UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 6: Mock Test 5 – Advanced Level (80 MCQs)

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UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 6: Mock Test 5 – Advanced Level (80 MCQs) – 80 questions, subject: CSAT Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Reasoning set 1

Five friends P, Q, R, S and T sit in a row, all facing north.

– There are exactly two persons between P and Q.

– T sits to the immediate right of P.

– R does not sit at either end.

– S sits somewhere to the left of R.

– S sits at one of the ends.

Who sits in the middle of the row?

Correct Answer: C [T]

Explanation:

the only arrangement from left to right is S, P, T, R, Q; T is in the middle.

2.  

Who sits second to the right of P?

Correct Answer: D [R]

Explanation:

facing north, right is towards the east end; from P the next seats to the right are T and then R.

3.  

Which two friends sit at the ends of the row?

Correct Answer: A [S and Q]

Explanation:

the arrangement S, P, T, R, Q puts S at the left end and Q at the right end. (With S at the right end, R could not be to the right of S.)

4.  

Passage 1

A government facing an election is tempted to cut interest rates, since cheaper credit lifts spending and jobs before the vote, while the inflation it causes arrives later. Knowing this, people expect higher inflation and raise their wage and price demands in advance, so that inflation comes without the extra jobs. One answer has been to give a central bank a clear inflation target and the freedom to pursue it without day-to-day political direction. Such independence is not a law of nature; it rests on the public's trust that the bank's decisions are made on evidence, and on the government's willingness to accept a decision it dislikes. Independence that is granted on paper but overridden in practice may be worse than none, because it tells the public that the target is not meant seriously.

According to the passage, why might a government be tempted to cut interest rates before an election?

Correct Answer: D [Because the benefits of cheaper credit appear before the vote, while the resulting inflation comes later]

Explanation:

the first sentence states exactly this difference in timing.

5.  

Which of the following best captures the central idea of the passage?

Correct Answer: D [A central bank with an inflation target and real independence can make policy more credible, but the independence depends on trust and must be respected in practice.]

Explanation:

the passage moves from the problem to independence as an answer, and ends on the conditions that make independence work.

6.  

The author suggests that independence "granted on paper but overridden in practice" may be worse than none because:

Correct Answer: D [it signals to the public that the inflation target is not to be taken seriously, damaging credibility]

Explanation:

the last sentence says such independence "tells the public that the target is not meant seriously".

7.  

What is the sum of all the divisors of 72, including 1 and 72?

Correct Answer: C [195]

Explanation:

72 = 2³ × 3², so the sum of its divisors is (1 + 2 + 4 + 8)(1 + 3 + 9) = 15 × 13 = 195.

8.  

How many numbers between 100 and 300 are multiples of both 6 and 8?

Correct Answer: D [8]

Explanation:

a number divisible by both 6 and 8 is a multiple of their LCM, 24; from 120 to 288 there are 8 such multiples.

9.  

If a/b = 3/4, what is the value of (5a − 2b) ÷ (5a + 2b)?

Correct Answer: A [7/23]

Explanation:

divide top and bottom by b: (5 × 3/4 − 2) ÷ (5 × 3/4 + 2) = (15 − 8) ÷ (15 + 8) = 7/23.

10.  

Statements:

All teachers are graduates.

Some graduates are singers.

Conclusions:

I. Some teachers being singers is a possibility.

II. All singers being teachers is a possibility.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both conclusions I and II follow]

Explanation:

nothing rules out a teacher who sings, so I is possible. If every singer were a teacher, every singer would be a graduate, which fits "some graduates are singers"; so II is possible too.

11.  

Statements: J ≥ K = L < M

Conclusions:

I. J > L

II. J = L

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows]

Explanation:

J ≥ K = L gives J ≥ L; I and II together cover this, so one of them must hold.

12.  

