UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 6: Mock Test 5 – Advanced Level (80 MCQs)
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from Statement 1, the class has 12 + 25 − 1 = 36 students (ranks are distinct). Statement 2 only repeats that Ravi is 12th from the top.
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UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 6: Mock Test 5 – Advanced Level (80 MCQs) – 80 questions, subject: CSAT Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.
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1.
Correct Answer: C [T]
Explanation:
the only arrangement from left to right is S, P, T, R, Q; T is in the middle.
2.
Correct Answer: D [R]
Explanation:
facing north, right is towards the east end; from P the next seats to the right are T and then R.
3.
Correct Answer: A [S and Q]
Explanation:
the arrangement S, P, T, R, Q puts S at the left end and Q at the right end. (With S at the right end, R could not be to the right of S.)
4.
Correct Answer: D [Because the benefits of cheaper credit appear before the vote, while the resulting inflation comes later]
Explanation:
the first sentence states exactly this difference in timing.
5.
Correct Answer: D [A central bank with an inflation target and real independence can make policy more credible, but the independence depends on trust and must be respected in practice.]
Explanation:
the passage moves from the problem to independence as an answer, and ends on the conditions that make independence work.
6.
Correct Answer: D [it signals to the public that the inflation target is not to be taken seriously, damaging credibility]
Explanation:
the last sentence says such independence "tells the public that the target is not meant seriously".
7.
Correct Answer: C [195]
Explanation:
72 = 2³ × 3², so the sum of its divisors is (1 + 2 + 4 + 8)(1 + 3 + 9) = 15 × 13 = 195.
8.
Correct Answer: D [8]
Explanation:
a number divisible by both 6 and 8 is a multiple of their LCM, 24; from 120 to 288 there are 8 such multiples.
9.
Correct Answer: A [7/23]
Explanation:
divide top and bottom by b: (5 × 3/4 − 2) ÷ (5 × 3/4 + 2) = (15 − 8) ÷ (15 + 8) = 7/23.
10.
Correct Answer: C [Both conclusions I and II follow]
Explanation:
nothing rules out a teacher who sings, so I is possible. If every singer were a teacher, every singer would be a graduate, which fits "some graduates are singers"; so II is possible too.
11.
Correct Answer: A [Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows]
Explanation:
J ≥ K = L gives J ≥ L; I and II together cover this, so one of them must hold.
12.
Correct Answer: D [whether a gig worker is truly independent depends on who controls the work, not on the label used]
Explanation:
the last sentence says the label does not settle the question; control does.
13.
Correct Answer: D [Riders who refuse a few orders find that the app sends them fewer orders afterwards.]
Explanation:
it shows the app controlling the rider's work, the test the author proposes.
14.
Correct Answer: A [4/7]
Explanation:
the fraction is multiplied by 1.2 ÷ 0.9 = 4/3, so the original is 16/21 × 3/4 = 4/7.
15.
Correct Answer: D [50 per cent]
Explanation:
SP of 33 m − CP of 33 m = SP of 11 m, so SP of 22 m = CP of 33 m; the gain is the cost of 11 m on the cost of 22 m – 50 per cent.
16.
Correct Answer: C [50 per cent]
Explanation:
cost per orange is ₹10/6 and selling price ₹10/4; the gain is 10/4 − 10/6 = 10/12 on 10/6, which is 50 per cent.
17.
Correct Answer: D [democracy is understood simply as counting votes on each question]
Explanation:
the passage says it "looks like a contradiction only if democracy means nothing more than counting votes on each question".
18.
Correct Answer: D [serves democracy when it protects the conditions for meaningful voting, but exceeds its role when it substitutes the judges' preferences for the legislature's]
Explanation:
the passage defends review that guards rights and warns against review based on disagreement.
19.
Correct Answer: A [Future votes are meaningful only if certain rights are secured for everyone.]
Explanation:
the defence of review rests on rights being needed "so that future votes remain meaningful".
20.
Correct Answer: A [WLT]
Explanation:
D ↔ W, O ↔ L, G ↔ T: each pair of positions adds to 27.
21.
Correct Answer: C [218]
Explanation:
the terms are n³ + 2: 1 + 2, 8 + 2, 27 + 2, 64 + 2, 125 + 2; next is 216 + 2 = 218.
22.
Correct Answer: D [hydropower in the Himalaya, though free of smoke, carries geological risks that must be weighed]
Explanation:
the passage accepts the clean-power benefit and stresses landslide, earthquake and flood risk.
23.
Correct Answer: A [It leaves little room for error when a glacial lake bursts upstream]
Explanation:
the passage says a reservoir in a narrow valley "leaves little room for error when a glacial lake bursts upstream".
24.
Correct Answer: A [23 : 33 : 60]
Explanation:
2 × 1.15 : 3 × 1.10 : 5 × 1.20 = 2.3 : 3.3 : 6 = 23 : 33 : 60.
25.
Correct Answer: C [11 : 5]
Explanation:
from 1 litre of each: milk 3/4 + 5/8 = 11/8, water 1/4 + 3/8 = 5/8, a ratio of 11 : 5.
