UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 7: Mock Test 6 – Advanced Level (80 MCQs)

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UPSC CSAT Mock Tests – Chapter 7: Mock Test 6 – Advanced Level (80 MCQs) – 79 questions, subject: CSAT Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Passage 1

Supporters of a universal basic income argue that paying a small sum to every citizen avoids the errors of targeting: no poor family is left out because a form was wrong or an official was unhelpful, and no one loses the payment by earning a little more. Critics reply that a sum paid to all must be small unless taxes rise sharply, and that a small sum spread thinly may do less for the poorest than a larger one aimed at them. The choice is less between generosity and meanness than between two kinds of error. Targeting wrongly excludes some who are poor; universality knowingly pays many who are not. Which error a country should prefer depends on how well it can identify the poor and how much it can afford to spend.

According to supporters, one advantage of a universal payment is that:

Correct Answer: D [it does not exclude poor families through errors in identifying them]

Explanation:

supporters say "no poor family is left out because a form was wrong or an official was unhelpful".

2.  

Which of the following best states the author's view?

Correct Answer: D [Both approaches involve errors, and the better choice depends on a country's ability to identify the poor and its budget.]

Explanation:

the passage calls it a choice between two kinds of error and names the two deciding factors.

3.  

"Targeting wrongly excludes some who are poor; universality knowingly pays many who are not." The contrast between "wrongly" and "knowingly" suggests that:

Correct Answer: D [the error of targeting is unintended, while the cost of universality is accepted by design]

Explanation:

targeting's exclusions are mistakes; universality pays the non-poor as a planned price of including everyone.

4.  

Which of the following is a perfect cube?

Correct Answer: C [2,744]

Explanation:

2,744 = 14³ (14 × 14 × 14).

5.  

What is the least number that must be subtracted from 2,000 to make it exactly divisible by 23?

Correct Answer: C [22]

Explanation:

2,000 = 23 × 86 + 22, so subtracting the remainder 22 gives 1,978 = 23 × 86.

6.  

Three numbers are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 and their HCF is 12. What is their sum?

Correct Answer: C [72]

Explanation:

the numbers are 12, 24 and 36 (their HCF is 12), and their sum is 72.

7.  

Statements:

No apples are bananas.

All bananas are fruits.

Conclusions:

I. Some fruits are not apples.

II. No apple is a fruit.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only conclusion I follows]

Explanation:

the bananas are fruits and none of them is an apple, so some fruits are not apples (I); nothing stops apples being fruits, so II does not follow.

8.  

Reasoning set 1

A team of three is to be chosen from six officers A, B, C, D, E and F.

– A and B cannot both be chosen.

– If C is chosen, D must also be chosen.

– E can be chosen only if F is chosen.

– Exactly one of D and F is chosen.

If C is chosen, which of the following must also be chosen?

Correct Answer: D [D]

Explanation:

the second condition says C needs D.

9.  

Which pair can never be chosen together?

Correct Answer: D [C and F]

Explanation:

C needs D, and D and F cannot both be chosen, so C and F never go together.

10.  

How many different teams can be chosen?

Correct Answer: D [Four]

Explanation:

the valid teams are ACD, AEF, BCD and BEF – four in all.

11.  

Passage 2

Many patients die each year waiting for organs that could have come from people who died in accidents. Families asked at the hospital bedside, in shock and grief, often refuse, though some say later that they would have agreed had they known the wishes of the person who died. Talking about donation in calm times – in families, schools and public campaigns – may therefore do more to raise donation than any change made at the hospital itself.

Which of the following is the main point of the passage?

Correct Answer: D [Knowing a person's wishes in advance may help families agree to donation, so the subject should be discussed before a crisis.]

Explanation:

the passage links refusals to shock and ignorance of the person's wishes, and proposes discussion in calm times.

12.  

The passage assumes that:

Correct Answer: A [people who discuss donation beforehand are more likely to make their wishes known to their families]

Explanation:

the proposal works only if calm-time talk leads people to make their wishes known.

13.  

A number leaves a remainder of 29 when divided by 56. What remainder will it leave when divided by 8?

Correct Answer: C [5]

Explanation:

the number is 56k + 29; 56k is a multiple of 8, so the remainder is 29 ÷ 8, which leaves 5.

14.  

What is the value of (0.2)³ ÷ 0.04?

