UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 5: Mock Test 4 – Standard Level (100 MCQs)

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UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 5: Mock Test 4 – Standard Level (100 MCQs) – 100 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Overseas Citizens of India are foreign citizens of Indian origin.

II. An OCI card gives a lifelong visa.

III. OCI holders can vote in Indian elections.

IV. The PIO card was merged into the OCI in 2015.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

OCI holders cannot vote; India does not allow dual citizenship.

2.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Kalinga edicts are found at Dhauli and Jaugada.

II. The Kandahar inscription of Ashoka is in Greek and Aramaic.

III. Ashoka's edicts at Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra are in the Kharosthi script.

IV. The Rummindei pillar records that the bhaga at Lumbini was reduced to one-eighth.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

the Kalinga edicts are at Dhauli and Jaugada, Kandahar has Greek and Aramaic, Shahbazgarhi and Mansehra use Kharosthi, and Rummindei records the bhaga cut to one-eighth.

3.  

Consider the following statements about the Preamble:

1. The Preamble promises liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
2. It promises equality of status and of opportunity.
3. It promises economic liberty.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Preamble does not mention economic liberty.

4.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Ministers have no legal responsibility for the acts of the President.

Statement-II: The Cabinet Secretariat functions under the Prime Minister.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but the place of the Cabinet Secretariat does not explain the absence of legal responsibility.

5.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Rajamannar Committee – Tamil Nadu

II. Anandpur Sahib Resolution – Punjab

III. Punchhi Commission – 2007

IV. Sarkaria Commission – 1969

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983; 1969 is the year of the Rajamannar Committee.

6.  

Between 2005 and 2020, the emission intensity of India's GDP fell by about:

Correct Answer: A [36 per cent]

Explanation:

emission intensity fell by about 36 per cent between 2005 and 2020.

7.  

Consider the following pairs of defence milestones and years:

I. iDEX – 2018

II. Mission Shakti – 2019

III. INS Vikrant commissioned – 2022

IV. Tejas inducted – 2016

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

8.  

Arrange the following annexations by the British in chronological order:

1. Awadh
2. Nagpur
3. Jhansi
4. Satara

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [4-3-2-1]

Explanation:

Satara (1848), Jhansi (1853), Nagpur (1854), Awadh (1856).

9.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In winter, the water near the bottom of a deep freshwater lake stays at about 4 °C even when the surface freezes.

Statement-II: Water has its greatest density at about 4 °C.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

the densest water, at about 4 °C, sinks to the bottom, while colder, lighter water and ice stay on top; Statement-II explains Statement-I.

10.  

With reference to the Preamble of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer: D [In the LIC of India case (1995), the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.]

Explanation:

in LIC of India v. Consumer Education and Research Centre (1995) the Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

11.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The report "Towards Equality" (1974) was prepared by the Committee on the Status of Women in India.
2. India ratified the Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (CEDAW) in 1993.
3. The Fourth World Conference on Women was held at Beijing in 1995.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct: "Towards Equality" (1974), CEDAW ratified by India (1993) and the Beijing Conference (1995).

12.  

The school structure proposed by the National Education Policy, 2020 is:

Correct Answer: A [5+3+3+4]

Explanation:

NEP 2020 proposes 5+3+3+4.

13.  

Under the Indus Waters Treaty, consider the following pairs of rivers and the country given their use:

I. Ravi – India

II. Beas – India

III. Chenab – Pakistan

IV. Sutlej – Pakistan

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Sutlej is an eastern river allotted to India.

14.  

Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 deals with:

Correct Answer: A [registration of associations and bodies as political parties with the Election Commission]

Explanation:

Section 29A provides for registration of political parties with the Election Commission.

15.  

Consider the following statements about the Wholesale Price Index:

1. It is compiled by the DPIIT.
2. Its new base year is 2022-23.
3. It covers services as well as goods.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the WPI does not cover services; producer price indices are to replace it.

16.  

After the monetary policy decision of 7 October 2026, the RBI's repo rate stood at:

Correct Answer: A [5.50 per cent]

Explanation:

the repo rate was raised by 25 basis points to 5.50 per cent.

17.  

Consider the following statements:

I. A ballistic missile follows a high arc after its rocket burns out.

II. A cruise missile flies low and is powered by a jet engine.

III. BrahMos is a hypersonic cruise missile.

IV. Agni-V with MIRV was tested in 2024.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile; hypersonic means above Mach 5.

