UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 9: Mock Test 8 – Advanced Level (100 MCQs)

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UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 9: Mock Test 8 – Advanced Level (100 MCQs) – 100 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

India has NOT ratified which one of the following ILO Conventions?

Correct Answer: A [Convention 189 on domestic workers]

Explanation:

India has not ratified ILO Convention 189 (2011) on decent work for domestic workers.

2.  

Consider the following statements:

I. A State Government can declare a national park under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

II. Grazing of livestock is not permitted inside a national park.

III. Biosphere reserves in India are designated by the Union Government, and some of them are also in UNESCO's World Network of Biosphere Reserves.

IV. India's first national park was set up in 1936 as the Hailey National Park, now the Jim Corbett National Park.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct (Section 35 of the Act covers declaration and the bar on grazing).

3.  

Consider the following pairs of tools and uses:

I. Restriction enzymes – cut DNA

II. DNA ligase – join DNA pieces

III. Gel electrophoresis – separates DNA by size

IV. PCR – copies DNA inside living cells

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

PCR makes millions of copies in a test tube.

4.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. SEWA – 1972

II. Kudumbashree – Tamil Nadu

III. SHG–bank linkage by NABARD – 1992

IV. Malegam Committee – NBFC-MFIs

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Kudumbashree was launched in 1998 by Kerala (now Keralam); Tamil Nadu's programme is Mahalir Thittam.

5.  

Consider the following pairs of drone categories under the Drone Rules, 2021: I. Nano drone – up to 250 g

II. Micro drone – more than 250 g, up to 5 kg

III. Small drone – more than 2 kg, up to 50 kg

IV. Large drone – more than 150 kg

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

a micro drone weighs up to 2 kg and a small drone more than 2 kg and up to 25 kg.

6.  

Which one of the following landforms is formed by deposition from groundwater?

Correct Answer: A [Stalactite]

Explanation:

a stalactite hangs from the roof of a limestone cave, built up by calcium carbonate deposited from dripping groundwater.

7.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Supreme Court upheld the Special Intensive Revision of electoral rolls on 27 May 2026.

Statement-II: The Special Intensive Revision began with Bihar in 2025.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but where the revision began does not explain why the Court upheld it.

8.  

Consider the following programmes and years:

I. Drought Prone Areas Programme – 1973

II. Desert Development Programme – 1977–78

III. Atal Bhujal Yojana – 2019

IV. PMKSY – 2010

How many of the above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

PMKSY was launched in 2015.

9.  

Consider the following pairs about the Eighth Schedule:

I. 21st Amendment – Sindhi

II. Original Constitution – 14 languages

III. 92nd Amendment – Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali

IV. 96th Amendment – Odia

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct; the 96th Amendment changed "Oriya" to "Odia".

10.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Beveridge Report – 1942

II. Twenty Point Programme – 1975

III. JAM trinity – Economic Survey 2016–17

IV. Universal Basic Income – Economic Survey 2014–15

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the years are swapped: JAM came in the Economic Survey 2014–15 and UBI in 2016–17.

11.  

Consider the following pairs of crops and leading producing States:

I. Jowar – Maharashtra

II. Jute – West Bengal III. Groundnut – Gujarat

IV. Tea – Keralam

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Assam is the leading producer of tea; Keralam grows tea but leads in rubber.

12.  

Consider the following statements:

1. CPGRAMS is run by the DARPG.
2. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 came into force in 1995.
3. Section 12 of that Act gives free legal aid to persons in custody without an income limit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

13.  

Consider the following statements about 1946:

I. The Cabinet Mission Plan was announced on 16 May 1946.

II. The Interim Government headed by Nehru took office on 2 September 1946.

III. The RIN mutiny began on HMIS Talwar at Bombay on 18 February 1946.

IV. The Constituent Assembly was to have 389 members under the Cabinet Mission Plan.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

14.  

Consider the following statements about India and the Maldives:

1. The Maldives became independent in 1965.
2. Operation Cactus was carried out in 1988.
3. Operation Neer brought drinking water to Malé in 2014.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

15.  

