UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 4: Mock Test 3 – Standard Level (80 MCQs)

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UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 4: Mock Test 3 – Standard Level (80 MCQs) – 77 questions, subject: CSAT Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Passage 1

A household that puts solar panels on its roof buys less power from the distribution company, and often sells its surplus back to the grid at midday. For the household this is a saving; for the company it is the loss of its best customers. In many States, well-off urban households pay tariffs above the cost of supply, and that margin helps to keep power cheap for farmers and poor homes. When the households that paid the most begin to make their own electricity, the company must either raise tariffs for those who remain or seek a larger subsidy from the State. Rooftop solar is therefore not only a technical change; it is also a question of who pays for a grid that everyone still needs at night and on cloudy days.

Which of the following best states the central idea of the passage?

Correct Answer: D [Rooftop solar raises the question of how the cost of the shared grid will be met when high-paying users produce their own power.]

Explanation:

the passage traces how rooftop solar removes the customers whose higher tariffs supported others, and ends on who pays for the grid.

2.  

According to the passage, when the households that paid the highest tariffs begin to make their own electricity, the distribution company must:

Correct Answer: D [either raise tariffs for the remaining consumers or seek a larger subsidy from the State]

Explanation:

the passage says the company must either raise tariffs for those who remain or seek a larger subsidy from the State.

3.  

The argument that rooftop solar strains the finances of the distribution company assumes that:

Correct Answer: A [the households that adopt rooftop solar are largely those that paid tariffs above the cost of supply]

Explanation:

if mostly low-tariff users adopted panels, the company would lose little margin; the strain depends on the high payers leaving.

4.  

Three bells ring at intervals of 6, 8 and 12 minutes. They ring together at 9:00 a.m. At what time will they next ring together?

Correct Answer: B [9:24 a.m.]

Explanation:

the bells ring together after the LCM of 6, 8 and 12, which is 24 minutes.

5.  

Which of the following numbers is divisible by 11?

Correct Answer: B [918082]

Explanation:

odd places from the right: 2 + 0 + 1 = 3; even places: 8 + 8 + 9 = 25; the difference 22 is a multiple of 11, so the number is divisible by 11.

6.  

How many prime numbers are there between 50 and 100?

Correct Answer: B [10]

Explanation:

the primes between 50 and 100 are 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89 and 97 – ten in all.

7.  

For 36 and a second number, the LCM is 48 times the HCF, and HCF + LCM = 588. What is the second number?

Correct Answer: C [192]

Explanation:

HCF + 48 HCF = 588 gives HCF 12, LCM 576; other = 12 × 576 ÷ 36 = 192.

8.  

Statements:

All roses are flowers.

Some flowers are red.

Conclusions:

I. Some roses are red.

II. Some red things are flowers.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only conclusion II follows]

Explanation:

"some flowers are red" converts to "some red things are flowers", so II follows; nothing places the roses among the red flowers, so I does not.

9.  

In a survey of 120 families, 70 have a television, 55 have a two-wheeler and 25 have both. How many families have neither?

Correct Answer: B [20]

Explanation:

families with at least one = 70 + 55 − 25 = 100; neither = 120 − 100 = 20.

10.  

Passage 2

A heatwave is measured in degrees, but its cost is counted in lost hours of work. A construction worker or a street vendor cannot move indoors when the afternoon temperature crosses forty-five degrees. If he stops, he loses the day's wage; if he goes on, he risks his health. Shifting working hours to the cooler parts of the day, providing shade and water at work sites, and paying for days lost to extreme heat would all cost money. Not doing so also costs money, but that cost is paid quietly by the workers themselves.

Which of the following best reflects the author's argument?

Correct Answer: D [Measures to protect outdoor workers from heat have a cost, but without them the cost falls on the workers.]

Explanation:

the passage weighs the cost of the measures against a hidden cost that the workers already bear.

11.  

In the last sentence, the word "quietly" suggests that the cost borne by the workers is:

Correct Answer: C [not visible in any public account]

Explanation:

"quietly" means the cost is borne without being counted or noticed – unlike the visible cost of the measures.

12.  

What is the smallest number that must be added to 1,000 to make it a perfect square?

Correct Answer: A [24]

Explanation:

the next square after 1,000 is 32² = 1,024, so 24 must be added.

13.  

The recurring decimal 0.363636… (36 repeating) is equal to which fraction?

