UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 5: Mock Test 4 – Advanced Level (80 MCQs)

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UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 5: Mock Test 4 – Advanced Level (80 MCQs) – 80 questions, subject: CSAT Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Passage 1

In many cities, a large share of families live in settlements that have grown without formal permission. Their houses are real, often built room by room over decades, but the families hold no title that a bank will accept. It is often argued that giving them titles would unlock credit, since a house could then be mortgaged to start a business. The evidence is more mixed. Where titles have been granted, families have usually invested more in their homes, because the fear of eviction is gone; but banks have not always lent more, since a small house in a poor neighbourhood is hard to sell if a loan goes bad. A title, it seems, buys security first and credit only sometimes. Policies that promise both may disappoint, and the disappointment may be blamed, wrongly, on the families themselves.

Which of the following best reflects the central argument of the passage?

Correct Answer: A [Titles mainly give families security, which leads them to invest in their homes, while their effect on credit is uncertain.]

Explanation:

the passage separates the two effects: "a title buys security first and credit only sometimes".

2.  

According to the passage, why have banks not always lent more to families with new titles?

Correct Answer: A [Because a small house in a poor area is hard to sell if the borrower defaults]

Explanation:

the passage says such a house "is hard to sell if a loan goes bad", so it is weak security for the bank.

3.  

The last sentence of the passage suggests that the author is concerned that:

Correct Answer: D [when promised credit does not follow, the failure may be unfairly attributed to the poor]

Explanation:

the author warns that disappointment "may be blamed, wrongly, on the families themselves".

4.  

What is the remainder when 1! + 2! + 3! + … + 100! is divided by 12?

Correct Answer: C [9]

Explanation:

from 4! = 24 onwards every term is divisible by 12; 1! + 2! + 3! = 1 + 2 + 6 = 9, so the remainder is 9.

5.  

What is the largest number that divides 398, 436 and 542, leaving remainders 7, 11 and 15 respectively?

Correct Answer: D [17]

Explanation:

subtract the remainders: 391, 425 and 527; their HCF is 17.

6.  

How many of the numbers from 1 to 1,000 are divisible by none of 2, 3 and 5?

Correct Answer: B [266]

Explanation:

by inclusion and exclusion, 734 numbers are divisible by 2, 3 or 5 (500 + 333 + 200 − 166 − 100 − 66 + 33); 1,000 − 734 = 266.

7.  

Statements:

Some pens are pencils.

All pencils are erasers.

No eraser is a sharpener.

Conclusions:

I. No pencil is a sharpener.

II. Some pens are not sharpeners.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both conclusions I and II follow]

Explanation:

all pencils are erasers and no eraser is a sharpener, so no pencil is a sharpener (I). The pens that are pencils are therefore not sharpeners, so some pens are not sharpeners (II).

8.  

In a group of 100 students, 50 study French, 40 study German and 30 study Japanese. 15 study French and German, 10 German and Japanese, 12 French and Japanese, and 5 study all three. How many study none of the three?

Correct Answer: B [12]

Explanation:

at least one language: 50 + 40 + 30 − 15 − 10 − 12 + 5 = 88; none = 100 − 88 = 12.

9.  

Passage 2

A company that uses software to screen job applications often believes it has removed human prejudice from hiring. But the software learns what a "good" candidate looks like from the company's own past decisions. If those decisions favoured graduates of a few colleges, or penalised gaps in employment that are more common among women who took time off to raise children, the software will learn the same preferences and apply them faster and to more people. The prejudice has not been removed; it has been made consistent and harder to see.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Correct Answer: A [Software trained on past decisions can repeat the biases contained in those decisions.]

Explanation:

the passage says the software learns preferences from past decisions and applies them.

10.  

The phrase "made consistent and harder to see" implies that the software:

Correct Answer: D [applies bias uniformly while hiding it behind an appearance of neutrality]

Explanation:

consistent means applied the same way to everyone; harder to see means the neutral appearance hides it.

11.  

How many four-digit numbers can be formed in which all four digits are even and no digit is repeated?