Which of the following Articles were added to Part IV of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment, 1976?

Correct Answer: A [Articles 39A, 43A and 48A]

Explanation:

the 42nd Amendment added Article 39A (equal justice and free legal aid), Article 43A (workers in management) and Article 48A (environment).

16.  

In Alembic Pharmaceuticals v. Rohit Prajapati (2020), the Supreme Court held that:

Correct Answer: B [the grant of ex post facto environmental clearance is contrary to law]

Explanation:

the Court held ex post facto environmental clearance to be contrary to the basic principles of environmental law, though it let the units run on payment of compensation.

17.  

Consider the following statements about drought:

I. A meteorological drought is a rainfall deficiency of more than 25 per cent.

II. A deficiency of 26–50 per cent is moderate drought.

III. A deficiency of more than 50 per cent is severe drought.

IV. Drought is declared by the Union Government.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

drought is declared by the State Government; the Ministry of Agriculture is the nodal ministry.

18.  

Consider the following statements about emergency provisions:

I. A National Emergency must be approved by Parliament within one month.

II. President's Rule must be approved within two months.

III. One-tenth of the members of the Lok Sabha can demand a special sitting to disapprove an emergency.

IV. A Financial Emergency was proclaimed in 1991.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

a Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been proclaimed.

19.  

Consider the following:

I. Plasmids

II. Viruses

III. Agrobacterium

IV. DNA ligase

How many of the above are used as vectors to carry a gene into a host?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

plasmids, viruses and Agrobacterium act as vectors; DNA ligase only joins DNA pieces.

20.  

Consider the following pairs of rulers and their measures or events:

I. Ghiyasuddin Tughluq – Tughlaqabad

II. Muhammad bin Tughluq – transfer of the capital to Daulatabad, 1327

III. Firuz Tughluq – diwan-i-kohi

IV. Sikandar Lodi – Battle of Panipat, 1526

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the diwan-i-kohi (agriculture department) was Muhammad bin Tughluq's; Firuz set up the diwan-i-khairat. Ibrahim Lodi fought at Panipat in 1526.

21.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. DNA double helix, 1953 – Watson and Crick

II. First recombinant DNA, 1973 – Cohen and Boyer

III. PCR, 1983 – Kary Mullis

IV. CRISPR-Cas9 as an editing tool, 2012 – Doudna and Charpentier

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

22.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India had 106 national parks (WII National Wildlife Database, November 2023).
2. It had 573 wildlife sanctuaries.
3. Protected areas covered 5.32 per cent of India's area.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three figures are from the WII National Wildlife Database, updated on 27 November 2023.

23.  

Consider the following statements:

1. In DNA, adenine pairs with thymine and guanine with cytosine.
2. RNA has uracil in place of thymine.
3. Adenine pairs with guanine in DNA.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

adenine pairs with thymine, not guanine.

24.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Department of Biotechnology was set up in 1986.
2. The Biosafety Rules under the Environment (Protection) Act date from 1989.
3. Har Gobind Khorana won the Nobel Prize in 1968.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

25.  

Consider the following statements about the Security Council:

I. The Security Council was enlarged from 11 to 15 members in 1965.

II. Its non-permanent members are elected for three years.

III. A decision on a substantive matter needs nine votes with no veto by a permanent member.

IV. India has been a non-permanent member eight times, most recently in 2021–22.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

non-permanent members are elected for two years, five each year.

26.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Digital Agriculture Mission was approved in September 2024.
2. AgriStack includes a Farmers' Registry.
3. AgriStack includes a Crop Sown Registry.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct; geo-referenced village maps are its third part.

27.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Thirteen of India's 18 biosphere reserves are in UNESCO's World Network.

Statement-II: The Cold Desert reserve was added to the network in 2025.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but one addition does not explain the total.

28.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Genome – all the DNA of an organism

II. Proteome – all the mRNA

III. Metabolome – all the small molecules

IV. Epigenome – changes in the DNA sequence

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the proteome is all the proteins; the epigenome is chemical marks that switch genes on or off without changing the sequence.

29.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The UN Charter was signed on 26 June 1945.