Correct Answer: B [0.2]

Explanation:

(0.2)³ = 0.008, and 0.008 ÷ 0.04 = 0.2.

15.  

A man spends 75 per cent of his income. His income rises by 20 per cent and his spending by 10 per cent. By what percentage do his savings rise?

Correct Answer: C [50 per cent]

Explanation:

on an income of 100, savings were 25. The new income is 120 and spending 82.5, so savings are 37.5 – a rise of 50 per cent.

16.  

Passage 3

When a single tax on goods and services replaced many separate levies, the Union and the States gave up part of their separate power to tax and agreed to decide rates together in a council. Each side gained something: a common market without tax barriers at State borders, and a share in a larger, more buoyant tax base. Each side also lost the freedom to act alone. Such an arrangement lasts only as long as both sides believe the bargain is fair. If States come to feel that decisions are made over their heads, or that promised compensation is uncertain, the cooperation that the council requires may give way to suspicion, even though the rules remain unchanged.

According to the passage, what did the Union and the States give up under the new arrangement?

Correct Answer: D [Part of their separate power to tax and the freedom to act alone on rates]

Explanation:

the passage says each "gave up part of their separate power to tax" and "lost the freedom to act alone".

17.  

The author suggests that the arrangement depends most on:

Correct Answer: A [the belief of both sides that the bargain is fair]

Explanation:

the passage says it "lasts only as long as both sides believe the bargain is fair".

18.  

Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's concern?

Correct Answer: A [The council takes most decisions by consensus, and compensation to States has been paid in full and on time.]

Explanation:

the concern is that States may feel decisions are imposed and compensation uncertain; consensus and full payment answer both.

19.  

Statement: In a district, many children in government schools cannot read a simple paragraph even after five years of schooling.

Courses of action:

I. Teachers should assess each child's reading level and group children for teaching by level for part of the day.

II. All government schools in the district should be closed and the children shifted to private schools.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only course of action I follows]

Explanation:

assessing and teaching by level directly addresses the reading gap; closing all schools is drastic and impractical.

20.  

Statement: "Only those who have passed Class XII may apply for the post." Ravi has passed Class XII.

Which of the following must be true?

Correct Answer: D [Ravi meets this condition for applying, but the statement does not say whether he has applied or meets other conditions.]

Explanation:

"only those who have passed" makes passing necessary, not sufficient: Ravi meets the stated condition, and no more follows.

21.  

If CAT is coded as 24, because C = 3, A = 1 and T = 20 are added, what is the code for DOG?

Correct Answer: B [26]

Explanation:

D = 4, O = 15, G = 7; 4 + 15 + 7 = 26.

22.  

What comes next in the series 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 15, …?

Correct Answer: C [30]

Explanation:

the steps alternate: add 1, then double. 15 × 2 = 30.

23.  

Passage 4

Farmers once saved seed from their own fields and exchanged it with neighbours, keeping alive hundreds of local varieties of rice and millet. As uniform high-yielding seed spread, many of these varieties were no longer sown and were lost. Some survive in seed banks, frozen for the future. But a variety kept in a freezer stops adapting, while one grown in fields goes on changing with the climate and with the pests it meets. Seed banks are insurance; they are not a substitute for farmers who keep growing the old varieties.

Why, according to the passage, is a seed bank not a substitute for growing old varieties in fields?

Correct Answer: A [Seeds in a freezer stop adapting, while those grown in fields keep adapting to climate and pests.]

Explanation:

the passage contrasts the frozen variety that "stops adapting" with the one that "goes on changing".

24.  

The author would most likely support:

Correct Answer: D [encouraging some farmers to keep growing local varieties alongside storing seeds in banks]

Explanation:

the author values both: banks as insurance and fields where varieties go on adapting.

25.  

An article is sold at a loss of 10 per cent. Had it been sold for ₹90 more, there would have been a gain of 5 per cent. What is the cost price?

Correct Answer: B [₹600]

Explanation:

the gap between a 10 per cent loss and a 5 per cent gain is 15 per cent of the cost, which is ₹90; the cost is ₹600.

26.  

A shopkeeper allows a discount of 20 per cent on the marked price and still gains 20 per cent. By what percentage above the cost price is the marked price?

Correct Answer: C [50 per cent]

Explanation:

selling price = 1.2 × cost = 0.8 × marked price, so the marked price is 1.5 × cost – 50 per cent above it.

27.  

If 3A = 4B = 6C, what is A : B : C?

