : (i) Love, Shy (ii) Delay, Tiff (iii) Dignity, Sky (iv) Compromise, Truth, Overview
  1. (A) (ii), (iv) are right
  2. (B) (i), (iii), (iv) are right
  3. (C) (i), (iv) are right
  4. (D) (iii), (iv) are right
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i), (iv) are right

Thirukkural 983: 'அன்புநாண் ஒப்புரவு கண்ணோட்டம் வாய்மையொடு ஐந்துசால் ஊன்றிய தூண்' – love, modesty, beneficence, kindness and truthfulness are the five pillars of perfect virtue.

Q 79 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Consider the following and find out the correct statement/statements. (a) Evidence of a planned town, warehouse and ring wells are found in Arikkamedu (b) The Cheras ruled over Kauveri delta and their capital was uraiyur (c) The Chola emblem was the tiger and they issued square copper coins with images of a tiger (d) The Sangam Age has its roots in the Bronze Age
  1. (A) (a) is correct
  2. (B) (b) is correct
  3. (C) (a) and (c) is correct
  4. (D) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (a) and (c) is correct

Arikamedu shows a planned settlement with warehouse and ring wells, and the early Cholas (tiger emblem) issued square copper coins with a tiger; the Kaveri delta/Uraiyur belonged to the Cholas, not the Cheras, and the Sangam Age has its roots in the Iron Age.

Q 80 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
The effects of Independent Tamil Movement : (1) Tamil Language can maintain its traditional integrity without the loan words from English and Sanskrit (2) Reclaiming chaste Tamil's glory that was a pride of the Sangam Period (3) Actively opposing the Hindi language (4) Avoid Hindi and accept only the English words
  1. (A) (1) and (2) correct
  2. (B) (1) and (3) correct
  3. (C) (2) and (4) correct
  4. (D) (2) and (3) correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (1) and (2) correct

The Pure (Thani) Tamil Movement of Maraimalai Adigal (1916) showed Tamil can function without Sanskrit/English loan words and sought to restore the chaste Tamil of the Sangam age; it was not merely anti-Hindi or pro-English.

Q 81 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (1) Meetings of the Justice Party held in English only (2) Meetings of the Indian National Congress held in Tamil also in order to attract common people (3) Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy was elected as Deputy Speaker of Legislature in 1927
  1. (A) (1) only correct
  2. (B) (2) only correct
  3. (C) (1) and (2) are correct
  4. (D) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (1), (2) and (3) are correct

Justice Party meetings were conducted in English, while Congress also used Tamil to reach the masses. Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy became Deputy President of the Madras Legislative Council in 1927.

Q 82 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Who among the following was the collector of Tanjore when Satyagrahis marched towards Tanjore, against salt law?
  1. (A) K. Santanam
  2. (B) A.J. Rajan
  3. (C) G. Ramachandran
  4. (D) Selvi Durgabai
Answer & explanation

Answer: None of the options is fully correct (closest: (B))

During the Vedaranyam salt march (April 1930) the Collector of Tanjore was J.A. Thorne, who is not among the options. Santanam, G. Ramachandran and Durgabai were nationalists.

Q 83 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
When Madras Mahajana Sabha was started?
  1. (A) May 17, 1884
  2. (B) May 26, 1884
  3. (C) May 16, 1884
  4. (D) May 6, 1884
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) May 16, 1884

The Madras Mahajana Sabha was founded on 16 May 1884 by M. Viraraghavachari, G. Subramania Iyer, P. Ananda Charlu and others, with P. Rangaiah Naidu as first president.

Q 84 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Arrange the following Tamil Scholars in chronological order : (1) Mayooram Vedanayagam Pillai (2) Vedanayagam Sastriar (3) Thanjavur Abraham Pandithar (4) H.A. Krishnapillai
  1. (A) (1), (2), (4), (3)
  2. (B) (2), (1), (3), (4)
  3. (C) (2), (1), (4), (3)
  4. (D) (3), (4), (2), (1)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (2), (1), (4), (3)

Vedanayagam Sastriar (b. 1774), Mayuram Vedanayagam Pillai (b. 1826), H.A. Krishna Pillai (b. 1827) and Abraham Pandithar (b. 1859) – order 2, 1, 4, 3.