Correct Answer: A [4/11]

Explanation:

0.3636… = 36/99 = 4/11.

14.  

In a town, 60 per cent of the adults are employed, and 35 per cent of the employed adults are women. If 4,200 employed adults are women, how many adults live in the town?

Correct Answer: C [20,000]

Explanation:

employed women are 35 per cent of 60 per cent = 21 per cent of all adults; 4,200 ÷ 0.21 = 20,000.

15.  

Passage 3

For generations, people living in and around forests gathered fuelwood, fruit, honey and grass from them, and many managed common patches of forest by rules of their own. Forest law treated much of this use as an offence. Recognising the rights of these communities does not mean handing forests over to be cleared. Where communities hold secure rights, they have often guarded the forest against outsiders more closely than a distant department could. Rights without capacity, however, can be empty. A village council that has the right to manage a forest but no money, no training and no say in the market for its produce may find the right hard to use.

Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?

Correct Answer: D [Recognising community rights can help protect forests, but the rights work only when communities have the means to use them.]

Explanation:

the passage defends community rights against the fear of clearing and then adds the condition of capacity.

16.  

The author's attitude to recognising the rights of forest communities is best described as:

Correct Answer: C [supportive, with a condition]

Explanation:

the author supports the rights but warns that without money, training and market access they may be "empty".

17.  

According to the passage, "rights without capacity" may be empty because:

Correct Answer: D [a community may lack the money, training and market access needed to exercise them]

Explanation:

the last sentence lists exactly these three lacks.

18.  

If the train is late, Kumar misses the meeting. Kumar did not miss the meeting.

Which of the following must be true?

Correct Answer: D [The train was not late.]

Explanation:

"If P then Q" with Q false gives "not P": the train was not late (the contrapositive).

19.  

Of five friends P, Q, R, S and T, Q is taller than P but shorter than S. T is shorter than P. R is taller than S.

Who is third from the top in order of height?

Correct Answer: B [Q]

Explanation:

the order from the tallest is R, S, Q, P, T; Q is third.

20.  

Passage 4

In the dry plains of peninsular India, chains of village tanks were once built so that the surplus of one tank flowed into the next, and the village maintained the channels and removed silt from the tank beds every year. As canals, borewells and government departments took over, the village's duty faded, and many tanks silted up or were encroached upon. A tank that is not cleaned holds less water each year, so it fails in exactly the years when it is most needed. Repairing the stone and earth of a tank is easy compared with restoring the habit of looking after it.

According to the author, what is the harder task in reviving the tanks?

Correct Answer: C [Restoring the village's habit of maintaining the tanks]

Explanation:

the last sentence says restoring the habit of care is harder than physical repair.

21.  

Why, according to the passage, does a neglected tank fail "in exactly the years when it is most needed"?

Correct Answer: D [Because silt reduces its capacity, so in a dry year it stores too little to carry the village through]

Explanation:

silt reduces storage year after year; in a year of scarce rain the shrunken tank cannot hold enough.

22.  

Starting from her house, Priya goes 10 km north, turns right and goes 5 km, turns right again and goes 10 km, and finally turns left and goes 3 km. Where is she now with respect to her house?

Correct Answer: A [8 km to the east]

Explanation:

North 10, east 5, south 10 and east 3 leave her 8 km due east of the house.

23.  

In a certain code, CLOUD is written as DNRYI. How is RIVER written in that code?

Correct Answer: A [SKYIW]

Explanation:

the letters move forward by 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 places: R→S, I→K, V→Y, E→I, R→W.

24.  

Fresh grapes contain 90 per cent water by weight, and dried grapes contain 20 per cent water. How much dried grape can be obtained from 50 kg of fresh grapes?

Correct Answer: B [6.25 kg]

Explanation:

the solid part, 10 per cent of 50 kg = 5 kg, is unchanged and forms 80 per cent of the dried grapes: 5 ÷ 0.8 = 6.25 kg.

25.  

The cost price of 15 articles is equal to the selling price of 12 articles. What is the gain per cent?

Correct Answer: B [25 per cent]

Explanation:

on 12 articles sold, the gain is the cost of 3 articles; 3 ÷ 12 = 25 per cent.

26.  

A trader buys 20 kg of pulses at ₹30 a kg and 30 kg at ₹40 a kg. He mixes them and sells the mixture at ₹45 a kg. What is his gain per cent?