II. It came into force on 24 October 1945.

III. The UN had 51 original members.

IV. The UN now has 193 members.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

30.  

Consider the following statements about fiscal management:

I. Ad hoc Treasury Bills were ended from 1 April 1997.

II. Food subsidy was brought on budget from 2021-22.

III. The N.K. Singh Committee proposed a fiscal deficit of 3 per cent with an escape clause of 0.5 percentage point.

IV. The FRBM Act was passed in 2003.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

31.  

Consider the following statements about crops in India:

I. Wheat needs about 50–75 cm of rain.

II. Maize grows best at about 21–27 °C.

III. Bt cotton was approved in 2002.

IV. The Yellow Revolution began in 1986.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

32.  

With reference to the effects of a proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352, which one of the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer: A [A law made by Parliament under Article 250 on a State subject ceases to have effect six months after the emergency ends.]

Explanation:

Article 250(2) says such a law ceases to have effect six months after the proclamation ceases to operate, except as to things done before.

33.  

Consider the following statements:

1. A Governor cannot withhold assent to a Bill passed again by the State legislature.
2. A Bill that would affect the powers of the High Court must be reserved for the President.
3. Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed by the Governor.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

members of a State PSC are appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.

34.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The IMF's World Economic Outlook of 13 October 2026 projected India's growth at 7.0 per cent for 2026-27 (fiscal year).
2. It projected 7.0 per cent for 2027-28 as well.
3. It projected India's growth to slow to 6.0 per cent in 2027.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the October 2026 outlook projected 7.0 per cent for both 2026-27 and 2027-28 on a fiscal-year basis.

35.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Karel Čapek's R.U.R. (1920) gave the word "robot".

II. Turing's paper of 1950 proposed the Turing Test.

III. NITI Aayog's National Strategy for AI (2018) used the slogan #AIForAll.

IV. UNESCO adopted its Recommendation on AI Ethics in 2021.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

36.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The National Quantum Mission has an outlay of about ₹6,003.65 crore for 2023-24 to 2030-31.
2. The IndiaAI Mission was approved in 2024.
3. The EU AI Act, in force from 2024, is a risk-based law.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

37.  

Consider the following statements about India's power sector:

I. Non-fossil sources held over 54 per cent of India's installed power capacity on 31 July 2026.

II. Solar capacity was 164.59 GW on 31 July 2026.

III. Wind capacity was 58.14 GW on 31 July 2026.

IV. Nuclear capacity was larger than wind capacity.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

nuclear capacity was only 8.78 GW, far below wind.

38.  

Consider the following statements about EIA:

I. India's EIA Notification of 2006 was issued under the Environment (Protection) Act.

II. Category A projects are appraised by the Expert Appraisal Committee of the MoEFCC.

III. Category B2 projects need no EIA and no public hearing.

IV. The public hearing is held by the State Pollution Control Board within 45 days.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

39.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Citizen's charter – United Kingdom, 1991

II. Sevottam – 2010

III. First Right to Services law – Madhya Pradesh, 2010

IV. Directorate of Public Grievances – 1988

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Sevottam model dates from 2006.

40.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. FASAL – 2007

II. Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre – 2012

III. Kisan Call Centres – 2004

IV. mKisan – 2016

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

mKisan was launched in 2013; Kisan Suvidha came in 2016.

41.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Fifteenth Finance Commission set aside 20 per cent of disaster funds for mitigation.

II. Recovery and reconstruction get 30 per cent of the total disaster fund, within the 80 per cent response fund window.

III. "Build back better" is priority 4 of the Sendai Framework.

IV. The NAPCC of 2008 has eight missions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

42.  

In the RBI's measures of money supply, broad money (M3) is equal to M1 plus:

Correct Answer: B [net time deposits with banks]

Explanation:

M3 = M1 + net time deposits of banks, where M1 is currency with the public, demand deposits with banks and other deposits with the RBI.

43.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Mission LiFE was launched in 2022.

Statement-II: The Green Credit Programme was notified in 2023 under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

Mission LiFE was launched in October 2022; the Green Credit Rules were notified in October 2023 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, not the Forest Act.