Q 85 · Unit I – Modern History of TN, Tamil society
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Treaty of Bassein (1802)? (i) The Treaty of Bassein was signed between Peshwa Baji Rao II and the British. (ii) Peshwa agreed to cede in perpetuity to the company territories yielding an income of 26 lakhs rupees. (iii) Peshwa agreed to surrender the city of surat to companies.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

By the Treaty of Bassein (31 Dec 1802) Baji Rao II accepted subsidiary alliance, ceded territories yielding Rs 26 lakh a year and surrendered the city of Surat to the Company.

Q 86 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
V.N. Gadgil committee on policy and programmes was constituted in the year
  1. (A) 1978
  2. (B) 1980
  3. (C) 1982
  4. (D) 1988
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 1988

The Committee on Policy and Programmes headed by V.N. Gadgil was set up by the Congress party in 1988; its recommendations on constitutional status for Panchayati Raj led to the 64th Amendment Bill (1989).

Q 87 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the correct matches among the types. Organisation – Articles (1) Parliament – 124 to 147 (2) The Union Judiciary – 79 to 122 (3) Directive Principles of State Policy – 36 to 51 (4) Public Service Commission – 315 to 323
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are correct
  2. (B) (1) and (2) are correct
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are correct
  4. (D) (3) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (3) and (4) are correct

Parliament is Arts 79–122 and the Union Judiciary Arts 124–147 (swapped in the list); DPSP Arts 36–51 and Public Service Commissions Arts 315–323 are correct.

Q 88 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
People in Tamil Nadu Greets Chief Minister as "Thayumanavar" (Man who becomes Mother) for the introduction of the scheme.
  1. (A) Breakfast in schools
  2. (B) Vidiyal Payana Thittam
  3. (C) Neengal Nalama
  4. (D) Makaludan Mudalvar
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Breakfast in schools

Providing a mother's care of morning food to school children through the Chief Minister's Breakfast Scheme (2022) earned the CM the praise 'Thayumanavar' (one who became a mother).

Q 89 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Which of the following statements are true about Athikadavu – Avinashi project? (i) Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode Districts are the beneficiaries of this project. (ii) This project proposes to take 1.5 TMC of surplus water from the Kalingarayan anicut in Erode District. (iii) This project was implemented at a cost of 2456.41 crores and irrigate 28,464 acres of farmlands in these districts.
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (i) and (ii) only

The scheme (inaugurated 17-08-2024) lifts 1.5 TMC of Bhavani surplus water below Kalingarayan anicut to 1,045 tanks in Erode, Tiruppur and Coimbatore; it cost Rs 1,916.41 crore and benefits 24,468 acres, so (iii) is wrong.

Q 90 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
"Neengal Nalama" – is the scheme inaugurated by the Government of Tamil Nadu.
  1. (A) Intended to reduce the gap between the people and Government
  2. (B) It is made up of an instrument of e-governance
  3. (C) It focuses on ensuring that government initiatives reach the intended beneficiaries
  4. (D) All of these
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) All of these

'Neengal Nalama' (launched 06-03-2024) is an e-governance feedback programme in which the CM and officials directly contact beneficiaries to check that welfare schemes reach them and to bridge people and government.

Q 91 · Unit IV – TN economy & social issues
Consider the following statements about ELCOT and choose the correct answer: (i) ELCOT is registered under the Cooperative society Registration Act (ii) It is partially owned by the Government of Tamil Nadu (iii) It is the Nodal Agency for IT and infrastructure development for the Government of Tamil Nadu (iv) It was established in the year 1977
  1. (A) (iii) and (iv) only correct
  2. (B) (ii) and (iii) only correct
  3. (C) (i) and (iv) only correct
  4. (D) (i) and (ii) only correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (iii) and (iv) only correct

ELCOT (Electronics Corporation of Tamil Nadu Ltd) was set up in 1977 as a company wholly owned by the Government of Tamil Nadu under the Companies Act, and is the State's nodal agency for IT infrastructure.

Q 92 · Unit III – Science & Technology
iTNT Hub is located at
  1. (A) Anna University
  2. (B) Madras University
  3. (C) Vellore Institute of Technology
  4. (D) Madurai University
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Anna University

The iTNT Hub (Innovation Technology Network of Tamil Nadu), India's first deep-tech innovation hub, was inaugurated in 2023 on the Anna University campus, Guindy, Chennai.