Correct Answer: A [4 : 3 : 2]

Explanation:

let 3A = 4B = 6C = 12; then A = 4, B = 3 and C = 2.

28.  

Passage 5

In trials of a new medicine, some patients receive a dummy pill without knowing it, and a share of them improve. The effect is not imaginary – pain and some other symptoms truly ease – but it comes from expectation rather than from the drug. That is why a medicine is judged not by whether patients improve, but by whether they improve more than those who took the dummy pill.

Which of the following follows from the passage?

Correct Answer: D [Comparison with a group taking a dummy pill is needed to tell the drug's effect from the effect of expectation.]

Explanation:

the last sentence says a medicine is judged by improvement beyond the dummy-pill group.

29.  

How much water must be added to 30 litres of a solution containing 20 per cent sugar to make it a 12 per cent solution?

Correct Answer: C [20 litres]

Explanation:

the sugar, 6 litres, stays the same and must be 12 per cent of the new total: 6 ÷ 0.12 = 50 litres, so 20 litres of water is added.

30.  

What is the average of the first ten multiples of 7?

Correct Answer: B [38.5]

Explanation:

the multiples 7, 14, …, 70 average (7 + 70) ÷ 2 = 38.5.

31.  

The average mark of 30 students was found after one mark was wrongly entered as 85 instead of 58. By how much does the average fall when the mistake is corrected?

Correct Answer: B [0.9]

Explanation:

the total falls by 85 − 58 = 27, so the average falls by 27 ÷ 30 = 0.9.

32.  

Passage 6

Folk arts once lived on the support of village festivals and local patrons. As those patrons dwindled, some forms found new audiences in cities and on television, but often in a shortened, stage-ready form. A tradition that survives only as a performance for visitors may keep its costumes and lose the occasions that gave it meaning.

The author implies that when folk arts move to new audiences:

Correct Answer: A [they may survive outwardly while losing the social settings that gave them meaning]

Explanation:

the last sentence says a tradition "may keep its costumes and lose the occasions that gave it meaning".

33.  

Should mobile phones be banned inside examination halls?

Arguments:

I. Yes. Phones can be used to copy or to receive answers during the examination.

II. No. Candidates may need to call home in an emergency.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only argument I is strong]

Explanation:

I is directly linked to the fairness of the examination; II is weak, since an emergency can be handled through the invigilator without each candidate holding a phone.

34.  

Argument: "Sales of our product rose by 20 per cent in the year we began advertising on television. Television advertising therefore raised our sales."

Which of the following points to the main weakness of the argument?

Correct Answer: D [The argument does not consider other changes in that year, such as a price cut or a rise in demand for all such products.]

Explanation:

the argument takes "after" for "because"; a rival cause in the same year could explain the rise.

35.  

Passage 7

Before elections, parties often promise free goods and services. Some of these – free school meals, for example – are investments that repay themselves in health and learning. Others give a short-term benefit at a long-term cost, using money that might have gone to roads, schools or hospitals. The difficulty is that voters rarely see the second cost, because it is spread across future years and across services that never appear. A rule requiring that each promise come with an estimate of its cost and of how it will be paid for would not ban any promise; it would make the trade-off visible.

According to the author, the proposed rule would:

Correct Answer: A [make the cost of each promise and its trade-off visible to voters]

Explanation:

the last sentence says it "would make the trade-off visible".

36.  

The author's distinction between free school meals and other promises rests on the idea that:

Correct Answer: D [some spending yields future returns that outweigh its cost, while some does not]

Explanation:

school meals "repay themselves in health and learning"; others give short-term benefit at long-term cost.

37.  

The sum of the ages of five children born at intervals of three years each is 50 years. What is the age of the youngest child?

Correct Answer: B [4]

Explanation:

if the youngest is y, the ages are y, y + 3, y + 6, y + 9 and y + 12; 5y + 30 = 50 gives y = 4.

38.  

A number exceeds two-fifths of itself by 36. What is the number?

Correct Answer: B [60]

Explanation:

x − (2/5)x = (3/5)x = 36, so x = 60.

39.  

A sum of money at 10 per cent compound interest a year amounts to ₹6,050 in two years. What is the sum?

Correct Answer: B [₹5,000]

Explanation:

6,050 ÷ (1.1 × 1.1) = 6,050 ÷ 1.21 = ₹5,000.

40.  