Passage 2

A delivery rider who works through an app is told that he is his own boss: he logs in when he wishes and is paid by the trip. Yet the app sets the price of each trip, assigns the orders, rates his speed and can switch him off without explanation. He bears the risks of an employee – an accident, an illness, a slow month – without the protections that employees have won. Calling him a partner does not settle what he is; what he is depends on who controls his work.

The author's main point is that:

Correct Answer: D [whether a gig worker is truly independent depends on who controls the work, not on the label used]

Explanation:

the last sentence says the label does not settle the question; control does.

13.  

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's view?

Correct Answer: D [Riders who refuse a few orders find that the app sends them fewer orders afterwards.]

Explanation:

it shows the app controlling the rider's work, the test the author proposes.

14.  

If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 20 per cent and its denominator decreased by 10 per cent, the fraction becomes 16/21. What was the original fraction?

Correct Answer: A [4/7]

Explanation:

the fraction is multiplied by 1.2 ÷ 0.9 = 4/3, so the original is 16/21 × 3/4 = 4/7.

15.  

By selling 33 metres of cloth, a shopkeeper gains the selling price of 11 metres. What is his gain per cent?

Correct Answer: D [50 per cent]

Explanation:

SP of 33 m − CP of 33 m = SP of 11 m, so SP of 22 m = CP of 33 m; the gain is the cost of 11 m on the cost of 22 m – 50 per cent.

16.  

A vendor buys oranges at 6 for ₹10 and sells them at 4 for ₹10. What is his gain per cent?

Correct Answer: C [50 per cent]

Explanation:

cost per orange is ₹10/6 and selling price ₹10/4; the gain is 10/4 − 10/6 = 10/12 on 10/6, which is 50 per cent.

17.  

Passage 3

A democracy is often described as rule by the majority, yet most democracies allow judges, who are not elected, to strike down laws passed by elected legislatures. This looks like a contradiction only if democracy means nothing more than counting votes on each question. If it also means that certain things – free speech, a fair trial, equal treatment – must be secured for everyone so that future votes remain meaningful, then a court that protects them is guarding the conditions of democracy rather than defeating it. The danger lies at the other edge: a court that strikes down laws merely because the judges disagree with them stops guarding and starts ruling.

According to the passage, judicial review seems contradictory to democracy only if:

Correct Answer: D [democracy is understood simply as counting votes on each question]

Explanation:

the passage says it "looks like a contradiction only if democracy means nothing more than counting votes on each question".

18.  

The author would most likely agree that a court:

Correct Answer: D [serves democracy when it protects the conditions for meaningful voting, but exceeds its role when it substitutes the judges' preferences for the legislature's]

Explanation:

the passage defends review that guards rights and warns against review based on disagreement.

19.  

Which of the following is an assumption underlying the passage?

Correct Answer: A [Future votes are meaningful only if certain rights are secured for everyone.]

Explanation:

the defence of review rests on rights being needed "so that future votes remain meaningful".

20.  

In a code, each letter is replaced by the letter in the same position counted from the other end of the alphabet (A by Z, B by Y and so on). If CAT is written as XZG, how is DOG written?

Correct Answer: A [WLT]

Explanation:

D ↔ W, O ↔ L, G ↔ T: each pair of positions adds to 27.

21.  

What comes next in the series 3, 10, 29, 66, 127, …?

Correct Answer: C [218]

Explanation:

the terms are n³ + 2: 1 + 2, 8 + 2, 27 + 2, 64 + 2, 125 + 2; next is 216 + 2 = 218.

22.  

Passage 4

Rivers that fall steeply through the Himalaya carry great energy, and dams there can generate power without burning fuel. The same mountains, however, are young, still rising, and prone to landslides and earthquakes. Tunnelling and blasting can loosen slopes that were stable, and a reservoir in a narrow valley leaves little room for error when a glacial lake bursts upstream. Clean power from such places is not free of risk; the risk is simply of a different kind from the smoke of a coal plant.