Q 93 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match correctly the evolution of district administration with their corresponding year. (a) Royal commission on decentralization – 1. 1772 (b) The Indian statutory commission – 2. 1885 (c) The Bengal local self-Government Act – 3. 1909 (d) The office of the collector – 4. 1927
  1. (A) 2 4 1 3
  2. (B) 4 2 1 3
  3. (C) 1 4 3 2
  4. (D) 3 4 2 1
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 3 4 2 1

Royal Commission on Decentralisation reported in 1909, the Indian Statutory (Simon) Commission was appointed in 1927, the Bengal Local Self-Government Act was passed in 1885, and Warren Hastings created the office of Collector in 1772.

Q 94 · Unit V – TN geography, environment, disaster management
Identify the correct statement about the State Disaster Management Authority of TamilNadu (i) It is responsible for coordinating the response to disasters and reducing risks (ii) The chief secretary act as the chairperson for monitoring the disaster management activities in the state (iii) When approving the state disaster management plan, the state cabinet follows the guidelines provided by the National Disaster Management Authority
  1. (A) (i) only
  2. (B) (i) and (iii) only
  3. (C) (i) and (ii) only
  4. (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (i) only

The SDMA coordinates response and risk reduction (i). It is chaired by the Chief Minister, not the Chief Secretary (ii), and the State Plan is approved by the SDMA, not the Cabinet (iii).

Q 95 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which one does not include in three-tier system of local Government?
  1. (A) Panchayat Samiti
  2. (B) Grama Sabha
  3. (C) Gram Panchayat
  4. (D) Zila parishad
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Grama Sabha

The three tiers under the 73rd Amendment are village (Gram Panchayat), intermediate (Panchayat Samiti) and district (Zila Parishad); the Gram Sabha is the assembly of village voters, not a tier.

Q 96 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following is correctly paired? (1) C. Rajagopalachari – Legislative Assembly (2) B.P. Mandal – Legislative Council (3) Morarji Desai – Legislative Council (4) C.N. Annadurai – Legislative Council
  1. (A) (1) and (3) are correct
  2. (B) (1) and (2) are correct
  3. (C) (2) and (3) are correct
  4. (D) (1) and (4) are correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) (2) and (3) are correct

The pairing is about Chief Ministers who held office as members of the Legislative Council: Rajaji (1952) was a nominated MLC, not an Assembly member, so (1) is wrong; this rules out A, B and D, leaving (2) B.P. Mandal and (3) Morarji Desai.

Q 97 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Match the following and choose the correct option given below. Union Minister category – Function (a) Cabinet Minister – 1. Does not work under a Cabinet Minister (b) Minister of state with independent charge – 2. Pretend and participates in every meeting of the cabinet (c) Minister of state – 3. Works under a Cabinet Minister (d) Deputy Minister – 4. Does not have independent charge of any department
  1. (A) 2 1 4 3
  2. (B) 3 4 1 2
  3. (C) 4 3 2 1
  4. (D) 1 2 3 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3

Cabinet Ministers attend every Cabinet meeting; a Minister of State (Independent Charge) does not work under a Cabinet Minister; a Minister of State without independent charge has no department of his own; a Deputy Minister works under/assists a Cabinet Minister.

Q 98 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Choose the incorrect one from the given below. (1) Fundamental freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 are automatically suspended during emergency. (2) The President has the power to suspend few rights under Article 359. (3) Some of the fundamental rights are available only to citizen of India. (4) The Parliament has power to grant fundamental rights to persons serving in the armed forces.
  1. (A) (1) only
  2. (B) (2) only
  3. (C) (3) only
  4. (D) (4) only
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) (4) only

Article 33 empowers Parliament to restrict or abrogate (not grant) the fundamental rights of members of the armed forces; Art 358 suspends Art 19 automatically, Art 359 lets the President suspend enforcement of rights, and Arts 15, 16, 19, 29, 30 are for citizens only.