44.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A member of an All India Service cannot be dismissed by an authority subordinate to the one that appointed him.

Statement-II: Article 311(1) gives this protection to members of the civil services of the Union, the All India Services and the civil services of a State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

Article 311(1) bars dismissal by an authority subordinate to the appointing authority, which is why Statement-I holds.

45.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Khasi uprising under Tirot Sing begins
2. Tiruchirappalli Proclamation
3. Velu Nachiyar regains Sivaganga
4. Revolt of Kittur Chennamma
5. Kundara Proclamation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [3-2-5-4-1]

Explanation:

Velu Nachiyar (1780), Tiruchirappalli Proclamation (1801), Kundara Proclamation (1809), Kittur Chennamma (1824), Khasi uprising (1829).

46.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Global mean sea level rose by about 0.20 m between 1901 and 2018.

Statement-II: Thermal expansion of sea water raises sea level.

Statement-III: The melting of land ice – glaciers and ice sheets – raises sea level.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

the warming of the ocean and the melting of glaciers and ice sheets are the two main causes of the rise (IPCC AR6); both explain Statement-I.

47.  

Consider the following pairs of tributaries and main rivers:

I. Wardha – Krishna

II. Koyna – Krishna

III. Bhavani – Godavari

IV. Sabari – Mahanadi

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

the Wardha and the Sabari are tributaries of the Godavari, and the Bhavani of the Kaveri; only Koyna – Krishna is correct.

48.  

Which one of the following Gupta rulers is known from his own inscription to have turned back the Hunas?

Correct Answer: B [Skandagupta]

Explanation:

the Bhitari pillar inscription of Skandagupta records how he restored the Gupta power and turned back the Hunas.

49.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Eco-sensitive zones are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act.
2. A 10 km guideline applies around protected areas.
3. In 2022 the Supreme Court ordered a 1 km eco-sensitive zone, modified in 2023.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

50.  

Consider the following statements about the Governor:

I. A Governor takes the oath before the Chief Justice of the High Court.

II. A Governor must be at least 35 years old.

III. A Governor resigns by writing to the President.

IV. A Governor can pardon a sentence passed by a court-martial.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

only the President can pardon a court-martial sentence (Article 72); Article 161 gives the Governor no such power.

51.  

Consider the following pairs of fishing grounds and ocean conditions:

I. Grand Banks – meeting of the Gulf Stream and the Labrador Current

II. Peru – Humboldt upwelling

III. Namibia – Kuroshio Current

IV. Japan – Benguela Current

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Namibia's fishery depends on the Benguela upwelling; Japan's on the meeting of the Kuroshio and Oyashio.

52.  

Consider the following statements about the life of the Buddha:

I. The Buddha left home at the age of 29.

II. He attained enlightenment at the age of 35.

III. He died at the age of 80.

IV. His traditional dates are c. 563–483 BCE.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

53.  

Consider the following statements about heat waves:

I. A heat wave is declared at 40 °C in the plains with a departure of 4.5 °C from normal.

II. An actual temperature of 45 °C is a heat wave.

III. An actual temperature of 47 °C is a severe heat wave.

IV. The Ahmedabad Heat Action Plan was launched in 2013.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

54.  

Consider the following statements:

1. In September 2026, AFSPA was extended for six months from 1 October 2026 in most of Manipur.
2. AFSPA was withdrawn completely from Meghalaya in 2018.
3. The 2026 extension covered every police-station area of Manipur.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the areas of 13 police stations in the valley were left out of the extension.

55.  

If reserve money (M0) is ₹50 lakh crore and broad money (M3) is ₹300 lakh crore, the money multiplier is:

Correct Answer: C [6]

Explanation:

multiplier = M3 ÷ M0 = 300 ÷ 50 = 6.

56.  

Consider the following pairs about Indian painting:

I. Mughal school – Mir Sayyid Ali and Abd al-Samad

II. Ustad Mansur – birds and animals

III. Guler – Nainsukh

IV. Basohli – soft, lyrical style

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Basohli is known for bold colours; the soft, lyrical style is Kangra's.