The author's main concern is that:

Correct Answer: D [hydropower in the Himalaya, though free of smoke, carries geological risks that must be weighed]

Explanation:

the passage accepts the clean-power benefit and stresses landslide, earthquake and flood risk.

23.  

According to the passage, why is a reservoir in a narrow Himalayan valley a particular concern?

Correct Answer: A [It leaves little room for error when a glacial lake bursts upstream]

Explanation:

the passage says a reservoir in a narrow valley "leaves little room for error when a glacial lake bursts upstream".

24.  

The salaries of A, B and C are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. They receive increments of 15 per cent, 10 per cent and 20 per cent respectively. What is the new ratio of their salaries?

Correct Answer: A [23 : 33 : 60]

Explanation:

2 × 1.15 : 3 × 1.10 : 5 × 1.20 = 2.3 : 3.3 : 6 = 23 : 33 : 60.

25.  

Two vessels contain milk and water in the ratios 3 : 1 and 5 : 3. Equal quantities from the two are mixed. What is the ratio of milk to water in the mixture?

Correct Answer: C [11 : 5]

Explanation:

from 1 litre of each: milk 3/4 + 5/8 = 11/8, water 1/4 + 3/8 = 5/8, a ratio of 11 : 5.

26.  

The average of a, b and c is 20, and the average of b, c and d is 25. If d = 30, what is a?

Correct Answer: B [15]

Explanation:

a + b + c = 60 and b + c + d = 75, so b + c = 45 and a = 60 − 45 = 15.

27.  

Passage 5

A count of the population taken every ten years tells a government how many schools, hospitals and ration shops each district needs. When the count is delayed, plans continue to be made on the old figures, and the districts that have grown fastest – often the poorest urban ones – are the most under-served, because the numbers say they are smaller than they are.

Which of the following is the most logical conclusion from the passage?

Correct Answer: D [A delay in the count tends to leave fast-growing districts with fewer services than they need.]

Explanation:

plans on old figures undercount growing districts, so they get less than they need.

28.  

Three years ago, the average age of a husband, his wife and their child was 27 years. Five years ago, the average age of the wife and the child was 20 years. What is the husband's present age?

Correct Answer: C [40]

Explanation:

now the three total 81 + 9 = 90 years; the wife and child total 40 + 10 = 50 years; the husband is 90 − 50 = 40.

29.  

The ages of A and B are in the ratio 4 : 3. A will be 26 years old when B is 21. What is A's present age?

Correct Answer: B [20]

Explanation:

the age difference is always 26 − 21 = 5 years, which is one part of the ratio; so A = 4 × 5 = 20 (and B = 15).

30.  

The sum of two numbers is 25 and the difference of their squares is 75. What is the larger number?

Correct Answer: D [14]

Explanation:

a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b), so a − b = 75 ÷ 25 = 3; with a + b = 25, a = 14.

31.  

Passage 6

A coastal city that defends itself against rising seas with walls protects what lies behind them, but it may also block the movement of sediment and push erosion onto the next stretch of coast. Defences built one town at a time can therefore shift the problem along the shore rather than solve it.

Which of the following is implied by the passage?

Correct Answer: D [Coastal defences are better planned for a whole stretch of coast than town by town.]

Explanation:

if defences built one town at a time shift erosion to neighbours, planning across the stretch is implied.

32.  

P is the son of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the father of S. How is P related to S?

Correct Answer: A [Cousin]

Explanation:

P is the son of Q; S is a child of R; Q and R are siblings, so P and S are cousins.

33.  

Statement: "To reduce queues, the passport office will from next month give appointments only through its website."

Assumptions:

I. Most applicants can use the website or get help to do so.

II. Queues at the office are caused partly by people arriving without appointments.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both I and II are implicit]

Explanation:

the plan assumes that walk-ins cause queues (II) and that applicants can book online (I); without either, it would not reduce queues.

34.  

Argument: "The new reading programme raised children's reading scores in the twenty schools where it was tried, so it should be introduced in every school in the State."

Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

Correct Answer: C [In twenty similar schools that did not use the programme, reading scores did not change over the same period.]

Explanation:

a comparison group with no change rules out a general rise and points to the programme as the cause.

35.  

₹10,000 is lent in two parts, one at 8 per cent and the other at 10 per cent simple interest a year. The total yearly interest is ₹880. How much is lent at 10 per cent?

Correct Answer: A [₹4,000]

Explanation:

if ₹4,000 is at 10 per cent and ₹6,000 at 8 per cent, the interest is 400 + 480 = ₹880.

36.  

What is the compound interest on ₹8,000 for one year at 10 per cent a year, if interest is compounded half-yearly?

Correct Answer: B [₹820]

Explanation:

half-yearly at 5 per cent for two periods: 8,000 × (1.05² − 1) = 8,000 × 0.1025 = ₹820.

37.  

Passage 7

Communities have used certain plants as medicine for centuries, passing the knowledge down by word of mouth. When a company isolates the active compound and patents it, the community that pointed the way may receive nothing. Patent law rewards novelty, and knowledge that was never written down is easy to treat as new. Recording traditional knowledge in a searchable register does not stop research; it allows a patent office to see that the use was already known.

According to the passage, what is the purpose of a register of traditional knowledge?

Correct Answer: D [To show patent offices that a claimed use was already known, so it is not treated as new]

Explanation:

the last sentence states this purpose.

38.  

The author implies that the present weakness of patent law, in this context, is that:

Correct Answer: A [unwritten knowledge can be mistaken for something new]

Explanation:

the passage says knowledge "never written down is easy to treat as new".

39.  

ACE is related to BDF in the same way as PRT is related to which of the following?

Correct Answer: A [QSU]

Explanation:

each letter of ACE moves one place forward to give BDF; P, R, T become Q, S, U.

40.  

How many minutes after 6 o'clock will the hands of a clock first be at right angles?

Correct Answer: B [16 4/11]

Explanation:

at 6:00 the hands are 180° apart; the minute hand gains 5.5° a minute, so the gap first falls to 90° after 90 ÷ 5.5 = 16 4/11 minutes.

41.  

A month of 31 days begins on a Saturday. Which of the following days occurs only four times in that month?

Correct Answer: D [Tuesday]

Explanation:

31 days are 4 weeks and 3 days; the three extra days are the first three – Saturday, Sunday and Monday – so Tuesday occurs only four times.

42.  

Passage 8

An official who applies the rules exactly treats every citizen alike, and that is a real virtue: favouritism begins where the rules are bent. Yet rules are written in advance for typical cases, and some cases are not typical. A widow who misses a deadline because she was in hospital is, by the letter of the rule, in the same position as one who simply forgot. To treat them alike is consistent but not just. The answer is not to give each official a free hand, which would bring back favouritism, but to build into the rules a stated ground for exceptions, with reasons recorded so that like cases are treated alike.

Which of the following best states the author's position?

Correct Answer: C [Rules should allow exceptions on stated grounds, with reasons recorded, to combine fairness with consistency.]

Explanation:

the last sentence proposes exactly this.

43.  

The example of the widow is used to show that:

Correct Answer: C [treating different situations alike can be consistent and yet unjust]

Explanation:

the passage says "to treat them alike is consistent but not just".

44.  

Why does the author insist that reasons for exceptions be recorded?

Correct Answer: D [So that like cases are treated alike and exceptions do not become favouritism]

Explanation:

the passage says reasons are recorded "so that like cases are treated alike", guarding against favouritism.

45.  

A and B together can do a job in 12 days, B and C in 15 days, and C and A in 20 days. In how many days can A alone do it?

Correct Answer: C [30]

Explanation:

adding the three pairs: 2(A + B + C) = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 = 1/5, so A + B + C = 1/10. A = 1/10 − 1/15 (B and C) = 1/30: 30 days.

46.  

15 men working 8 hours a day finish a job in 12 days. In how many days will 18 men working 10 hours a day finish it?