Q 99 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Assertion [A] : An autonomous sub-state called Meghalaya was established within the state of Assam by the Assam Reorganisation (Meghalaya) Act 1969. Reason [R] : The state executive and legislature can alter or redistribute the territories of the units of the federation if they so desire.
  1. (A) [A] is true but [R] is false
  2. (B) Both [A] and [R] are true; and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]
  3. (C) [A] is false, [R] is true
  4. (D) Both [A] and [R] are true, but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A] is correct
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) [A] is true but [R] is false

Parliament's Assam Reorganisation (Meghalaya) Act, 1969 created Meghalaya as an autonomous State within Assam (full State in 1972); under Article 3 only Parliament – not a State executive or legislature – can alter State boundaries.

Q 100 · Unit II – Administration of States (TN)
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to "Objective resolution" of the Indian Constitution? (1) The author of this resolution was Dr.B.R. Ambedkar (2) It was adopted by the constituent assembly on January 22, 1947. (3) The goal of this resolution was to declare India as a sovereign, Socialist, Democratic Republic. (4) This resolution was later framed as the preamble of the Indian Constitution.
  1. (A) (1) and (3)
  2. (B) (2) and (4)
  3. (C) (1) and (4)
  4. (D) (1) and (2)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) (2) and (4)

The Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru (13-12-1946), adopted on 22-01-1947 and later became the Preamble; it spoke of an 'Independent Sovereign Republic' – 'Socialist' was added only in 1976.

Q 101 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the best alternative as the answer. A factory always has
  1. (A) Electricity
  2. (B) Chimney
  3. (C) Workers
  4. (D) Files
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Workers

A factory cannot run without workers; electricity, chimney or files are not essential to every factory.

Q 102 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages is
  1. (A) 732
  2. (B) 990
  3. (C) 1098
  4. (D) 1305
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 990

Pages 1–9: 9 digits; 10–99: 90×2 = 180; 100–366: 267×3 = 801; total 9+180+801 = 990.

Q 103 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
δ=βF2*KS75#$PLVS@MUE6↑QG93&TY Which of the following is exactly in the middle of ninth from left end and fifteenth from right end in the above arrangement?
  1. (A) #
  2. (B) $
  3. (C) P
  4. (D) L
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) $

Counting all 29 symbols (including '='), 9th from left is 7 (position 9) and 15th from right is V (position 15); the middle position 12 is '$'.

Q 104 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
A dog runs 50 feet towards South and turns to left runs 20 feet and turns to left runs 7 feet and again turns to left runs 6 feet and then turns to right runs 15 feet and finally turns to right and runs 5 feet. Now which direction is the dog facing?
  1. (A) East
  2. (B) North
  3. (C) South
  4. (D) West
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) East

Facing: South → left = East → left = North → left = West → right = North → right = East.

Q 105 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If A is 50 m north east of B, B is 50 m north west of C, then C is in which direction of A?
  1. (A) North
  2. (B) North west
  3. (C) South
  4. (D) South west
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) South

From A, B is 50 m south-west and C is 50 m south-east of B; the east–west parts cancel, so C is due South of A.

Q 106 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Seven executives P, Q, R, S, T, U and W reach office in a particular sequence. U reaches immediately before P but does not immediately follow S. R is the last one to reach office. T follows immediately after P and is subsequently followed by W. Who ranks fourth in the sequence of reaching office?
  1. (A) W
  2. (B) U
  3. (C) T
  4. (D) P
Answer & explanation

Answer: More than one option is correct: (A), (C), (D)

With U-P-T-W as a block, R last and U not right after S, four orders are valid (QUPTWSR, SQUPTWR, UPTWQSR, UPTWSQR), so the 4th person can be T, P or W.

Q 107 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
According to a code language, words in capital letters in Column I are written in small letters in Column II. The letters in Column II are jumbled up. Decode the language and choose the correct code for the word given as questions. Column I – Column II (i) CROWDY – (a) blooppv (ii) SOUND – (b) jkgotv (iii) CRUX – (c) ijktv (iv) CRONY – (d) ikmop (v) NET – (e) cjmv (vi) ADDRESS – (f) abi Find the code for NEET
  1. (A) abbi
  2. (B) baai
  3. (C) biia
  4. (D) ibba
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) ibba

Matching by length and common letters: NET=abi, CRONY=ijktv, SOUND=ikmop, ADDRESS=blooppv give N=i, E=b, T=a; so NEET = i b b a.

Q 108 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the number group which is different from others.
  1. (A) 71, 7, 3, 17
  2. (B) 67, 71, 3, 5
  3. (C) 41, 5, 3, 47
  4. (D) 37, 14, 19, 7
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 37, 14, 19, 7

All other groups contain only prime numbers; 14 in group (D) is not prime.