18.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Mangroves show pneumatophores and vivipary.
2. India's mangrove cover is about 4,991.68 sq km (ISFR 2023).
3. The MISHTI scheme for mangroves was launched in 2015.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

MISHTI was launched in 2023.

19.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Household electricity in India is supplied at about 110 V and 60 Hz.

Statement-II: A fuse melts when too much current flows through a circuit.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

India supplies about 230 V at 50 Hz (110–120 V at 60 Hz is used in countries such as the United States); a fuse wire melts when the current is too high.

20.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The British Indian Association was founded in 1851.

II. Dadabhai Naoroji founded the East India Association in 1866.

III. The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded in 1870.

IV. The Indian Association was founded in 1866.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Indian Association of Surendranath Banerjee was founded in 1876, not 1866.

21.  

Indian Standard Time is maintained by the:

Correct Answer: D [CSIR–National Physical Laboratory, New Delhi]

Explanation:

the CSIR–NPL keeps the national standards and Indian Standard Time.

22.  

The Neotropical zoogeographic realm covers:

Correct Answer: A [South America, Central America and the Caribbean islands]

Explanation:

The Neotropical realm covers South and Central America and the Caribbean.

23.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Sound travels fastest in solids.

II. Sound cannot travel through a vacuum.

III. The normal range of human hearing is about 20 Hz to 20 kHz.

IV. Sound travels faster in gases than in liquids.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

sound travels faster in liquids than in gases.

24.  

Which one of the following regulates the commodity derivatives market in India?

Correct Answer: D [Securities and Exchange Board of India]

Explanation:

SEBI has regulated commodity derivatives since the merger of the FMC in 2015.

25.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Preamble has been amended only once.

II. The words "socialist", "secular" and "integrity" were added in 1976.

III. In the Berubari case (1960) the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.

IV. In Balram Singh (2024) the Supreme Court dismissed a challenge to the words "socialist" and "secular".

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

in Berubari (1960) the Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution; Kesavananda (1973) held that it is.

26.  

Consider the following pairs of teachers and schools of thought:

I. Ramanuja – Vishishtadvaita

II. Madhva – Dvaita

III. Nimbarka – Dvaitadvaita

IV. Vallabha – Achintya bhedabheda

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Vallabha taught Shuddhadvaita; Achintya bhedabheda is the teaching of Chaitanya.

27.  

With reference to the evolution of the civil services in British India, which one of the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer: B [The Macaulay Committee (1854) recommended that the Company's covenanted civil service be recruited through an open competitive examination.]

Explanation:

the Macaulay Committee Report of 1854 replaced patronage with open competition, and the first such examination was held in London in 1855.

28.  

The SI base unit of luminous intensity is the:

Correct Answer: D [candela]

Explanation:

The candela is one of the seven SI base units, for luminous intensity.

29.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The terai belt, which lies south of the bhabar, is marshy.

Statement-II: Streams that disappear into the porous bhabar re-emerge in the terai.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

the streams that sink into the pebbly bhabar come up again in the terai and make its ground wet and swampy; Statement-II explains Statement-I.

30.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The National Commission for Women was set up in 1992.

Statement-II: The Chairperson of the National Commission for Women is nominated by the Central Government.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct; the way the Chairperson is chosen does not explain when the Commission was set up.

31.  

Consider the following statements about India's digital public infrastructure:

1. Account Aggregators are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India as a category of NBFC.
2. Certificates issued by an issuer into a DigiLocker account are legally on a par with the original physical documents.
3. Creating an Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) number is compulsory for every resident.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

AAs are RBI-regulated NBFCs; Rule 9A of the Digital Locker Rules, 2016 puts issued documents on a par with originals.

32.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is the fastest-spreading mid-ocean ridge.

Statement-II: The East Pacific Rise spreads faster than the Mid-Atlantic Ridge.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

the Mid-Atlantic Ridge spreads only a few centimetres a year; the East Pacific Rise is the fastest-spreading ridge.

33.  

Under Article 233, an advocate can be appointed a district judge only after at least:

Correct Answer: B [seven years of practice]

Explanation:

Article 233 requires at least seven years as an advocate.

34.  

Consider the following statements:

I. A conviction with a sentence of two years or more disqualifies a person for the term plus six years.

II. An election petition is filed in the High Court within 45 days.

III. Corrupt practices are dealt with in the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

IV. The freeze on the number of seats lasts until the first census after 2026.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

corrupt practices are in the RPA, 1951 (Section 123); the 1950 Act deals with seats, delimitation and rolls.