What is the difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on ₹16,000 for three years at 5 per cent a year?

Correct Answer: C [₹122]

Explanation:

CI = 16,000 × (1.05³ − 1) = ₹2,522; SI = ₹2,400; the difference is ₹122.

41.  

Passage 8

An employee who discovers that her organisation is hiding a danger to the public faces two loyalties. One is to the colleagues and the institution that trusted her; the other is to the people who may be harmed. Going outside the organisation at once may expose a wrong, but it may also damage people who were not at fault and close the door to correction from within. Staying silent protects the institution at the public's cost. Most codes of conduct therefore ask that a concern be raised first through internal channels, and that going outside be justified when those channels fail or when the harm is serious and imminent. Such rules mean little, however, unless those who raise concerns are protected from reprisal.

According to the passage, when is going outside the organisation justified under most codes?

Correct Answer: A [When internal channels fail, or when the harm is serious and imminent]

Explanation:

the passage states these two conditions.

42.  

Which of the following best captures the author's view of such codes?

Correct Answer: D [They strike a reasonable balance, but depend on protection for those who raise concerns.]

Explanation:

the author explains the balance and adds that it "means little" without protection from reprisal.

43.  

The passage implies that staying silent about the danger:

Correct Answer: A [serves loyalty to the institution at the expense of the public]

Explanation:

the passage says silence "protects the institution at the public's cost".

44.  

11 is related to 122 in the same way as 9 is related to which number?

Correct Answer: B [82]

Explanation:

122 = 11² + 1, so the answer is 9² + 1 = 82.

45.  

A clock loses 5 minutes every hour. It is set right at 12 noon on a Monday. When will it next show the correct time?

Correct Answer: D [12 noon on Sunday]

Explanation:

the clock shows the right time again after losing 12 hours (720 minutes); at 5 minutes an hour that takes 144 hours, or 6 days – 12 noon on Sunday.

46.  

A leap year begins on a Thursday. How many Fridays does it have?

Correct Answer: C [53]

Explanation:

a leap year has 52 weeks and 2 extra days; beginning on a Thursday, the extra days are Thursday and Friday, so there are 53 Fridays.

47.  

Passage 9

Lightning kills more people in some parts of the country than floods or cyclones, mostly farmers and herders caught in open fields. Forecasts can now warn of thunderstorms an hour or more ahead, but a warning helps only if it reaches the person in the field, in a language that person understands, with advice on what to do.

Which of the following is the most logical conclusion from the passage?

Correct Answer: A [Better forecasts save lives only if warnings reach people in time and in a usable form.]

Explanation:

the passage makes the value of the warning depend on its reaching the person with clear advice.

48.  

A can do one-third of a job in 5 days, and B can do two-fifths of it in 10 days. In how many days can they finish the whole job together?

Correct Answer: D [9⅜ days]

Explanation:

A alone takes 15 days and B alone 25 days; together they do 1/15 + 1/25 = 8/75 a day, taking 75/8 = 9⅜ days.

49.  

A pipe can fill a tank in 10 hours. Because of a leak at the bottom, it takes 12 hours. In how many hours can the leak alone empty the full tank?

Correct Answer: C [60]

Explanation:

the leak removes 1/10 − 1/12 = 1/60 of the tank an hour, so it empties a full tank in 60 hours.

50.  

Without stoppages a bus runs at 54 km/h; with stoppages its average speed is 45 km/h. For how many minutes does the bus stop in each hour?

Correct Answer: B [10]

Explanation:

in an hour the bus loses 9 km of running, which takes 9 ÷ 54 hours = 10 minutes.

51.  

Two people start from the same point on a circular path 1.2 km long and walk in opposite directions at 4 km/h and 5 km/h. After how many minutes do they first meet?

Correct Answer: B [8]

Explanation:

walking in opposite directions they close at 4 + 5 = 9 km/h; 1.2 ÷ 9 hours = 8 minutes.

52.  

A person covers the first third of a journey at 10 km/h, the next third at 20 km/h and the last third at 60 km/h. What is the average speed for the whole journey?

Correct Answer: A [18 km/h]

Explanation:

for equal distances, the average is the harmonic mean: 3 ÷ (1/10 + 1/20 + 1/60) = 3 ÷ (1/6) = 18 km/h.

53.  