26.
Correct Answer: B [15]
Explanation:
a + b + c = 60 and b + c + d = 75, so b + c = 45 and a = 60 − 45 = 15.
27.
Correct Answer: D [A delay in the count tends to leave fast-growing districts with fewer services than they need.]
Explanation:
plans on old figures undercount growing districts, so they get less than they need.
28.
Correct Answer: C [40]
Explanation:
now the three total 81 + 9 = 90 years; the wife and child total 40 + 10 = 50 years; the husband is 90 − 50 = 40.
29.
Correct Answer: B [20]
Explanation:
the age difference is always 26 − 21 = 5 years, which is one part of the ratio; so A = 4 × 5 = 20 (and B = 15).
30.
Correct Answer: D [14]
Explanation:
a² − b² = (a + b)(a − b), so a − b = 75 ÷ 25 = 3; with a + b = 25, a = 14.
31.
Correct Answer: D [Coastal defences are better planned for a whole stretch of coast than town by town.]
Explanation:
if defences built one town at a time shift erosion to neighbours, planning across the stretch is implied.
32.
Correct Answer: A [Cousin]
Explanation:
P is the son of Q; S is a child of R; Q and R are siblings, so P and S are cousins.
33.
Correct Answer: C [Both I and II are implicit]
Explanation:
the plan assumes that walk-ins cause queues (II) and that applicants can book online (I); without either, it would not reduce queues.
34.
Correct Answer: C [In twenty similar schools that did not use the programme, reading scores did not change over the same period.]
Explanation:
a comparison group with no change rules out a general rise and points to the programme as the cause.
35.
Correct Answer: A [₹4,000]
Explanation:
if ₹4,000 is at 10 per cent and ₹6,000 at 8 per cent, the interest is 400 + 480 = ₹880.
36.
Correct Answer: B [₹820]
Explanation:
half-yearly at 5 per cent for two periods: 8,000 × (1.05² − 1) = 8,000 × 0.1025 = ₹820.
37.
Correct Answer: D [To show patent offices that a claimed use was already known, so it is not treated as new]
Explanation:
the last sentence states this purpose.
38.
Correct Answer: A [unwritten knowledge can be mistaken for something new]
Explanation:
the passage says knowledge "never written down is easy to treat as new".
39.
Correct Answer: A [QSU]
Explanation:
each letter of ACE moves one place forward to give BDF; P, R, T become Q, S, U.
40.
Correct Answer: B [16 4/11]
Explanation:
at 6:00 the hands are 180° apart; the minute hand gains 5.5° a minute, so the gap first falls to 90° after 90 ÷ 5.5 = 16 4/11 minutes.
41.
Correct Answer: D [Tuesday]
Explanation:
31 days are 4 weeks and 3 days; the three extra days are the first three – Saturday, Sunday and Monday – so Tuesday occurs only four times.
42.
Correct Answer: C [Rules should allow exceptions on stated grounds, with reasons recorded, to combine fairness with consistency.]
Explanation:
the last sentence proposes exactly this.
43.
Correct Answer: C [treating different situations alike can be consistent and yet unjust]
Explanation:
the passage says "to treat them alike is consistent but not just".
44.
Correct Answer: D [So that like cases are treated alike and exceptions do not become favouritism]
Explanation:
the passage says reasons are recorded "so that like cases are treated alike", guarding against favouritism.
45.
Correct Answer: C [30]
Explanation:
adding the three pairs: 2(A + B + C) = 1/12 + 1/15 + 1/20 = 1/5, so A + B + C = 1/10. A = 1/10 − 1/15 (B and C) = 1/30: 30 days.
46.
Correct Answer: B [8]
Explanation:
the job needs 15 × 8 × 12 = 1,440 man-hours; 18 × 10 = 180 man-hours a day gives 8 days.
47.
Correct Answer: A [3 p.m.]
Explanation:
at 11 a.m. the first car is 80 km ahead; the gap closes at 60 − 40 = 20 km/h, taking 4 hours: 3 p.m.
48.
Correct Answer: A [2 hours]
Explanation:
times are in the inverse ratio 4 : 3; the difference of one part is 30 minutes, so A takes 4 × 30 = 120 minutes = 2 hours.
49.
Correct Answer: D [4 : 3]
Explanation:
speeds are in the ratio of the square roots of the times taken after meeting, the other way round: √16 : √9 = 4 : 3.
50.
Correct Answer: C [The quality of a diet matters as well as the quantity of calories.]
Explanation:
the passage blames a diet high in calories but low in protein, vegetables and fruit.
51.
Correct Answer: D [Distribute it according to an assessment of need, starting with the worst-hit coastal villages, and explain the basis openly to the leader and the public.]
Explanation:
need-based distribution is fair and defensible, and openness about the basis answers political pressure.
52.
Correct Answer: A [9,900]
Explanation:
the LCM of 12, 15 and 18 is 180, and 9,999 ÷ 180 = 55 remainder 99, so the answer is 55 × 180 = 9,900.
