UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 1: Using These Tests – Pattern, Blueprint and Score Analysis (20 MCQs)

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UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 1: Using These Tests – Pattern, Blueprint and Score Analysis (20 MCQs) – 20 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

The Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination consists of:

Correct Answer: C [two compulsory papers of 200 marks each]

Explanation:

the notice says the Preliminary Examination consists of two compulsory papers of 200 marks each.

2.  

Each Prelims paper lasts:

Correct Answer: D [two hours]

Explanation:

the notice gives each paper of the Preliminary Examination a duration of two hours.

3.  

For a wrong answer, the penalty is:

Correct Answer: D [one-third of the marks of the question]

Explanation:

the notice deducts one-third of the marks assigned to a question for each wrong answer.

4.  

If a candidate marks two answers to a question and one of them is correct, the answer is:

Correct Answer: C [treated as wrong]

Explanation:

the notice treats more than one answer as a wrong answer, even if one of them is correct, and the same penalty applies.

5.  

A blank answer:

Correct Answer: D [carries no penalty]

Explanation:

the notice: "no penalty for that question".

6.  

The minimum qualifying mark in Paper II (CSAT) is:

Correct Answer: B [33 per cent]

Explanation:

the notice fixes a minimum of 33 per cent in Paper II.

7.  

In each test of this book, the area with the largest number of questions is:

Correct Answer: B [Economy and Social Development]

Explanation:

Economy and Social Development has 16 questions in each test, more than any other area in Table 1.3.

8.  

Under the 2026 notice, the question papers of the Preliminary Examination are set in:

Correct Answer: B [Hindi and English]

Explanation:

The 2026 notice states that the question papers will be set both in Hindi and English.

9.  

In a 100-question paper of two hours, the average time a question is about:

Correct Answer: A [72 seconds]

Explanation:

120 ÷ 100 minutes.

10.  

Consider the following statements about the tests in this book:

1. Each test has 100 original questions.
2. Tests 5–8 have more hard items than Tests 1–4.
3. The difficulty tags are taken from UPSC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

1 and 2 are stated in Section 1.3; 3 is wrong, since the tags are the academy's judgement.

11.  

Consider the following statements: Statement-I: A guess made after striking out one option has a positive expected value.

Statement-II: With three options left, the expected gain (2/3) is larger than the expected loss (about 0.44). Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

2/3 − 0.44 ≈ +0.23 (Table 1.4), and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

12.  

In Paper I (2 marks a question, 0.66 deducted for a wrong answer), a guess between the two options left after striking out two with sure reasons is worth on average about:

Correct Answer: C [+0.67]

Explanation:

(1/2 × 2) − (1/2 × 0.66) = 1.00 − 0.33, about +0.67 marks, as in Table 1.4.

13.  

In the "How many of the above" form:

Correct Answer: D [every statement must be judged]

Explanation:

the options give only a count, so every statement must be judged.

14.  

The UPSC portal for representations on Prelims questions and the answer key is:

Correct Answer: A [QPRep]

Explanation:

the notice names the Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep) for representations on questions and the answer key.

15.  

Representations on the Prelims question papers may be made within:

Correct Answer: C [5 days]

Explanation:

the notice allows representations in a time frame of 5 days, from the third day of the examination to 6 p.m. of the seventh day.

16.  

The Universal Registration Number described in the notice is:

Correct Answer: B [registered once in a lifetime]

Explanation:

the notice: "registered only once in lifetime".

17.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. IBM 805 Test Scoring Machine
2. Kansas Silent Reading Test
3. Lindquist's optical scanner
4. First Scholastic Aptitude Test

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [2-4-1-3]

Explanation:

1914, 1926, 1937, 1955.

18.  

"K-R-J-T-S" lists:

Correct Answer: B [the five error types]

Explanation:

Knowledge, Reading, Judgement, Time, Sheet (Mnemonic 2).

19.  

In the worked example, a candidate with 58 right and 24 wrong scores:

Correct Answer: B [100.16]

Explanation:

116 − 15.84.

20.  

For the merit list of the Preliminary Examination, the marks counted are those of:

Correct Answer: A [Paper I only]

Explanation:

Paper II (CSAT) is qualifying only.

➤ Eight full-length GS tests with every option explained, blueprints, answer keys and error analysis – U26 · Prelims GS Mock Tests (UPSC book, ₹249): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/upsc-prelims-gs-mock-tests

📘 U26 · Prelims GS Mock Tests with Analysis – UPSC Civil Services (Prelims GS Paper I)
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