Passage 10

A country with a long coastline can move heavy goods between its own ports by sea at a fraction of the fuel used by trucks. Yet much cargo still travels by road, because a ship saves money only if the port handles it quickly and the last stretch to the factory is short and cheap. A cheap sea voyage that ends in three days of waiting at the port and a costly road journey inland is no bargain.

According to the passage, why does much cargo still travel by road?

Correct Answer: A [The savings from shipping are lost if port handling is slow and the onward journey is costly.]

Explanation:

the passage says a ship saves money "only if the port handles it quickly and the last stretch … is short and cheap".

54.  

Which of the following would most likely increase the use of coastal shipping, according to the passage?

Correct Answer: D [Faster cargo handling at ports and better connections from ports to inland factories]

Explanation:

it removes the two obstacles the passage names.

55.  

A room is 12 m long, 9 m wide and 8 m high. What is the length of the longest rod that can be placed in it?

Correct Answer: B [17 m]

Explanation:

the longest rod lies along the room's diagonal: √(12² + 9² + 8²) = √289 = 17 m.

56.  

If the radius of a cylinder is doubled and its height halved, how does its volume change?

Correct Answer: A [It doubles]

Explanation:

V = πr²h; the new volume is π(2r)²(h/2) = 2πr²h – twice the old.

57.  

Passage 11

Much research is paid for by the public through grants to universities, yet the results are often published in journals that charge high fees to read them. A doctor in a small hospital or a student in a poor college may be unable to read work that taxes paid for. Open-access publishing makes papers free to read, but some open-access journals charge authors a fee to publish, which shifts the barrier from readers to writers – and may tempt weaker journals to accept papers for the fee.

Which of the following best reflects the author's view of open-access publishing?

Correct Answer: D [It helps readers, but author fees can create a new barrier and new risks to quality.]

Explanation:

the passage grants the gain to readers and names two problems with author fees.

58.  

The phrase "shifts the barrier from readers to writers" means that:

Correct Answer: A [the cost of access moves from those who want to read a paper to those who want to publish one]

Explanation:

free reading is paid for by fees on authors – the cost has moved, not gone.

59.  

In how many ways can 3 different prizes be given to 4 students, if a student may receive more than one prize?

Correct Answer: C [64]

Explanation:

each of the 3 prizes can go to any of the 4 students: 4 × 4 × 4 = 64.

60.  

How many four-digit numbers have their digits in strictly increasing order from left to right (for example, 1357)?

Correct Answer: B [126]

Explanation:

the digits must be four different non-zero digits (0 cannot come first, and nothing is smaller), and each choice of four gives one number: C(9, 4) = 126.

61.  

A bag contains 4 red, 5 green and 6 blue balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that it is not green?

Correct Answer: C [2/3]

Explanation:

10 of the 15 balls are not green: 10/15 = 2/3.

62.  

Three friends each choose one of the numbers 1, 2 and 3 at random and independently. What is the probability that all three choose different numbers?

Correct Answer: B [2/9]

Explanation:

there are 3³ = 27 equally likely outcomes, of which 3! = 6 use all three numbers: 6/27 = 2/9.

63.  

Passage 12

During adolescence the body's clock shifts later, so teenagers tend to fall asleep later at night. When school begins early, many of them start the day short of sleep, and tired students learn less. Some schools that moved their start time later have reported better attendance and alertness.

Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

Correct Answer: D [School timings that ignore changes in teenagers' sleep patterns may reduce learning.]

Explanation:

early starts leave many teenagers short of sleep, and tired students learn less.

64.  

You are the head of a government office. A clerk with a good record admits that he made an error that caused a citizen's pension to be delayed by three months. The citizen has suffered hardship. There is pressure from senior colleagues to quietly correct the record and not mention the error. What should you do?

Correct Answer: C [Release the pension with arrears at once, record the error honestly, apologise to the citizen, and use the case to tighten the checking process, treating the clerk's honest admission as a mitigating factor.]

Explanation:

this puts the citizen first, keeps the record true, improves the system and is fair to an honest employee.

65.  

For how many whole numbers n from 1 to 100 is n² + n an even number?

Correct Answer: D [100]

Explanation:

n² + n = n(n + 1) is a product of two consecutive numbers, one of which is even; so it is even for every n – all 100.

66.  

If each of 140 crore people drinks 2 litres of water a day, about how much water is drunk in a year?

Correct Answer: C [About 1 lakh crore litres]

Explanation:

140 crore × 2 × 365 ≈ 1,02,200 crore litres, which is about 1 lakh crore litres.