Q 109 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose that set of numbers from the four alternative sets, that is similar to the given set : (81, 77, 69)
  1. (A) (56, 52, 44)
  2. (B) (64, 61, 53)
  3. (C) (75, 71, 60)
  4. (D) (92, 88, 79)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) (56, 52, 44)

81 −4 = 77, 77 −8 = 69; likewise 56 −4 = 52, 52 −8 = 44.

Q 110 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
In the following questions, select a figure from amongst the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space fig(X) would complete the pattern.
  1. (A) Figure (A)
  2. (B) Figure (B)
  3. (C) Figure (C)
  4. (D) Figure (D)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Figure (D)

The pattern is symmetric in four quarters; the bottom-right quarter is the mirror of the bottom-left one: leaf at the top-left (centre) corner, curls on the right side and bottom – figure (D).

Q 111 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
From the options, choose the correct "water-image" of the fig (X).
  1. (A) Figure (A)
  2. (B) Figure (B)
  3. (C) Figure (C)
  4. (D) Figure (D)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Figure (A)

A water image flips top and bottom: the lotus turns upside down and the many rays at the bottom move to the top, leaving two short rays below – figure (A).

Q 112 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose from the options the correct mirror image of the given figure.
  1. (A) Figure (A)
  2. (B) Figure (B)
  3. (C) Figure (C)
  4. (D) Figure (D)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Figure (C)

Given figure: left face hatched, right face black. A vertical (side) mirror swaps left and right – black on the left, hatched on the right, base unchanged – figure (C).

Q 113 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Statement : Smoking is one of those human weaknesses which tend to test the will power of the smoker to the edge. Conclusion : I. It is very difficult for the smokers to give up smoking even if they want to do so. II. Human beings have other weaknesses as well.
  1. (A) If only conclusion I follows
  2. (B) If only conclusion II follows
  3. (C) If neither I nor II follows
  4. (D) If both I and II follows
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) If both I and II follows

'Tests will power to the edge' means quitting is very hard (I); 'one of those weaknesses' implies other weaknesses exist (II).

Q 114 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which word of the options cannot be formed using the letters of the following word : ENDEAVORS
  1. (A) VOTE
  2. (B) ROSE
  3. (C) END
  4. (D) DONE
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) VOTE

ENDEAVORS has no letter T, so VOTE cannot be formed.

Q 115 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
These questions are based on the following information : (i) 'A × B' means 'A is Mother of B' (ii) 'A + B' means 'A is Son of B' In B × J + P, how is B related to P?
  1. (A) Mother
  2. (B) Uncle
  3. (C) Wife
  4. (D) Daughter
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Wife

B is the mother of J and J is the son of P, so P is J's father and B is P's wife.

Q 116 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find out the right option for conclusions to the statements given. Statements : All candles are lamps All lamps are bulbs Conclusions : I. All candles are bulbs II. All bulbs are candles
  1. (A) Only I follows
  2. (B) Only II follows
  3. (C) Both I and II follows
  4. (D) Neither I nor II follows
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Only I follows

Candles ⊂ lamps ⊂ bulbs, so all candles are bulbs (I); the reverse (II) does not follow.

Q 117 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find the missing number [Circle 1: top 5, left 3, right 2, bottom 4, centre 28] [Circle 2: top 8, left 8, right ?, bottom 4, centre 12]
  1. (A) 3
  2. (B) 9
  3. (C) 1
  4. (D) 2
Answer & explanation

Answer: None of the options is fully correct (closest: (D))

No arithmetic rule (any order of +, -, x, /, powers over the four outer numbers) gives 28 for the first circle and 12 for the second with any option.

Q 118 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
In how many ways a committee consisting of 3 men and 5 women can be formed from 5 men and 6 women?
  1. (A) 15
  2. (B) 30
  3. (C) 60
  4. (D) 19
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 60

5C3 × 6C5 = 10 × 6 = 60.

Q 119 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
A box contains 2 white balls, 3 black balls and 4 red balls. In how many ways can 3 balls be drawn from the box, if atleast one black ball is to be included in the draw?
  1. (A) 32
  2. (B) 48
  3. (C) 64
  4. (D) 96
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) 64

Total 9C3 = 84; with no black ball 6C3 = 20; at least one black = 84 − 20 = 64.