Correct Answer: A [96]

Explanation:

the first digit can be 2, 4, 6 or 8 (4 ways); the remaining three places take any three of the other four even digits in order: 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 ways. Total 4 × 24 = 96.

12.  

Which of the following is the smallest?

Correct Answer: D [5²⁰]

Explanation:

write each as a power with exponent 10 where possible: 2⁵⁰ = 32¹⁰, 3³⁰ = 27¹⁰, 5²⁰ = 25¹⁰; and 6¹⁸ is about 1.0 × 10¹⁴ against 9.5 × 10¹³ for 5²⁰. So 5²⁰ is the smallest.

13.  

In a test, A scored 20 per cent more than B, and B scored 10 per cent less than C. If C scored 250, what did A score?

Correct Answer: C [270]

Explanation:

B = 0.9 × 250 = 225 and A = 1.2 × 225 = 270.

14.  

Passage 3

A biodiversity offset allows a project that destroys a natural habitat to go ahead if the developer restores or protects an equal area elsewhere. On paper, the loss and the gain cancel out. In practice, the two are rarely equal. An old forest or wetland holds species and soils that took centuries to form, while a newly planted area may take decades to support even part of them, and some never return. The gain also comes later than the loss, and may not come at all if the restored site is neglected once the project is approved. Offsets can do some good where loss is truly unavoidable. Used as a routine licence to clear, they turn a promise into a permit.

Which of the following best captures the author's view of biodiversity offsets?

Correct Answer: A [They may be useful where the loss cannot be avoided, but they are misused when treated as a routine permission to destroy habitats.]

Explanation:

the author accepts a limited use and attacks their use as a "routine licence to clear".

15.  

Which of the following is NOT given in the passage as a reason why an offset may fail to balance a loss?

Correct Answer: D [Developers often pay too little for the land they destroy.]

Explanation:

the passage says nothing about the price paid for land.

16.  

"They turn a promise into a permit" most nearly means that routine offsets:

Correct Answer: D [allow a future, uncertain gain to justify a present, certain loss]

Explanation:

the promise of future restoration is used to obtain permission for destruction now.

17.  

"Unless the budget is approved this month, the project will be stopped." The project was not stopped.

Which of the following must be true?

Correct Answer: A [The budget was approved this month.]

Explanation:

"Unless P, Q" means "if not P, then Q". Q (stopped) is false, so "not P" is false: the budget was approved.

18.  

Argument: "Since the helmet law came into force in the city two years ago, head injuries among two-wheeler riders have fallen by 30 per cent. The law has therefore made riders safer."

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?

Correct Answer: D [In the same two years, a new metro line led to a sharp fall in the number of two-wheeler riders in the city.]

Explanation:

fewer riders on the road would reduce injuries even if each rider was no safer – a rival explanation for the 30 per cent fall.

19.  

Passage 4

When a person breaks a leg, colleagues send good wishes and nobody doubts that rest is needed. When a person suffers from depression, many hide it, fearing that they will be thought weak or unreliable. The silence has a cost: those who hide an illness seek help late, when it is harder to treat. Treating mental illness as an illness – no more and no less – would not cure anyone by itself, but it would let people ask for help at the stage when help works best.

The author suggests that the stigma around mental illness is harmful mainly because:

Correct Answer: A [it leads people to delay seeking help until the illness is harder to treat]

Explanation:

the passage says those who hide an illness "seek help late, when it is harder to treat".

20.  

The phrase "no more and no less" is used to stress that mental illness should be:

Correct Answer: D [treated as an ordinary illness, neither dismissed nor dramatised]

Explanation:

"no more and no less" asks that it be seen simply as an illness – not a weakness, and not something exceptional.

21.  

A man buys two articles for ₹1,200 in all. He sells one at a profit of 20 per cent and the other at a loss of 10 per cent, and neither gains nor loses on the whole. What did the first article cost?

Correct Answer: A [₹400]

Explanation:

0.2x = 0.1(1,200 − x) gives x = ₹400; a profit of ₹80 equals a loss of ₹80.

22.  