Correct Answer: B [8]

Explanation:

the job needs 15 × 8 × 12 = 1,440 man-hours; 18 × 10 = 180 man-hours a day gives 8 days.

47.  

A car leaves a town at 9 a.m. at 40 km/h. A second car leaves the same town at 11 a.m. on the same road at 60 km/h. At what time does the second car overtake the first?

Correct Answer: A [3 p.m.]

Explanation:

at 11 a.m. the first car is 80 km ahead; the gap closes at 60 − 40 = 20 km/h, taking 4 hours: 3 p.m.

48.  

The speeds of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 4. A takes 30 minutes more than B to cover the same distance. How long does A take?

Correct Answer: A [2 hours]

Explanation:

times are in the inverse ratio 4 : 3; the difference of one part is 30 minutes, so A takes 4 × 30 = 120 minutes = 2 hours.

49.  

Two trains start at the same time from towns A and B and run towards each other. After they meet, the first train takes 9 hours to reach B and the second takes 16 hours to reach A. What is the ratio of the speed of the first train to that of the second?

Correct Answer: D [4 : 3]

Explanation:

speeds are in the ratio of the square roots of the times taken after meeting, the other way round: √16 : √9 = 4 : 3.

50.  

Passage 9

In many districts, undernourished children and overweight adults now live in the same households. Both conditions can come from the same diet – plenty of cheap refined grain, oil and sugar, and too little protein, vegetables and fruit. A programme that counts only calories may therefore feed the child and fatten the parent without nourishing either.

Which of the following is the most valid inference from the passage?

Correct Answer: C [The quality of a diet matters as well as the quantity of calories.]

Explanation:

the passage blames a diet high in calories but low in protein, vegetables and fruit.

51.  

You are the collector of a district hit by a cyclone. Relief material is arriving faster than it can be distributed, and a local leader wants all of it sent first to the villages of his constituency, which were less affected than coastal villages. What should you do?

Correct Answer: D [Distribute it according to an assessment of need, starting with the worst-hit coastal villages, and explain the basis openly to the leader and the public.]

Explanation:

need-based distribution is fair and defensible, and openness about the basis answers political pressure.

52.  

What is the greatest four-digit number that is exactly divisible by 12, 15 and 18?

Correct Answer: A [9,900]

Explanation:

the LCM of 12, 15 and 18 is 180, and 9,999 ÷ 180 = 55 remainder 99, so the answer is 55 × 180 = 9,900.

53.  

The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 323. What is their sum?

Correct Answer: B [36]

Explanation:

323 = 17 × 19, so the sum is 36.

54.  

Passage 10

A hill town that once received a few thousand visitors a summer may now receive that many in a weekend. The roads, water supply and sewage system were built for its residents. When visitors exceed what these can bear, the town's water runs short, waste piles up on the slopes and the very scenery that drew the visitors is spoiled. Limiting the number of vehicles or visitors is unpopular with traders, but a town that is ruined will have no trade to protect.

Which of the following is the author's main argument?

Correct Answer: B [Limiting visitors to what a town can sustain protects its long-term trade, despite short-term objections.]

Explanation:

the last sentence answers the traders' objection with the long-term interest.

55.  

The author's argument depends on which of the following?

Correct Answer: A [visitors come to the town partly for its scenery]

Explanation:

the claim that spoiling the scenery will end trade depends on the scenery drawing visitors, as the passage itself says ("the very scenery that drew the visitors").

56.  

In a class, every student who plays chess also plays carrom. Some students who play carrom also play cricket. No student who plays cricket plays chess.

Which of the following must be true?

Correct Answer: A [Some students who play carrom do not play chess.]

Explanation:

the carrom players who play cricket cannot play chess, so some carrom players do not play chess.

57.  

In a row of children, Kavin is 10th from the left and Mathi is 15th from the right. When they exchange places, Kavin becomes 18th from the left. How many children are in the row?