53.
Correct Answer: B [36]
Explanation:
323 = 17 × 19, so the sum is 36.
54.
Correct Answer: B [Limiting visitors to what a town can sustain protects its long-term trade, despite short-term objections.]
Explanation:
the last sentence answers the traders' objection with the long-term interest.
55.
Correct Answer: A [visitors come to the town partly for its scenery]
Explanation:
the claim that spoiling the scenery will end trade depends on the scenery drawing visitors, as the passage itself says ("the very scenery that drew the visitors").
56.
Correct Answer: A [Some students who play carrom do not play chess.]
Explanation:
the carrom players who play cricket cannot play chess, so some carrom players do not play chess.
57.
Correct Answer: B [32]
Explanation:
after the exchange Kavin is in Mathi's old place, which is 18th from the left and 15th from the right: 18 + 15 − 1 = 32 children.
58.
Correct Answer: B [It is largely a formality, because users neither read the policies nor have a real choice to refuse.]
Explanation:
the passage gives both reasons: policies go unread and refusal means losing the service.
59.
Correct Answer: B [Some protections of personal data should not depend on the user's click.]
Explanation:
the last sentence says some limits must apply "whatever the user has clicked".
60.
Correct Answer: B [240]
Explanation:
treat A and E as one block: 5 units give 5! = 120 orders, and the vowels can be arranged in 2 ways: 240.
61.
Correct Answer: B [115]
Explanation:
exactly 2 women: 6 × 15 = 90; exactly 3: 4 × 6 = 24; all 4: 1. Total 115.
62.
Correct Answer: B [2/7]
Explanation:
a leap year has 52 weeks and 2 extra days; of the 7 equally likely pairs of extra days, 2 include a Sunday: 2/7.
63.
Correct Answer: C [3/4]
Explanation:
the product is odd only when both numbers are odd: 3/6 × 3/6 = 1/4; so even = 3/4.
64.
Correct Answer: B [Much of the final price is taken by the traders between the weaver and the buyer.]
Explanation:
the passage says each trader takes a share, leaving little for the weaver.
65.
Correct Answer: B [Mammals, Whales, Birds]
Explanation:
all whales are mammals (one circle inside another) and no bird is a mammal (a separate circle).
66.
Correct Answer: C [16]
Explanation:
each blue face has 8 cubes round its edge (4 corners and 4 edge-middles), all touching a red face; the two blue faces give 16.
67.
Correct Answer: D [M12]
Explanation:
M is the 13th letter, so M12 breaks the letter-position rule.
68.
Correct Answer: B [Revising a belief when stronger evidence becomes available]
Explanation:
the passage includes "changing one's mind when better evidence appears".
69.
Correct Answer: C [10]
Explanation:
list by the first digit: 1 (103, 112, 121, 130), 2 (202, 211, 220), 3 (301, 310), 4 (400) – 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10.
70.
Correct Answer: C [60 minutes]
Explanation:
the volume is 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 m³ = 24,000 litres; 24,000 ÷ 400 = 60 minutes.
71.
Correct Answer: A [184 m²]
Explanation:
the inner rectangle is 26 m × 16 m = 416 m², so the path is 600 − 416 = 184 m².
72.
Correct Answer: A [30 cm²]
Explanation:
by Pythagoras, x² + (x + 7)² = (x + 8)² gives x² − 2x − 15 = 0, so x = 5; the legs are 5 and 12 and the area is ½ × 5 × 12 = 30 cm².
73.
Correct Answer: B [can result from the success of protection and calls for attention to people living near reserves]
Explanation:
the passage gives both readings: success, and a warning about the cost borne by neighbours.
74.
Correct Answer: C [Thank the writer, correct the notice promptly, and reply courteously stating what has been done.]
Explanation:
the substance deserves action, and a courteous reply restores confidence.
75.
Correct Answer: C [About 100 m]
Explanation:
2²⁰ is about 10 lakh (1,048,576), so the stack is about 0.1 mm × 10⁶ = 10⁵ mm = 100 m (about 105 m).
76.
Correct Answer: B [Choosing harsh words when kind ones are available is a needless choice of the worse over the better.]
Explanation:
as no sensible person prefers the unripe fruit, no one should prefer harsh words when kind ones serve as well.
77.
Correct Answer: B [March]
Explanation:
March: 75 ÷ 3,000 = 2.5 per cent – the highest.
78.
Correct Answer: C [Three]
Explanation:
February (39 ÷ 2,600), April (42 ÷ 2,800) and May (48 ÷ 3,200) each give 1.5 per cent.
79.
Correct Answer: B [1.8 per cent]
Explanation:
total defective 252 ÷ total produced 14,000 = 1.8 per cent.
80.
Correct Answer: A [Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but Statement 2 alone is not]
Explanation:
from Statement 1, the class has 12 + 25 − 1 = 36 students (ranks are distinct). Statement 2 only repeats that Ravi is 12th from the top.
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