Correct Answer: D [25 per cent]

Explanation:

the cost is 600 + 1,200 = ₹1,800 for 50 kg, and the sale brings 50 × 45 = ₹2,250; the gain of ₹450 is 25 per cent of the cost.

27.  

Passage 5

A false claim that is repeated becomes familiar, and what is familiar comes to feel true. Correcting a falsehood often means repeating it, which may spread it further. For this reason some researchers advise that a correction should lead with the fact rather than the myth, and should state the myth only once, clearly marked as false.

Which of the following corrections best follows the advice given in the passage?

Correct Answer: D ["Dengue is treated by rest, fluids and medical care. A claim that hot water cures it is false."]

Explanation:

it leads with the fact and mentions the myth only once, clearly marked as false.

28.  

Given A : B = 3 : 4, B : C = 6 : 7 and C : D = 14 : 15, find the ratio A : D.

Correct Answer: A [3 : 5]

Explanation:

chaining gives A = 9 and D = 15, so A : D = 9 : 15 = 3 : 5.

29.  

Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the ratio becomes 12 : 23. What is the smaller number?

Correct Answer: B [33]

Explanation:

let the numbers be 3k and 5k; (3k − 9) ÷ (5k − 9) = 12 ÷ 23 gives 69k − 207 = 60k − 108, so k = 11 and the numbers are 33 and 55.

30.  

Passage 6

A forecast that gives a 70 per cent chance of rain is not proved wrong when the day stays dry. It said that, on days like this one, rain would fall about seven times in ten and not fall about three times in ten. Such a forecast can be judged only over many days: if, on all the days given 70 per cent, rain fell on roughly seven in ten, the forecaster did well.

Which of the following is implied by the passage?

Correct Answer: D [A single dry day cannot show that a 70 per cent forecast was poor.]

Explanation:

the passage says such a forecast is judged over many days; one dry day is one of the expected three in ten.

31.  

Reasoning set 1

Five lectures – History, Geography, Polity, Economy and Ethics – are held on the five days from Monday to Friday, one on each day.

– Economy is held on the day after Geography.

– Ethics is held two days after Polity.

– Neither History nor Geography is held on Monday.

– Ethics is not held on Friday.

Which lecture is held on Wednesday?

Correct Answer: A [Ethics]

Explanation:

the only order that meets all four conditions is Polity, History, Ethics, Geography, Economy (Monday to Friday); Ethics is on Wednesday.

32.  

How many lectures are held between History and Economy?

Correct Answer: D [Two]

Explanation:

History is on Tuesday and Economy on Friday; Ethics and Geography come between them.

33.  

Which of the following statements is true?

Correct Answer: D [Polity is held on Monday.]

Explanation:

Polity on Tuesday would put Ethics on Thursday and leave no two days in a row for Geography and Economy; Polity on Wednesday would put Ethics on Friday. So Polity is on Monday.

34.  

Passage 7

A public library lends books, but in a small town it also lends a quiet room, a working light and a table to a student whose home has none of these. Its value is therefore not measured fully by the number of books it issues. When libraries are judged by circulation alone, those that serve the poorest readers – who come to sit and study rather than to borrow – look the least useful and are the first to be closed.

The author would most likely agree that:

Correct Answer: A [the number of books issued is an incomplete measure of a library's usefulness]

Explanation:

the passage says the value of a library "is not measured fully" by circulation, because it also serves those who come to study.

35.  

The passage says that a small-town library "also lends a quiet room, a working light and a table". The author uses this phrase to show that the library:

Correct Answer: D [offers some students a place and conditions for study that they lack at home]

Explanation:

the room, light and table are lent to 'a student whose home has none of these', so the library gives a place to study.

36.  

The average weight of 8 persons rises by 2.5 kg when one of them, who weighs 65 kg, is replaced by a new person. What is the weight of the new person?

Correct Answer: C [85 kg]

Explanation:

the total rises by 8 × 2.5 = 20 kg, so the new person weighs 65 + 20 = 85 kg.

37.  

The average of five numbers is 18. When one of the numbers is removed, the average of the remaining four is 16. Which number was removed?

Correct Answer: D [26]

Explanation:

the total falls from 5 × 18 = 90 to 4 × 16 = 64, so the number removed is 90 − 64 = 26.

38.  

Passage 8

The Right to Information Act, 2005 lets a citizen ask a public authority for its records and expect a reply within a set time. Its power lies less in the answers it brings than in the questions it makes officials expect: a file that may one day be read by the public tends to be written with more care. This effect depends on the law being used and on replies being given in time. Where appeals pile up for months, the expectation weakens, and with it the care.