Correct Answer: B [32]

Explanation:

after the exchange Kavin is in Mathi's old place, which is 18th from the left and 15th from the right: 18 + 15 − 1 = 32 children.

58.  

Passage 11

Most apps ask users to accept a long privacy policy before they can use the service. Few read it, and fewer could understand it if they did. Consent given in this way is real only in form: the user agrees because refusal means losing the service. A system that puts the whole burden of protection on such consent protects the company that wrote the policy more than the person who clicked "I agree". Some limits on what may be collected must therefore apply whatever the user has clicked.

Which of the following best expresses the author's view of consent through privacy policies?

Correct Answer: B [It is largely a formality, because users neither read the policies nor have a real choice to refuse.]

Explanation:

the passage gives both reasons: policies go unread and refusal means losing the service.

59.  

Which of the following follows from the author's argument?

Correct Answer: B [Some protections of personal data should not depend on the user's click.]

Explanation:

the last sentence says some limits must apply "whatever the user has clicked".

60.  

In how many ways can the letters of the word GARDEN be arranged so that the vowels always come together?

Correct Answer: B [240]

Explanation:

treat A and E as one block: 5 units give 5! = 120 orders, and the vowels can be arranged in 2 ways: 240.

61.  

A committee of 4 is to be chosen from 6 men and 4 women so that it has at least 2 women. In how many ways can this be done?

Correct Answer: B [115]

Explanation:

exactly 2 women: 6 × 15 = 90; exactly 3: 4 × 6 = 24; all 4: 1. Total 115.

62.  

What is the probability that a leap year, chosen at random, has 53 Sundays?

Correct Answer: B [2/7]

Explanation:

a leap year has 52 weeks and 2 extra days; of the 7 equally likely pairs of extra days, 2 include a Sunday: 2/7.

63.  

Two fair dice are thrown. What is the probability that the product of the numbers is even?

Correct Answer: C [3/4]

Explanation:

the product is odd only when both numbers are odd: 3/6 × 3/6 = 1/4; so even = 3/4.

64.  

Passage 12

A handloom weaver can make a sari that no machine can copy, yet earn less in a month than a factory worker. The skill is not the problem; the distance between the weaver and the buyer is. Each trader in the chain takes a share, and by the time the sari reaches the city, little of its price returns to the loom.

According to the passage, why do handloom weavers earn little?

Correct Answer: B [Much of the final price is taken by the traders between the weaver and the buyer.]

Explanation:

the passage says each trader takes a share, leaving little for the weaver.

65.  

Which of the following groups is best represented by one circle lying wholly inside a second circle, with a third circle separate from both?

Correct Answer: B [Mammals, Whales, Birds]

Explanation:

all whales are mammals (one circle inside another) and no bird is a mammal (a separate circle).

66.  

A wooden cube is painted blue on two opposite faces and red on the other four faces. It is then cut into 27 equal small cubes. How many small cubes have at least one blue face and at least one red face?

Correct Answer: C [16]

Explanation:

each blue face has 8 cubes round its edge (4 corners and 4 edge-middles), all touching a red face; the two blue faces give 16.

67.  

Which of D4, G7, J10, M12 does not follow the rule of the others?

Correct Answer: D [M12]

Explanation:

M is the 13th letter, so M12 breaks the letter-position rule.

68.  

Passage 13

The Constitution lists among the fundamental duties of citizens the duty to develop the scientific temper. A scientific temper is not a stock of facts; it is the habit of asking for evidence, accepting a claim only as far as the evidence goes, and changing one's mind when better evidence appears. A person can know a great deal of science and lack it, and a person with little schooling can have it.

According to the passage, which of the following shows a scientific temper?

Correct Answer: B [Revising a belief when stronger evidence becomes available]

Explanation:

the passage includes "changing one's mind when better evidence appears".

69.  

How many three-digit numbers have digits that add up to 4?