67.  

Passage 13

A nuclear power station produces electricity without smoke and with little land, but its spent fuel stays dangerous for thousands of years. A decision to build one is therefore also a decision about where that waste will be kept long after the station has closed and those who built it are gone.

The passage suggests that the decision to build a nuclear power station:

Correct Answer: B [commits future generations to managing its waste]

Explanation:

the waste stays dangerous for thousands of years, so its storage is a burden on the future.

68.  

In the English alphabet, which letter is seventh to the right of the fifteenth letter from the left?

Correct Answer: C [V]

Explanation:

the 15th letter is O; seven places to its right is the 22nd letter, V.

69.  

In 2, 5, 14, 41, …, which number should come after 41?

Correct Answer: C [122]

Explanation:

each term is three times the previous one minus 1: 41 × 3 − 1 = 122.

70.  

A cuboid measuring 3 cm × 4 cm × 5 cm is painted on all its faces and cut into 1 cm cubes. How many of the small cubes have no face painted?

Correct Answer: A [6]

Explanation:

the unpainted cubes form an inner block of (3 − 2) × (4 − 2) × (5 − 2) = 1 × 2 × 3 = 6.

71.  

Passage 14

A highway built through a forest divides it in two. Animals that need large ranges, such as elephants and tigers, must cross the road or stay confined to one side. Underpasses and overpasses placed on known animal paths can restore some movement, but only if they are built where the animals actually cross, not where they are cheapest to build.

Which of the following is assumed by the author?

Correct Answer: A [Animals will use crossings placed on the routes they already travel.]

Explanation:

the insistence on placing crossings "where the animals actually cross" assumes that animals use crossings on their own routes.

72.  

A newly joined colleague keeps asking you basic questions about office procedure while you are busy with an urgent task. What is the best response?

Correct Answer: C [Explain that you are on an urgent task, fix a short time later in the day to go over the procedures together, and point the colleague to the office manual meanwhile.]

Explanation:

this protects the urgent work, keeps goodwill and still helps the newcomer learn.

73.  

Passage 15

Gandhi left a test for moments of doubt: recall the face of the poorest and weakest person you have seen, and ask whether the step you are about to take will be of any use to that person. The test does not tell an official which file to sign; it tells the official whose interest to keep in view while deciding.

According to the passage, the purpose of the test is to:

Correct Answer: B [keep the interest of the poorest in view when deciding]

Explanation:

the last sentence says it tells the official "whose interest to keep in view".

74.  

Statement: The number of students joining engineering colleges in the State has fallen for three years, while admissions to courses in data science have risen sharply.

Conclusions:

I. Interest in some newer fields of study has grown among students in the State.

II. Engineering colleges in the State will all close within three years.

Which of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only conclusion I follows]

Explanation:

the sharp rise in data-science admissions shows growing interest in a newer field; II is an extreme forecast that does not follow.

75.  

In a class of 40 students ranked without ties, Meena is 9th from the top. Arul is 6 places below Meena. What is Arul's rank from the bottom?

Correct Answer: B [26th]

Explanation:

Arul is 9 + 6 = 15th from the top, so 40 − 15 + 1 = 26th from the bottom.

76.  

Data set 1

The table shows the number of students who appeared and passed in an examination, by stream. The figures are for practice only.

Stream Appeared Passed
Arts 400 300
Science 500 450
Commerce 350 280
Vocational 250 175

Which stream had the highest pass percentage?

Correct Answer: B [Science]

Explanation:

Science: 450 ÷ 500 = 90 per cent – the highest.

77.  

What was the overall pass percentage, correct to one decimal place?

Correct Answer: B [80.3 per cent]

Explanation:

1,205 passed out of 1,500: 80.3 per cent.

78.  

About what share of all the students who failed came from the Arts stream?

Correct Answer: C [About 34 per cent]

Explanation:

100 failed in Arts out of 1,500 − 1,205 = 295 failures in all: about 34 per cent.

79.  

Question: On which day of the week did 1 March fall in a certain year?

Statement 1: In that year, 1 February fell on a Sunday.

Statement 2: That year was not a leap year.

Correct Answer: C [Both statements together are sufficient, but neither statement alone is sufficient]

Explanation:

together February has 28 days, exactly four weeks, so 1 March falls on a Sunday, like 1 February.

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