According to the passage, the main source of the Act's power is:

Correct Answer: A [the care that officials take because they expect their files may be read]

Explanation:

the passage locates the power in "the questions it makes officials expect", which lead to more careful files.

39.  

Which of the following would the author most likely regard as a threat to the Act's purpose?

Correct Answer: D [Long delays in deciding appeals]

Explanation:

the passage says that when appeals pile up for months, the expectation of scrutiny – and the care it brings – weakens.

40.  

The passage assumes that:

Correct Answer: A [officials behave differently when they expect their work to be seen by the public]

Explanation:

the whole argument rests on the expectation of scrutiny changing how files are written.

41.  

You are a Block Development Officer. A list of beneficiaries for a rural housing scheme, prepared before you took charge, must be sent to the district tomorrow. During a field visit you learn that some families on the list already own pucca houses and may be ineligible. What should you do?

Correct Answer: A [Check the doubtful names at once, remove those found ineligible with reasons recorded, send the corrected list, and inform the district of any short delay.]

Explanation:

this corrects the error, keeps a record of reasons, and keeps the eligible families on schedule.

42.  

Ten years ago, A was half as old as B. The ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4. What is the sum of their present ages?

Correct Answer: B [35]

Explanation:

try the options: 35 gives 15 and 20; ten years ago they were 5 and 10, and 5 is half of 10.

43.  

The sum of three consecutive multiples of 7 is 357. What is the largest of them?

Correct Answer: C [126]

Explanation:

the middle multiple is 357 ÷ 3 = 119, so the three are 112, 119 and 126; the largest is 126.

44.  

Passage 9

Adding iron or iodine to a food that everyone eats reaches the poor without asking them to change what they eat; iodised salt is the usual example. The method works, however, only if the people it is meant for actually buy that food from the source that fortifies it. A family that eats rice from its own field will not be reached by fortified rice sold in shops.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Correct Answer: D [Fortification works best for foods that the target group buys from the fortifying source.]

Explanation:

the passage makes success depend on the target group buying the food from the source that fortifies it.

45.  

The simple interest on a sum at 6 per cent a year for 4 years is ₹1,920. What is the sum?

Correct Answer: C [₹8,000]

Explanation:

P = (1,920 × 100) ÷ (6 × 4) = ₹8,000.

46.  

A sum of money at compound interest amounts to ₹4,840 in 2 years and to ₹5,324 in 3 years. What is the rate of interest a year?

Correct Answer: C [10 per cent]

Explanation:

the third year's interest is 5,324 − 4,840 = ₹484, which is 10 per cent of ₹4,840.

47.  

Passage 10

Old phones and computers contain small amounts of gold, copper and other metals, along with lead and mercury. In informal yards, workers burn cables to recover copper and soak circuit boards in acid, with little protection. Formal recyclers recover more metal and handle the poisons safely, but they pay less for scrap than informal dealers, because they bear the cost of safe handling. Unless the safe route is made at least as attractive to the seller, scrap will keep flowing to the yards.

According to the passage, why does much electronic scrap go to informal yards?

Correct Answer: A [Informal dealers pay more for the scrap.]

Explanation:

formal recyclers pay less because of the cost of safe handling, so sellers go to the informal dealers.

48.  

Which of the following policies is most in line with the passage?

Correct Answer: C [Give sellers an incentive, such as a deposit refund, for handing scrap to formal recyclers.]

Explanation:

the passage says the safe route must be made at least as attractive to the seller; a refund does that.

49.  

Statement: The municipality has announced that from next week water will be supplied only between 6 a.m. and 8 a.m., and has advised residents to store water.

Assumptions:

I. Residents have some means of storing water.

II. Water will never again be supplied in the evening.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only assumption I is implicit]

Explanation:

the advice to store water makes sense only if residents can store it; II is not implied, as "from next week" says nothing about forever.

50.  

Statement: Using a mobile phone while driving has been banned, and those who break the rule will be fined.

Conclusions:

I. Using a mobile phone while driving is considered dangerous.

II. There will be no road accidents from now on.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only conclusion I follows]

Explanation:

a ban with fines follows from the activity being judged dangerous; II is an extreme claim that does not follow.

51.  

A is the sister of B. C is the mother of B. D is the father of C. E is the mother of D. How is A related to D?