Q 120 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
In the given figure (i),(ii) are related to each other. Find the odd one.
  1. (A) 1
  2. (B) 2
  3. (C) 3
  4. (D) 4
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 2

In pairs 1, 3 and 4, figure (ii) is figure (i) turned 90° clockwise; in pair 2 the house is turned 90° anticlockwise (roof moves to the left).

Q 121 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
A piece of ice floats on water.
  1. (A) Often
  2. (B) Sometimes
  3. (C) Never
  4. (D) Always
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Always

Ice is less dense than water (about 0.92 g/cm³), so it always floats.

Q 122 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
In a class 2/5 of the students are girls and rest are boys. If 1/5 of the girls and 1/4 of the boys are absent, which part of the total number of students is present?
  1. (A) 17/25
  2. (B) 77/100
  3. (C) 62/100
  4. (D) 50/100
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) 77/100

Girls present = 2/5 × 4/5 = 8/25 = 32/100; boys present = 3/5 × 3/4 = 45/100; total 77/100.

Q 123 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the correct alternative : a b __ __ b a a __ __ a b __
  1. (A) aaaaa
  2. (B) aabaa
  3. (C) aabab
  4. (D) baabb
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) aabaa

Filling aabaa gives abaabaabaaba = 'aba' repeated four times.

Q 124 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Study the diagram below and identify the region representing youth who are unemployed but not educated. [Venn diagram: Youth, Educated, Employed circles; regions 2–8]
  1. (A) 2 only
  2. (B) 6, 7
  3. (C) 2, 5, 8
  4. (D) 5, 8
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) 2 only

Region 2 lies only in the Youth circle – outside both Educated and Employed.

Q 125 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
The following question is based on a dice numbered 1 to 6 in different ways as indicated. If 2 is opposite to 3 and adjacent to 4 and 6 then which of the following statements is necessarily true?
  1. (A) 1 is opposite to 5
  2. (B) 4 is opposite to 6
  3. (C) 4 is adjacent to 2 and 6
  4. (D) 1 is adjacent to 2 and 3
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 1 is adjacent to 2 and 3

Since 2 and 3 are opposite, every other face (1, 4, 5, 6) touches both 2 and 3; so 1 is surely adjacent to 2 and 3.

Q 126 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If A is B's sister, C is B's mother, D is C's father and E is D's mother, then how is A related to D?
  1. (A) Grand Daughter
  2. (B) Daughter
  3. (C) Aunt
  4. (D) Father
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Grand Daughter

A is C's daughter (B's sister) and D is C's father, so A is D's granddaughter.

Q 127 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Pointing towards a woman, Raj said "She is the daughter of my wife's sister". How is the wife of Raj related to the woman?
  1. (A) Aunt
  2. (B) Daughter
  3. (C) Sister
  4. (D) Mother
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Aunt

The woman is the daughter of Raj's wife's sister, so Raj's wife is her mother's sister – aunt.

Q 128 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
In a certain code language, '481' means 'Sky in blue', '246' means 'Sea in deep' and '698' means 'Sea looks blue'. What number is the code for 'looks'?
  1. (A) 4
  2. (B) 6
  3. (C) 8
  4. (D) 9
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 9

Sea = 6 (common to 246 and 698), blue = 8 (common to 481 and 698); so looks = 9.

Q 129 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the odd one out :
  1. (A) AEHL
  2. (B) BFJN
  3. (C) HLPT
  4. (D) MQVZ
Answer & explanation

Answer: More than one option is correct: (A), (D)

BFJN and HLPT follow +4, +4, +4. AEHL (+4, +3, +4) and MQVZ (+4, +5, +4) both break the pattern, so there are two odd ones. AEHL alone also has vowels.

TNPSC placed this question before its Expert Committee for a final decision.
Q 130 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
The same relationship obtain in one of the 4 alternative given below : Evaporation : Cloud : Rain
  1. (A) Sneezing : Cough : Cold
  2. (B) Accident : Injury : Pain
  3. (C) Tanning : Leather : Purse
  4. (D) Bud : Flower : Fragrance
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Accident : Injury : Pain

A cause-and-effect chain: evaporation causes cloud which causes rain; likewise accident causes injury which causes pain.