Correct Answer: C [10]

Explanation:

list by the first digit: 1 (103, 112, 121, 130), 2 (202, 211, 220), 3 (301, 310), 4 (400) – 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10.

70.  

An empty tank measuring 4 m × 3 m × 2 m is filled by a pipe that delivers 400 litres a minute. How long does it take to fill the tank?

Correct Answer: C [60 minutes]

Explanation:

the volume is 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 m³ = 24,000 litres; 24,000 ÷ 400 = 60 minutes.

71.  

A path 2 m wide runs inside a rectangular garden 30 m long and 20 m wide, along all four sides. What is the area of the path?

Correct Answer: A [184 m²]

Explanation:

the inner rectangle is 26 m × 16 m = 416 m², so the path is 600 − 416 = 184 m².

72.  

The sides of a right-angled triangle are x, x + 7 and x + 8 centimetres, the last being the hypotenuse. What is the area of the triangle?

Correct Answer: A [30 cm²]

Explanation:

by Pythagoras, x² + (x + 7)² = (x + 8)² gives x² − 2x − 15 = 0, so x = 5; the legs are 5 and 12 and the area is ½ × 5 × 12 = 30 cm².

73.  

Passage 14

As tiger numbers rise in a reserve, young tigers leave to find territories of their own, and some wander into farmland. A rise in conflict near reserves is therefore partly a sign that protection has worked. It is also a warning that a reserve cannot be managed without the people around it, who bear the cost of lost cattle and the fear of attack.

The passage suggests that rising conflict near tiger reserves:

Correct Answer: B [can result from the success of protection and calls for attention to people living near reserves]

Explanation:

the passage gives both readings: success, and a warning about the cost borne by neighbours.

74.  

A member of the public writes a sharply worded letter to your office, pointing out a real error in a notice your office issued. What is the best response?

Correct Answer: C [Thank the writer, correct the notice promptly, and reply courteously stating what has been done.]

Explanation:

the substance deserves action, and a courteous reply restores confidence.

75.  

A sheet of paper is 0.1 mm thick. If it could be folded in half 20 times, about how thick would the folded stack be?

Correct Answer: C [About 100 m]

Explanation:

2²⁰ is about 10 lakh (1,048,576), so the stack is about 0.1 mm × 10⁶ = 10⁵ mm = 100 m (about 105 m).

76.  

Passage 15

An old couplet compares one who speaks harsh words when kind words are at hand to one who takes unripe fruit when ripe fruit is there to be had.

What is the point of the comparison?

Correct Answer: B [Choosing harsh words when kind ones are available is a needless choice of the worse over the better.]

Explanation:

as no sensible person prefers the unripe fruit, no one should prefer harsh words when kind ones serve as well.

77.  

Data set 1

The table shows the number of units produced by a factory and the number found defective in five months. The figures are for practice only.

Month Units produced Defective units
January 2,400 48
February 2,600 39
March 3,000 75
April 2,800 42
May 3,200 48

In which month was the defect rate (defective units as a percentage of units produced) the highest?

Correct Answer: B [March]

Explanation:

March: 75 ÷ 3,000 = 2.5 per cent – the highest.

78.  

How many of the five months had a defect rate of exactly 1.5 per cent?

Correct Answer: C [Three]

Explanation:

February (39 ÷ 2,600), April (42 ÷ 2,800) and May (48 ÷ 3,200) each give 1.5 per cent.

79.  

What was the defect rate for the five months taken together, correct to one decimal place?

Correct Answer: B [1.8 per cent]

Explanation:

total defective 252 ÷ total produced 14,000 = 1.8 per cent.

80.  

Question: How many students are there in the class?

Statement 1: Ravi's rank is 12th from the top and 25th from the bottom.

Statement 2: There are 11 students ahead of Ravi.

Correct Answer: A [Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but Statement 2 alone is not]

Explanation:

from Statement 1, the class has 12 + 25 − 1 = 36 students (ranks are distinct). Statement 2 only repeats that Ravi is 12th from the top.

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