Correct Answer: D [Granddaughter]

Explanation:

A, a sister of B, is a daughter of C; C is a child of D, so A is D's granddaughter.

52.  

A is twice as efficient as B. Working together, they finish a job in 14 days. In how many days can A alone finish it?

Correct Answer: A [21]

Explanation:

A does two-thirds of the joint work, so A's rate is (2/3) × (1/14) = 1/21 – 21 days.

53.  

10 men or 15 women can finish a job in 30 days. How many days will 5 men and 6 women take to finish it?

Correct Answer: A [33⅓ days]

Explanation:

one man does 1/300 and one woman 1/450 of the job a day; 5 men and 6 women do 5/300 + 6/450 = 3/100, so they take 100/3 = 33⅓ days.

54.  

Passage 11

A city can add a lane to a busy road, and within a few years the new lane fills with cars, as people who once avoided that road at peak hours begin to use it. A bus carries fifty people in the space taken by two or three cars. Cities that wish to reduce congestion therefore find that more buses, running often and on time, do more than wider roads. The difficulty is that a road is a visible gift, completed once and opened with ceremony, while a reliable bus service must be run well every single day.

According to the passage, why does a widened road fill up again?

Correct Answer: D [Because the extra space draws trips that people had earlier avoided]

Explanation:

the passage says people who once avoided the road at peak hours begin to use it.

55.  

The claim that more buses do more than wider roads assumes that:

Correct Answer: A [people will move from cars to buses if the buses are frequent and reliable]

Explanation:

buses ease congestion only if they draw people out of cars; the passage's stress on "often and on time" rests on this.

56.  

One term of 1, 4, 10, 19, 31, 45, 64 breaks the pattern of the others. Which one is it?

Correct Answer: D [45]

Explanation:

differences 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 need 46 after 31, and 46 + 18 = 64; so 45 is wrong.

57.  

What comes next in the series Z1, X4, V9, T16, …?

Correct Answer: A [R25]

Explanation:

the letters go back two places each time (Z, X, V, T, R) and the numbers are squares (1, 4, 9, 16, 25): R25.

58.  

At what time between 4 and 5 o'clock are the hands of a clock exactly opposite each other?

Correct Answer: C [4:54 6/11]

Explanation:

the minute hand gains 5.5° a minute on the hour hand, which is 120° ahead at 4:00. To be 180° ahead of it, the minute hand must gain 300°: 300 ÷ 5.5 = 54 6/11 minutes.

59.  

The calendar of 2027 will be used again, exactly, in which year?

Correct Answer: C [2038]

Explanation:

2027 is an ordinary year beginning on a Friday; the next ordinary year beginning on a Friday is 2038.

60.  

Passage 12

Employers say that graduates lack the skills they need; graduates say that employers will not train them. An apprenticeship breaks this deadlock by letting the young learn on the job while being paid a stipend, so that the employer trains people it may later hire and the learner gains experience that no classroom gives.

Which of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?

Correct Answer: D [Apprenticeships connect training with employment by letting the young learn on the job.]

Explanation:

the passage presents apprenticeship as the way out of the deadlock between employers and graduates.

61.  

A car covers a distance in 5 hours at 60 km/h. At what speed must it travel to cover the same distance in 4 hours?

Correct Answer: C [75 km/h]

Explanation:

the distance is 60 × 5 = 300 km; 300 ÷ 4 = 75 km/h.

62.  

Two cyclists start at the same time from towns 300 km apart and ride towards each other at 40 km/h and 35 km/h. After how many hours do they meet?

Correct Answer: C [4]

Explanation:

they close the gap at 40 + 35 = 75 km/h; 300 ÷ 75 = 4 hours.

63.  

A thief runs away at 8 km/h. A policeman starts chasing him 10 minutes later at 10 km/h. How many minutes after starting will the policeman catch the thief?

Correct Answer: B [40]

Explanation:

in 10 minutes the thief is 8 × 1/6 = 4/3 km ahead; the gap closes at 10 − 8 = 2 km/h, so it takes 2/3 hour = 40 minutes.

64.  

Passage 13

When sea water stays too warm for too long, corals expel the algae that live in their tissues and turn white. A bleached reef is not yet dead: if the water cools in time, the algae return and the coral can recover. Recovery, however, takes years, and when warm spells come every year or two, a reef is struck again before it has healed.

Which of the following follows most directly from the passage?