57.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Gupta era is reckoned from 319–20 CE.

Statement-II: Chandragupta I married the Licchavi princess Kumaradevi.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but the marriage alliance does not explain the starting year of the era.

58.  

Consider the following pairs about social security schemes:

I. Atal Pension Yojana – entry age 18–40

II. PM-SYM – pension of ₹3,000 a month

III. PMJJBY – age 18–60

IV. PMSBY – age 18–60

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

PMJJBY covers ages 18–50 and PMSBY ages 18–70, each with a cover of ₹2 lakh.

59.  

Consider the following countries:

I. Mauritius

II. Bangladesh

III. Maldives

IV. Myanmar

How many of the above are members of the Colombo Security Conclave?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Conclave has India, Sri Lanka, the Maldives, Mauritius, Bangladesh and Seychelles (the NSA meeting in New Delhi in November 2025 welcomed Seychelles' decision to join as a full member); Myanmar is not a member.

60.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Foreign portfolio investors sold more than ₹3 lakh crore of Indian equities in 2026 up to 12 October.

Statement-II: A strong dollar and higher US bond yields make emerging-market equities less attractive to foreign investors.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

these were among the reasons cited for the outflow, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

61.  

Which one of the following rivers of Asia drains into the Pacific Ocean?

Correct Answer: C [Amur]

Explanation:

the Amur, which forms part of the Russia–China border, reaches the Pacific through the Sea of Okhotsk and the Strait of Tartary.

62.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Section 36 of the DM Act lays down the duties of Union ministries.
2. Section 37 requires each ministry to prepare a disaster management plan.
3. Post-Disaster Needs Assessment is a method of the World Bank, the UN and the EU.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

63.  

Consider the following statements:

I. India has been the world's largest milk producer since 1998.

II. The NDDB was set up in 1965.

III. Operation Flood began in 1970.

IV. National Milk Day is observed on 26 November.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

64.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The CBD COP17 carried out the first global review of progress under the Kunming–Montreal Framework.
2. COP17 was held at Yerevan in October 2026.
3. COP17 is a session of the UNFCCC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

COP17 is a meeting of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity, not the UNFCCC.

65.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Tashkent Declaration of January 1966 was mediated by Kosygin.

II. Lal Bahadur Shastri died at Tashkent on 11 January 1966.

III. The Simla Agreement was signed on 2 July 1972.

IV. Major Shaitan Singh won the Param Vir Chakra at Asal Uttar.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Major Shaitan Singh won the Param Vir Chakra at Rezang La (1962); CQMH Abdul Hamid won it at Asal Uttar (1965).

66.  

Consider the following statements:

I. PMAY-G was launched on 20 November 2016.

II. The Jal Jeevan Mission aims at 55 litres per person per day.

III. The Swachh Bharat Mission began on 2 October 2014.

IV. PMUY was launched at Ballia on 1 May 2016.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

67.  

Consider the following pairs of Directive Principles:

I. Article 40 – village panchayats

II. Article 43B – cottage industries

III. Article 48A – protection of monuments

IV. Article 44 – early childhood care

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

Article 43B is on co-operatives (cottage industries are in Article 43), Article 48A on the environment (monuments are in Article 49), and Article 44 on a uniform civil code (early childhood care is in Article 45).

68.  

Consider the following pairs of shrinking lakes and countries:

I. Aral Sea – Kazakhstan and Uzbekistan

II. Lake Urmia – Iran

III. Lake Poopó – Peru

IV. Lake Faguibine – Mauritania

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Lake Poopó is in Bolivia and Lake Faguibine in Mali.

69.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Under Article 312, a new All India Service needs a Rajya Sabha resolution by a two-thirds majority.
2. The Indian Forest Service was created in 1966.
3. In Rajendra N. Shah (2021), Part IXB was held to apply only to multi-State co-operative societies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

70.  

Consider the following statements about Indian scripts and languages:

I. The Sharada script is associated with Kashmir.

II. Vatteluttu was a rounded script of the Tamil and Kerala regions.

III. Odia was declared a classical language in 2014.

IV. Tamil was the first language to be declared classical, in 2004.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

71.  