If the selling price of an article is doubled, the profit is tripled. What is the profit per cent?

Correct Answer: D [100 per cent]

Explanation:

let the cost be C and the price S: 2S − C = 3(S − C) gives S = 2C, a profit of 100 per cent.

23.  

Reasoning set 1

Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F live on the six floors of a building, one on each floor. The ground floor is numbered 1 and the top floor 6.

– A lives on an even-numbered floor.

– There are exactly two floors between A and E.

– C lives on the floor immediately below E.

– F lives above D but below C.

– B does not live on floor 1.

Who lives on the top floor?

Correct Answer: A [B]

Explanation:

the only arrangement is D, A, F, C, E, B from floor 1 to floor 6; B is on the top floor.

24.  

How many persons live between D and E?

Correct Answer: D [Three]

Explanation:

A, F and C live on floors 2, 3 and 4, between D (floor 1) and E (floor 5).

25.  

Who lives on the floor immediately above A?

Correct Answer: C [F]

Explanation:

A is on floor 2 and F on floor 3. (A on floor 4 or 6 leaves no room for C below E with D and F below C.)

26.  

Passage 5

A figure collected to describe a service soon becomes a target by which those who run the service are judged. Once that happens, it begins to change. A hospital judged by the number of patients discharged within a week may discharge some too early; a school judged by its pass rate may discourage weak students from sitting the examination. The number still rises, but it no longer measures what it was meant to measure.

Which of the following is the most logical conclusion from the passage?

Correct Answer: A [When an indicator is made a target, the behaviour it was meant to measure may be distorted, so the indicator can mislead.]

Explanation:

the examples show people improving the number by acts that defeat its purpose.

27.  

A bag contains ₹1, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 5 : 6 : 8. The total value is ₹210. How many 50-paise coins are there?

Correct Answer: B [126]

Explanation:

one set of 5 + 6 + 8 coins is worth 5 + 3 + 2 = ₹10, so there are 21 sets; 50-paise coins = 6 × 21 = 126.

28.  

A can holds 80 litres of milk. A certain quantity is drawn off and replaced with water; this is done twice in all, after which the can holds 51.2 litres of milk. How many litres were drawn off each time?

Correct Answer: B [16]

Explanation:

80 × (1 − x/80)² = 51.2 gives 1 − x/80 = 0.8, so x = 16 litres.

29.  

The average of 50 numbers is 38. If two of them, 45 and 55, are removed, what is the average of the rest?

Correct Answer: C [37.5]

Explanation:

the total falls from 1,900 to 1,800 for 48 numbers: 1,800 ÷ 48 = 37.5.

30.  

In a class, the average mark of the boys is 70 and that of the girls is 80. The class average is 74. What is the ratio of boys to girls?

Correct Answer: D [3 : 2]

Explanation:

by alligation, boys : girls = (80 − 74) : (74 − 70) = 6 : 4 = 3 : 2.

31.  

Passage 6

A temple in which worship has continued for a thousand years is not only a monument; it is also a place in use. Rules made to protect it as a ruin – no new fixtures, no change to the old fabric – may clash with the needs of those who still pray there. Rules made only for worship may allow changes that destroy what made the place worth keeping. Conservation of a living monument is therefore less a matter of choosing between the two than of negotiating between them, case by case.

Which of the following best states the main point of the passage?

Correct Answer: A [Protecting a monument that is still in use needs a balance between conservation and the needs of its users.]

Explanation:

the passage says conservation of a living monument means negotiating between the two sets of needs.

32.  

A class has 45 students ranked by marks, with no ties. Ram is 12th from the top, and Shyam is 5 ranks below Ram. What is Shyam's rank from the bottom?

Correct Answer: D [29th]

Explanation:

Shyam is 12 + 5 = 17th from the top; from the bottom he is 45 − 17 + 1 = 29th.

33.  

Z is the daughter of the only son of X's mother. How is X related to Z?

Correct Answer: C [Father, if X is a man; aunt, if X is a woman]

Explanation:

if X is a man, X is the only son and Z is his daughter; if X is a woman, Z is her brother's daughter, so X is Z's aunt. The statement does not say which.