Correct Answer: B [The frequency of warm spells, and not only how warm they are, matters to a reef's survival.]

Explanation:

the passage stresses that repeated warm spells leave no time for recovery – so how often they come decides survival.

65.  

A wire bent into a square encloses an area of 121 cm². If the same wire is bent into a circle, what area will the circle enclose? (Take π = 22/7.)

Correct Answer: C [154 cm²]

Explanation:

the square's side is 11 cm, so the wire is 44 cm long; 2πr = 44 gives r = 7 cm, and the area is (22/7) × 7² = 154 cm².

66.  

Passage 14

A dam holds back a river's water, and with it the river's silt. The reservoir slowly fills with sediment, while the delta downstream, no longer fed with silt, begins to shrink as the sea eats into it. Both effects are slow, so neither appears in the year the dam is built.

Which of the following is the most logical corollary of the passage?

Correct Answer: B [An assessment of a dam made over only its first few years is likely to understate its costs.]

Explanation:

since the silting of the reservoir and the shrinking of the delta are slow, a short-term view misses them.

67.  

How many diagonals does a regular octagon have?

Correct Answer: B [20]

Explanation:

each of the 8 vertices joins 5 non-adjacent vertices; 8 × 5 ÷ 2 = 20 diagonals.

68.  

A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. What is the probability that it is a king or a heart?

Correct Answer: B [4/13]

Explanation:

there are 4 kings and 13 hearts, with one card in both; 16 cards qualify, and 16/52 = 4/13.

69.  

Three-digit numbers are written with digits taken from 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4, no digit used twice. How many such numbers are there?

Correct Answer: A [48]

Explanation:

the hundreds place takes one of 4 non-zero digits, then 4 and 3 choices: 4 × 4 × 3 = 48.

70.  

Passage 15

When a device can be opened only with special tools, and spare parts are sold only to authorised centres at high prices, a small fault becomes a reason to buy a new device. The waste that follows is often blamed on consumers' taste for the latest model, though much of it is built into the way the device is designed and sold.

The author implies that:

Correct Answer: B [the design and sale of devices can shorten their useful life]

Explanation:

special tools and costly, restricted parts turn small faults into replacements.

71.  

A standard die has its opposite faces adding to 7. It rests on a table with 3 on top and 2 facing you. If it is rolled once away from you, which number will be on top?

Correct Answer: A [2]

Explanation:

rolling away from you turns the face towards you up onto the top; 2 comes to the top.

72.  

A colleague from another department asks you several times to share a file containing confidential tender details, "just to save time", before the tenders are opened. What is the best response?

Correct Answer: C [Politely decline, explain that the rules do not allow it, and suggest the formal channel for any information the colleague is entitled to.]

Explanation:

this keeps the rule, explains it courteously and offers a proper route.

73.  

About how many seconds are there in an ordinary year of 365 days?

Correct Answer: C [3.2 crore]

Explanation:

365 × 24 × 3,600 = 3,15,36,000, which is about 3.2 crore.

74.  

Data set 1

The table shows the electricity generated in a State from different sources (in billion units). The figures are for practice only.

Source 2022 2024
Coal 60 58
Hydro 12 10
Wind 16 20
Solar 8 20
Others 4 4

Which source showed the largest increase in generation from 2022 to 2024?

Correct Answer: C [Solar]

Explanation:

solar rose from 8 to 20, an increase of 12 billion units – the largest.

75.  

Approximately what share of the total generation in 2024 came from solar?

Correct Answer: B [About 18 per cent]

Explanation:

the 2024 total is 112; 20 ÷ 112 = 0.179, about 18 per cent.

76.  

By about how many percentage points did the combined share of wind and solar in total generation rise from 2022 to 2024?

Correct Answer: C [About 12 points]

Explanation:

the share was 24 ÷ 100 = 24 per cent in 2022 and 40 ÷ 112 = 35.7 per cent in 2024, a rise of about 12 points.

77.  

Question: What is Ravi's present age?

Statement 1: Ravi is 4 years older than Sita.

Statement 2: The sum of the present ages of Ravi and Sita is 30 years.

Correct Answer: C [Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient]

Explanation:

together, R − S = 4 and R + S = 30 give R = 17 years; neither alone is enough.

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Here you get the answer with a one-line explanation. 6 full-length CSAT tests · 480 original questions · worked solutions for every option · qualifying-mark strategy, answer keys, error analysis
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