Consider the following statements about MSME classification:

I. A micro enterprise has investment up to ₹2.5 crore and turnover up to ₹10 crore.

II. A small enterprise has investment up to ₹25 crore and turnover up to ₹100 crore.

III. A medium enterprise has investment up to ₹125 crore and turnover up to ₹500 crore.

IV. These limits apply from 1 April 2025.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

72.  

Consider the following statements about the Home Rule movement:

1. Tilak founded his Home Rule League at Belgaum in April 1916.
2. Annie Besant founded her League at Madras in September 1916.
3. Annie Besant presided over the Calcutta session of the Congress in 1917.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

73.  

Consider the following statements about the UN:

1. ECOSOC has 54 members.
2. The Trusteeship Council suspended its work in 1994.
3. Judges of the ICJ are elected for nine years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

74.  

Which one of the following Peninsular rivers is the longest?

Correct Answer: A [Godavari]

Explanation:

the Godavari, about 1,465 km long, is the longest Peninsular river.

75.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Murals survive at Bagh and Badami.
2. Panamalai in Tamil Nadu has murals.
3. Amrita Sher-Gil painted "Bharat Mata" (1905).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

"Bharat Mata" was painted by Abanindranath Tagore.

76.  

Under the Mughals, a jagir was:

Correct Answer: C [a transferable assignment of land revenue to a mansabdar in place of salary]

Explanation:

a mansabdar was often paid through a jagir – the right to collect the revenue of an area – and jagirs were transferable, not hereditary.

77.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In Minerva Mills (1980), the Supreme Court held that the harmony between Parts III and IV is a basic feature.

Statement-II: In Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court held that Fundamental Rights prevail over Directive Principles.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but the 1951 ruling does not explain the 1980 one; the Court's view changed over three decades.

78.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Quantum communication – keys that reveal eavesdropping

II. Quantum sensing – navigation without GPS

III. Quantum materials – superconductors and topological materials

IV. Quantum computing – classical bits

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

quantum computing uses qubits.

79.  

Consider the following pairs of protected areas and species:

I. Kanha – hard-ground barasingha

II. Bhitarkanika – estuarine crocodiles

III. Little Rann of Kutch – Asiatic lion

IV. Eravikulam – one-horned rhinoceros

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Little Rann is home to the Indian wild ass and Eravikulam to the Nilgiri tahr.

80.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Drinking water supply is mainly a State responsibility.

Statement-II: Water is entry 17 of the State List.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

water is a State subject, so the States are mainly responsible; Statement-II explains Statement-I.

81.  

Consider the following pairs of breeds:

I. Gir – milch breed

II. Kangayam – draught breed

III. Murrah – buffalo

IV. Hallikar – milch breed

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Hallikar is a draught breed, like Kangayam and Khillari.

82.  

Consider the following pairs of landforms and agents:

I. Cirque – glacier

II. Barchan – wind

III. Uvala – groundwater in limestone

IV. Tombolo – running water

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

a tombolo is a bar of sand joining an island to the coast, made by waves.

83.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 – "Economic Constitution"

II. National Manufacturing Policy, 2011 – 15 per cent share of manufacturing

III. PLI schemes, 2020 – 24 sectors

IV. MRTP Act – 1991

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

the National Manufacturing Policy aimed at a 25 per cent share of manufacturing in GDP; PLI covers 14 sectors; the MRTP Act was passed in 1969 – 1991 is the New Industrial Policy.

84.  

Consider the following pairs of Mughal officials and their duties:

I. Mir bakhshi – military and the mansabdars

II. Mir saman – the royal household and karkhanas

III. Sadr – religious grants

IV. Muhtasib – finance and revenue

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the muhtasib enforced public morals; finance was under the wazir (diwan).

85.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India hosted the 18th BRICS summit at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, on 12–13 September 2026.

Statement-II: India holds the BRICS chair in 2026.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

the chair country hosts the year's summit, so Statement-II explains Statement-I.