34.  

Statement: 80 per cent of the candidates who cleared the examination this year had attended a coaching course.

Conclusions:

I. Coaching is necessary to clear the examination.

II. Some candidates cleared the examination without attending a coaching course.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only conclusion II follows]

Explanation:

if 80 per cent of those who cleared had coaching, the other 20 per cent did not; II follows, and the same fact shows that I does not.

35.  

Passage 7

A farmer with two cows cannot bargain with a large buyer, and cannot afford a chilling plant to keep his milk fresh. A cooperative of a thousand such farmers can do both. It collects milk twice a day, pays by the quality and quantity of what each member brings, and owns the plant that processes it. The strength of the model lies not in the cows but in the trust: once members suspect that the managers favour some or that the accounts are not true, they sell to private traders and the cooperative withers.

According to the passage, the success of a dairy cooperative depends most on:

Correct Answer: A [the members' trust in the fairness of its management and accounts]

Explanation:

the passage says "the strength of the model lies … in the trust".

36.  

The passage mentions all of the following as things the dairy cooperative does EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: A [fixing the price at which private traders buy milk]

Explanation:

private traders appear only as buyers members may turn to; the passage never says the cooperative sets their price.

37.  

A father is now four times as old as his son. Five years ago he was seven times as old as his son. What is the father's present age?

Correct Answer: C [40]

Explanation:

let the son be s: 4s − 5 = 7(s − 5) gives s = 10, so the father is 40. Check: 35 and 5 five years ago.

38.  

If students sit 3 to a bench, 4 students are left without a seat. If they sit 4 to a bench, 3 benches are left empty. How many students are there?

Correct Answer: B [52]

Explanation:

with b benches, 3b + 4 = 4(b − 3), so b = 16 and there are 3 × 16 + 4 = 52 students.

39.  

Passage 8

It is often said that a person should be free to do whatever he likes so long as he harms no one else. The principle is attractive because it marks out a private sphere that the state may not enter. Its difficulty lies in the word "harm". If harm means only physical injury, the principle permits much that most people think should be checked, such as a campaign of lies that ruins a reputation. If harm includes offence to others' feelings, almost every act offends someone, and the private sphere vanishes. The principle therefore does not settle disputes about liberty; it moves them to a quarrel about what counts as harm.

According to the passage, the main difficulty with the principle is that:

Correct Answer: D [its outcome depends on how "harm" is defined, and no definition is free of problems]

Explanation:

the passage shows that a narrow definition permits too much and a wide one leaves no private sphere.

40.  

If the author's analysis of the harm principle is accepted, which of the following follows most logically?

Correct Answer: A [People who accept the harm principle may still disagree about particular cases, because they define harm differently.]

Explanation:

the passage says the principle moves disputes to a quarrel about what counts as harm, so agreeing on it leaves cases open.

41.  

The author's attitude to the principle is best described as:

Correct Answer: C [appreciative but critical]

Explanation:

the author grants its appeal and then shows its limits.

42.  

You head a district hospital. A senior doctor, widely respected, is found to have been coming in late for weeks, delaying the morning outpatient clinic. Patients have begun to complain. The doctor's family is going through a serious illness. What should you do first?

Correct Answer: C [Speak to the doctor privately, understand the problem, and agree on an interim arrangement – such as adjusted hours or another doctor opening the clinic – so that patients are not kept waiting.]

Explanation:

this protects the patients first, shows consideration for the doctor and keeps the matter within proper limits.

43.  

A sum of money at compound interest becomes three times itself in 4 years. In how many years will it become 81 times itself?

Correct Answer: D [16]

Explanation:

81 = 3⁴, so it takes four tripling periods: 4 × 4 = 16 years.

44.  

A loan of ₹2,100 is repaid in two equal yearly instalments at 10 per cent compound interest a year. What is each instalment?

Correct Answer: C [₹1,210]

Explanation:

the present values must add to the loan: x/1.1 + x/1.21 = 2,100, which gives x = ₹1,210.