Q 131 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Choose the best alternative as the answer : Which one of the following is always found in Bravery?
  1. (A) Courage
  2. (B) Experiences
  3. (C) Power
  4. (D) Knowledge
Answer & explanation

Answer: (A) Courage

Bravery cannot exist without courage; experience, power or knowledge are not essential.

Q 132 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Which figure in the option is embedded in the pattern given in figure (X)?
  1. (A) Figure (A)
  2. (B) Figure (B)
  3. (C) Figure (C)
  4. (D) Figure (D)
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Figure (C)

Figure (X) (a swastika-like shape) is hidden in (C): its central cross plus half of each side of the square form exactly the shape of (X).

Q 133 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given RD15E%K3J19P8#A2B$KM6W@N4©T*7FH How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?
  1. (A) One
  2. (B) Two
  3. (C) Three
  4. (D) Four
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Two

Symbol–consonant–number occurs twice: % K 3 and @ N 4.

Q 134 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Statement : 'We follow some of the best and effective teaching learning practices used by leading institutes all over the world' – A statement of a professor of M.N. Institute. Conclusion : I. The M.N. Institute is one of the leading institutes of the world. II. Whatever is being followed by world's leading institutes will definitely be good and useful.
  1. (A) If only conclusion I follows
  2. (B) If only conclusion II follows
  3. (C) If either I or II follows
  4. (D) If both I and II follows
Answer & explanation

Answer: None of the options is fully correct (closest: (B))

Neither conclusion follows. Adopting some best practices does not make M.N. a leading institute (I), and 'whatever... will definitely be good' (II) is an over-generalisation. 'Neither' is not offered.

Q 135 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
This question is based on the following information : A # B means A is divided by B A * B means A is multiplied by B Salary of Ram is (A) 80% of salary of Ravi is (B). Find out the right choice to present it :
  1. (A) A = (100 # 80) * B
  2. (B) A = 80 # 100 # B
  3. (C) A = (80 # 100) * B
  4. (D) A = 80 * 100 * B
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) A = (80 # 100) * B

A = 80% of B = (80 ÷ 100) × B = (80 # 100) * B.

Q 136 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Fill in the blanks with a suitable figure from the option given [L-shape (2 lines), triangle (3), square (4), ?]
  1. (A) Circle
  2. (B) Pentagon
  3. (C) Rectangle
  4. (D) Hexagon
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Pentagon

The number of sides increases by one: 2, 3, 4, so next is a 5-sided figure – pentagon.

Q 137 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Statement : Nuclear power cannot make a country secure. Courses of Action I : We should stop further increasing our nuclear power II : We should destroy out nuclear capability III : We should focus on improving diplomatic relations
  1. (A) Only I follows
  2. (B) Only II follows
  3. (C) Only III follows
  4. (D) Both I and II follows
Answer & explanation

Answer: (C) Only III follows

Nuclear power alone does not give security; it does not mean it must be stopped or destroyed. Improving diplomatic relations (III) is the practical course.

Q 138 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
Find the missing number [36, 216 → 6; 25, 125 → 5; ?, 64 → 4]
  1. (A) 4
  2. (B) 9
  3. (C) 49
  4. (D) 16
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) 16

Left = square and right = cube of the bottom number: 6² = 36, 6³ = 216; so 4² = 16.

Q 139 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
January 1, 2007 was Monday. What day of the week lies on January 1, 2008?
  1. (A) Monday
  2. (B) Tuesday
  3. (C) Wednesday
  4. (D) Sunday
Answer & explanation

Answer: (B) Tuesday

2007 is an ordinary year (365 days = 52 weeks + 1 odd day), so Monday + 1 = Tuesday.

Q 140 · General Intelligence & Reasoning
If 1st January of year 2020 is Thursday then what day of the week lies on 1st January 2021?
  1. (A) Monday
  2. (B) Wednesday
  3. (C) Friday
  4. (D) Saturday
Answer & explanation

Answer: (D) Saturday

2020 is a leap year (366 days = 52 weeks + 2 odd days), so Thursday + 2 = Saturday.

Questions are from the official TNPSC question paper. Answers and explanations are prepared and checked twice by Shanmugam IAS Academy faculty; where TNPSC placed a question before its Expert Committee, it is marked.

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