86.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: After the 2001 earthquake, Gujarat used owner-driven reconstruction.

Statement-II: MISHTI, launched in 2023, is about mangrove plantation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct but unrelated.

87.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Ministry of Cooperation was created in 2014.

Statement-II: Amul was set up in 1946.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

the Ministry of Cooperation was created on 6 July 2021; Amul (the Kaira District Co-operative Milk Producers' Union) was set up in 1946.

88.  

Consider the following statements about linguistic States:

1. The Linguistic Provinces Commission of 1948 favoured administrative convenience over language alone.
2. The JVP Committee of 1948–49 advised postponing linguistic States.
3. Kurnool was the capital of the Andhra State formed in 1953.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct.

89.  

In India's system for regulating genetically modified organisms, the Review Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM) functions under:

Correct Answer: B [the Department of Biotechnology]

Explanation:

the RCGM works under the Department of Biotechnology and reviews research on GM organisms, under the Rules of 1989 framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

90.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Annexation of Korea by Japan
2. Founding of Singapore by Stamford Raffles
3. Arrival of Commodore Perry in Japan
4. Formation of French Indochina
5. Anglo-Japanese Alliance

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [2-3-4-5-1]

Explanation:

Singapore (1819), Perry (1853), French Indochina (1887), Anglo-Japanese Alliance (1902), Korea annexed (1910).

91.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Limits to Growth – 1972

II. Brundtland Report – 1987

III. Rio+20 – 2002

IV. Millennium Development Goals – 2000

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Rio+20 was held in 2012; 2002 was the Johannesburg summit.

92.  

In India, which one of the following is issued by the Government of India and not by the Reserve Bank of India?

Correct Answer: C [One-rupee notes]

Explanation:

one-rupee notes, like coins, are issued by the Government of India and carry the signature of the Finance Secretary.

93.  

Consider the following pairs of persons and their link with the Buddha:

I. Anathapindika – the Jetavana monastery

II. Mahaprajapati Gautami – the first Buddhist nun

III. Prasenajit – king of Magadha

IV. Udraka Ramaputra – the Buddha's first disciple

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Prasenajit was king of Kosala (Bimbisara ruled Magadha); Udraka Ramaputra was one of the Buddha's teachers, with Alara Kalama.

94.  

Consider the following pairs about India and Sri Lanka:

I. Sirimavo–Shastri Pact – 1964

II. Kachchatheevu agreement – 1974

III. Maritime boundary agreement – 1976

IV. India–Sri Lanka Accord – 1987

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

95.  

Consider the following statements:

I. During El Niño the trade winds weaken and the eastern Pacific warms.

II. The Southern Oscillation is a see-saw of pressure between Tahiti and Darwin.

III. In a positive Indian Ocean Dipole, the western Indian Ocean is warmer.

IV. La Niña comes with weak trade winds.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

La Niña comes with strong trade winds and a cold eastern Pacific.

96.  

Which one of the following rivers rises at Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh?

Correct Answer: B [Tapi]

Explanation:

the Tapi rises at Multai and flows west to the Gulf of Khambhat.

97.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Only the Lok Sabha can force the revocation of a National Emergency.

Statement-II: A resolution disapproving the emergency needs a special majority of the Lok Sabha.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

since the 44th Amendment (Article 352(7)), the President must revoke the emergency if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving it, and that resolution needs only a simple majority.

98.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Interest payments take about 40 per cent of the Union's revenue receipts.

Statement-II: Interest payments are a part of revenue expenditure.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but the accounting head does not explain the size of the burden.

99.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Human insulin can be made in bacteria.

Statement-II: Recombinant DNA technology can move a gene from one species into another.

Statement-III: Insulin is a steroid hormone.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

only Statement-II is correct, and putting the human insulin gene into bacteria by rDNA technology is how the insulin is made; insulin is a peptide (protein) hormone, not a steroid.

100.  

Consider the following pairs of protected areas and sections of the Wild Life (Protection) Act:

I. National park – section 35

II. Wildlife sanctuary – section 18

III. Community reserve – section 36C

IV. Tiger reserve – section 38V

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

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