45.  

Passage 9

A plant brought from another continent for its flowers may escape into the forest. With none of the insects or diseases that kept it in check at home, it can spread across the forest floor, crowding out the grasses that deer and cattle eat. Clearing it once rarely works; it returns from seed and root unless the cleared land is quickly replanted with native species.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Correct Answer: D [An introduced plant may spread faster in a new place partly because its natural enemies are absent there.]

Explanation:

the passage says the plant has "none of the insects or diseases that kept it in check at home".

46.  

In a code, "sky is blue" is written as "3 5 7", "blue and green" as "7 2 9" and "green is good" as "5 9 4". What is the code for "and"?

Correct Answer: C [2]

Explanation:

"blue" = 7 and "green" = 9 from the common words, so the remaining code in "blue and green", 2, stands for "and".

47.  

What comes next in the series 4, 6, 12, 30, 90, …?

Correct Answer: B [315]

Explanation:

the multipliers are 1.5, 2, 2.5 and 3, so the next is 90 × 3.5 = 315.

48.  

What comes next in the series AZ, CX, FU, JQ, …?

Correct Answer: B [OL]

Explanation:

the first letters move forward by 2, 3, 4, 5 (A, C, F, J, O) and the second letters back by 2, 3, 4, 5 (Z, X, U, Q, L): OL.

49.  

Passage 10

An electric car has no exhaust pipe, but the electricity that charges it comes from somewhere. Where most power is generated from coal, the emissions are moved from the city street to the power station rather than removed. Even then, there may be a gain: a large power station can be more efficient than many small engines, and its smoke is released away from crowded streets. The full gain, however, arrives only as the grid itself becomes cleaner.

Which of the following best reflects the author's position?

Correct Answer: C [Electric cars may bring some benefit even on a coal-based grid, but their full benefit depends on cleaner electricity.]

Explanation:

the author grants a partial gain and ties the full gain to a cleaner grid.

50.  

The passage assumes that:

Correct Answer: A [where emissions are released affects the harm they cause to people]

Explanation:

the author counts it a gain that smoke is "released away from crowded streets", which assumes location matters.

51.  

A can do a piece of work in 20 days, B in 30 days and C in 60 days. A works every day and is helped by B and C together on every third day. In how many days will the work be finished?

Correct Answer: B [15]

Explanation:

every three days A does 3/20 and B and C do 1/30 + 1/60 = 1/20; together 4/20 = 1/5. Five such blocks, or 15 days, finish the work.

52.  

Working together, A and B finish a job in t days. A alone would take 10 days more than t, and B alone 40 days more than t. What is t?

Correct Answer: B [20]

Explanation:

for this kind of problem t² = 10 × 40, so t = 20. Check: A takes 30 days, B 60 days, and 1/30 + 1/60 = 1/20.

53.  

Passage 11

A cafeteria that places fruit at eye level and sweets on a lower shelf sells more fruit, though nobody is forbidden anything. Governments have borrowed the idea: making enrolment in a pension scheme the default, with the option to leave, raises savings far more than urging people to join. Such "nudges" are cheap and keep choice open. Their critics ask who decides which way people should be nudged, and whether a choice steered without the chooser's knowledge is fully free.

Which of the following is an example of a "nudge" in the sense used in the passage?

Correct Answer: C [Printing organ donation as the default choice on a licence form, with an easy option to decline]

Explanation:

like default pension enrolment, it sets the default while leaving the choice open.

54.  

The critics mentioned in the passage are mainly concerned about:

Correct Answer: D [who chooses the direction of the nudge and whether choices steered without awareness are fully free]

Explanation:

the last sentence states both concerns.

55.  

A train passes two men walking in the same direction as the train at 3 km/h and 5 km/h in 10 seconds and 11 seconds respectively. What is the speed of the train?

Correct Answer: B [25 km/h]

Explanation:

the train's length is the same both times: (v − 3) × 10 = (v − 5) × 11 gives v = 25 km/h.

56.  

