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Daily Indian Polity quiz – 10 November 2026

Tap an option – the right answer and a short explanation appear at once. Your score is at the bottom. (TNPSC / UPSC Prelims)

1The words 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the:
Answer: B) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 added 'Socialist' and 'Secular' and changed 'unity of the Nation' to 'unity and integrity of the Nation'. It is the only amendment of the Preamble so far. In Kesavananda Bharati (1973) the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
2Consider the following statements about the Rajya Sabha: 1. Its maximum strength is 250, of whom 12 are nominated by the President. 2. As nearly as possible, one-third of its members retire on the expiry of every second year. 3. It can be dissolved by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Which of the above are correct?
Answer: C) 1 and 2 only
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Article 80 fixes a maximum of 250 members – up to 238 representatives of the States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President for their knowledge of literature, science, art and social service. Under Article 83(1) the Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every second year. Statement 3 is wrong – only the Lok Sabha can be dissolved (Article 85).
3Match the Articles of the Constitution (List I) with their subjects (List II): (a) Article 19 – 1. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (b) Article 20 – 2. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (c) Article 23 – 3. Protection of interests of minorities (d) Article 29 – 4. Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc. Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer: D) 4 1 2 3
Article 19 protects six freedoms, including speech and expression, assembly, association and movement; Article 20 bars ex post facto criminal laws, double jeopardy and compelled self-incrimination; Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar and other forced labour; Article 29 protects the right of any section of citizens to conserve its distinct language, script or culture. Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency (Article 359, as amended by the 44th Amendment).
4Assertion (A): The President can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session. Reason (R): The ordinance-making power of the President is provided in Article 123 of the Constitution.
Answer: D) A is false, but R is true
A is false: Article 123 allows an ordinance 'except when both Houses of Parliament are in session' – so it can be issued when either House is not in session. R is true. An ordinance must be laid before both Houses and ceases to operate six weeks after Parliament reassembles, or earlier if both Houses pass resolutions disapproving it; in D.C. Wadhwa (1987) and Krishna Kumar Singh (2017) the Supreme Court held that re-promulgation of ordinances is a fraud on the Constitution.
5Under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution, a question whether a member of a House has become disqualified on the ground of defection is decided by the:
Answer: C) Speaker or Chairman of that House
Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule (added by the 52nd Amendment, 1985) gives the decision to the Speaker or Chairman of the House. In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) the Supreme Court upheld the Schedule but held that the presiding officer's decision is subject to judicial review.
6Consider the following statements about a National Emergency under Article 352: 1. Since the 44th Amendment, 1978, it can be proclaimed on the ground of war, external aggression or armed rebellion. 2. The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month, by a special majority. 3. During such an Emergency, the President can suspend the enforcement of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21. Which of the above are correct?
Answer: C) 1 and 2 only
Statement 3 is wrong: after the 44th Amendment, Article 359 does not allow the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 to be suspended. The same amendment replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion', cut the period for parliamentary approval from two months to one month and required a special majority (a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of those present and voting). National Emergencies were proclaimed in 1962, 1971 and 1975.
7Match the constitutional offices/bodies (List I) with the Articles that provide for them (List II): (a) Election Commission – 1. Article 76 (b) Comptroller and Auditor General – 2. Article 148 (c) Union Public Service Commission – 3. Article 315 (d) Attorney General for India – 4. Article 324 Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)
Answer: B) 4 2 3 1
Election Commission – Article 324; Comptroller and Auditor General – Article 148; Public Service Commissions for the Union and the States – Article 315; Attorney General for India – Article 76. The Attorney General is the Government of India's chief legal adviser and has the right to speak in either House of Parliament, but not to vote (Article 88).
8Assertion (A): A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. Reason (R): If a question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final.
Answer: B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Both are true, but R does not explain A. A comes from Article 109(1), which bars the introduction of a Money Bill in the Rajya Sabha (it can only make recommendations within 14 days); R comes from Article 110(3), which makes the Speaker's certificate final. The restriction on introduction does not flow from the Speaker's power to certify.
9The Rajamannar Committee, appointed by the Government of Tamil Nadu in 1969, examined:
Answer: A) Centre–State relations
The Centre–State Relations Inquiry Committee, headed by Dr P.V. Rajamannar, former Chief Justice of the Madras High Court, was appointed by the Tamil Nadu Government in 1969 and reported in 1971; it recommended greater autonomy for the States. At the national level the Sarkaria Commission (1983) and the Punchhi Commission (2007) later studied Centre–State relations.
10Consider the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy: 1. Article 40 directs the State to organise village panchayats. 2. Article 48A on the protection of the environment was part of the original Constitution. 3. The Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court. Which of the above are correct?
Answer: A) 1 and 3 only
Statement 2 is wrong: Article 48A (protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife) was inserted by the 42nd Amendment, 1976, which also added Articles 39A and 43A. Article 40 (village panchayats) was in the original text, and Article 37 says the Directive Principles shall not be enforceable by any court but are fundamental in the governance of the country.
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