A and B start running together from the same point on a circular track 600 m long, in the same direction, at 5 m/s and 7 m/s. After how many seconds will they first meet again?

Correct Answer: C [300]

Explanation:

B gains 2 m every second and meets A again on gaining a full lap: 600 ÷ 2 = 300 seconds.

57.  

A boat goes 30 km downstream and comes back in 4 hours 30 minutes. Its speed in still water is 15 km/h. What is the speed of the stream?

Correct Answer: C [5 km/h]

Explanation:

at 5 km/h the trip takes 30/20 + 30/10 = 1.5 + 3 = 4.5 hours.

58.  

Passage 12

Time for games is often the first thing cut from a crowded school timetable, on the view that it takes hours away from study. Yet children who play learn to take turns, to lose without despair and to keep to rules that bind both sides – lessons that no textbook teaches as well.

The author would most likely disagree with which of the following?

Correct Answer: A [Play time can be cut without any loss to a child's education.]

Explanation:

the author argues that games teach lessons a textbook cannot, so cutting them is a loss.

59.  

1 January 2000 was a Saturday. What day of the week was 1 January 2001?

Correct Answer: B [Monday]

Explanation:

2000 is a leap year (divisible by 400), so it has 366 days – 2 odd days; Saturday + 2 = Monday.

60.  

26 January 2027 is a Tuesday. What day of the week is 26 January 2030?

Correct Answer: B [Saturday]

Explanation:

the three years 2027–28, 2028–29 and 2029–30 contain 365 + 366 + 365 days, because 29 February 2028 falls in between; that is 4 odd days, and Tuesday + 4 = Saturday.

61.  

Passage 13

Turning sea water into drinking water is now routine in some dry coastal cities. The process uses a great deal of energy, and it leaves behind a brine far saltier than the sea, which harms marine life if it is poured back carelessly. A city that builds such a plant has not found free water; it has exchanged a shortage of water for a demand for energy and a problem of waste.

Which of the following best expresses the point of the last sentence?

Correct Answer: D [Desalination solves one problem by creating others that must also be managed.]

Explanation:

the shortage of water is exchanged for energy demand and brine disposal.

62.  

A rectangular field is 40 m long and 30 m wide. How many metres does a man save by walking along the diagonal instead of along two adjacent sides?

Correct Answer: B [20 m]

Explanation:

the diagonal is √(40² + 30²) = 50 m; the two sides add to 70 m, so he saves 20 m.

63.  

The diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm. What is its perimeter?

Correct Answer: A [40 cm]

Explanation:

the diagonals bisect each other at right angles; each side is √(8² + 6²) = 10 cm, so the perimeter is 40 cm.

64.  

How many cubes of side 3 cm can be cut from a cuboid measuring 12 cm × 9 cm × 6 cm?

Correct Answer: B [24]

Explanation:

along the three edges fit 12 ÷ 3 = 4, 9 ÷ 3 = 3 and 6 ÷ 3 = 2 cubes, so 4 × 3 × 2 = 24 cubes.

65.  

Passage 14

When the state buys two crops at an assured price and leaves the others to the market, farmers in regions with assured buying grow those two crops, even where the soil and the water table are better suited to others. Telling such farmers to diversify will achieve little while the risks of the two choices remain so unequal; diversification follows when the alternatives are made comparably safe.

Which of the following is the most valid assumption in the passage?

Correct Answer: A [Farmers choose crops partly on the basis of the risk they carry.]

Explanation:

the argument that unequal risk keeps farmers on the two crops rests on risk shaping the choice.

66.  

In how many ways can 5 persons be seated around a round table, if only their positions relative to one another matter?

Correct Answer: A [24]

Explanation:

fix one person and arrange the other four: 4! = 24 ways.

67.  

In how many ways can 2 persons be chosen from 10 if two particular persons, X and Y, must not both be chosen?

Correct Answer: B [44]

Explanation:

all pairs number C(10, 2) = 45; removing the one pair {X, Y} leaves 44.

68.  

A fair die is thrown twice. What is the probability that the second number is greater than the first?

Correct Answer: B [5/12]

Explanation:

of 36 outcomes, 6 are ties; the other 30 split equally, so 15 have the second number greater: 15/36 = 5/12.

69.  

Two different numbers are chosen at random from 1 to 20. What is the probability that their sum is even?

Correct Answer: B [9/19]

Explanation:

the sum is even when both are odd or both even: 2 × C(10, 2) = 90 of C(20, 2) = 190 pairs, so 9/19.

70.  

In a meeting you are chairing, two officers begin to argue loudly over whose department is to blame for a delayed project, and the meeting is going nowhere. What is the most appropriate step?

Correct Answer: C [Call a short pause, restate the aim of the meeting as finishing the project, and ask each officer to propose one step his department can take now, leaving the question of blame for a separate review.]

Explanation:

this calms the room, turns attention from blame to action and still allows a fair review later.

71.  

A triangle ABC is divided by drawing two straight lines from A to two different points on BC. How many triangles are there in the figure in all?

Correct Answer: D [6]

Explanation:

BC is cut into three parts by four points; any two of the four points with A make a triangle: C(4, 2) = 6.

72.  

A clock is laid flat so that at 12 noon its minute hand points to the north-east. In which direction will its hour hand point at 1:30 p.m.?

Correct Answer: D [East]

Explanation:

the 12 mark points north-east (45° from north). At 1:30 the hour hand is 45° past 12, so it points 45° + 45° = 90° from north – east.

73.  

If 2 ★ 3 = 11, 3 ★ 4 = 19 and 4 ★ 5 = 29, what is 5 ★ 6?

Correct Answer: B [41]

Explanation:

a ★ b = ab + a + b: 6 + 5 = 11, 12 + 7 = 19, 20 + 9 = 29; so 30 + 11 = 41.

74.  

Passage 15

One of Ashoka's rock edicts urges people to honour the sects of others as well as their own, warning that one who praises his own sect while disparaging others in fact injures his own. The thought is that respect for others is not a concession made at the cost of one's own faith but a way of keeping that faith worthy of respect.

According to the passage, the edict holds that disparaging other sects:

Correct Answer: A [harms one's own sect]

Explanation:

the edict warns that one who disparages others "in fact injures his own".

75.  

Which of the following is closest to (0.99)¹⁰?

Correct Answer: B [0.90]

Explanation:

for small x, (1 − x)ⁿ ≈ 1 − nx; with x = 0.01 and n = 10 this is about 0.90 (exactly 0.904…).

76.  

If 20 per cent of A is equal to 30 per cent of B, what is A : B?

Correct Answer: D [3 : 2]

Explanation:

0.2A = 0.3B gives A/B = 0.3/0.2 = 3/2.

77.  

Data set 1

A household's monthly spending was ₹40,000 in 2025 and ₹50,000 in 2026. The table shows the share of each head in the total (per cent).

Head 2025 2026
Food 30 28
Rent 25 22
Education 15 18
Transport 10 12
Health 8 10
Others 12 10

Spending on which head rose by the largest percentage from 2025 to 2026?

Correct Answer: C [Health]

Explanation:

health rose from ₹3,200 to ₹5,000, by 56.25 per cent – the largest.

78.  

How did the household's spending on rent change from 2025 to 2026?

Correct Answer: C [It rose by ₹1,000]

Explanation:

rent was 25 per cent of ₹40,000 = ₹10,000 and then 22 per cent of ₹50,000 = ₹11,000: a rise of ₹1,000, though its share fell.

79.  

What part of the total rise in spending from 2025 to 2026 went to education and transport together?

Correct Answer: C [50 per cent]

Explanation:

education rose by ₹3,000 and transport by ₹2,000, together ₹5,000 of the total rise of ₹10,000 – 50 per cent.

80.  

Question: When the positive integer n is divided by 15, what is left over?

Statement 1: n leaves 2 on division by 3.

Statement 2: n leaves 4 on division by 5.

Correct Answer: C [Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient]

Explanation:

of the remainders 0 to 14, only 14 leaves 2 on division by 3 and 4 on division by 5.

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