35.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Election Commission of India set up
2. NOTA introduced
3. EVMs first used (Paravur)
4. Election Commission becomes a permanent three-member body

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [1-3-4-2]

Explanation:

ECI (25 January 1950), EVMs at Paravur (1982), three members (1993), NOTA (2013).

36.  

Consider the following pairs of rules and dates:

I. Ban on identified single-use plastics – 1 July 2022

II. Minimum thickness of 120 microns for carry bags – 31 December 2022

III. Plastic Waste Management Rules (replacing the 2011 Rules) notified – 2016

IV. Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026 in force – 1 April 2025

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the SWM Rules, 2026 came into force on 1 April 2026.

37.  

Consider the following statements about the Disaster Management (Amendment) Act, 2025:

1. It provides for Urban Disaster Management Authorities headed by the Municipal Commissioner.
2. It gives statutory status to the National Crisis Management Committee.
3. It provides for a national disaster database.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three are features of the 2025 amendment.

38.  

The western boundary of the Indian plate follows the:

Correct Answer: A [Kirthar and Makran ranges]

Explanation:

in the west the plate boundary runs along the Kirthar and Makran ranges.

39.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Rajaraja I built the Rajarajeswaram temple at Thanjavur.

II. Rajendra I took the title Gangaikondachola after his northern campaign.

III. Parantaka I was defeated at Takkolam in 949.

IV. The Chola line ended under Rajendra III.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements about the Cholas are correct.

40.  

Consider the following statements about India's climate policy:

1. The National Action Plan on Climate Change was released in 2008.
2. The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a part of the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency.
3. The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, 2023 was notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the NAPCC was released on 30 June 2008 and PAT (first cycle from 2012) runs under its energy-efficiency mission; the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme was notified on 28 June 2023 under the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, as amended in 2022.

41.  

Consider the following pairs of missions and features:

I. Chandrayaan-1 – evidence of water on the Moon

II. Chandrayaan-3 – landing near the lunar south pole

III. Aditya-L1 – first Lagrange point

IV. XPoSat – Mars

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

XPoSat studies X-ray polarisation from cosmic sources; it is not a Mars mission.

42.  

Which one of the following women's organisations was founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani?

Correct Answer: B [Bharat Stree Mahamandal]

Explanation:

Sarala Devi Chaudhurani founded the Bharat Stree Mahamandal at Allahabad in 1910.

43.  

Consider the following pairs of centres and industries:

I. Osaka – "Manchester of Japan"

II. Hsinchu – semiconductors

III. Toulouse – pharmaceuticals

IV. Basel – aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Toulouse is an aircraft centre and Basel a pharmaceutical centre; the pairs are swapped.

44.  

Which one of the following is the oldest?

Correct Answer: D [Epidemic Diseases Act]

Explanation:

the Epidemic Diseases Act dates from 1897.

45.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The blue colour of the sky is due to scattering of light.
2. Stars twinkle because of atmospheric refraction.
3. A rainbow is formed by reflection alone.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

a rainbow needs refraction, dispersion and internal reflection.

46.  

India's first jute mill was set up in 1855 at:

Correct Answer: B [Rishra]

Explanation:

the first jute mill came up at Rishra on the Hugli in 1855.

47.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In the Northern Hemisphere, winds blow anticlockwise around a cyclone.

Statement-II: The Coriolis force deflects winds to the right in the Northern Hemisphere.

Statement-III: In a cyclone, air converges towards the centre of low pressure.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

air converging on the central low (Statement-III) are turned to the right by the Coriolis force (Statement-II), so they circle the low anticlockwise; both explain Statement-I.

48.  

Consider the following pairs of classes of holdings and sizes:

I. Marginal holding – below 1 hectare

II. Small holding – 1 to 2 hectares

III. Semi-medium holding – 4 to 10 hectares

IV. Large holding – 20 hectares and above

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

semi-medium is 2–4 hectares and large is 10 hectares and above.

49.  

"Faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth" was the theme of the:

Correct Answer: B [Twelfth Five-Year Plan]

Explanation:

the Twelfth (and last) Plan had this theme.

50.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajiv–Longowal Accord on Punjab was signed in 1985.
2. The Mizo Accord was signed on 30 June 1986.
3. The Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council was set up in 1978.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council was set up in 1988, not 1978.

51.  

The all-India snow leopard estimate of 2024 placed their number at about:

Correct Answer: A [718]

Explanation:

the estimate was about 718 snow leopards.

52.  

The Islington Commission (1912–15) was a Royal Commission on:

Correct Answer: B [the public services in India]

Explanation:

The Islington Commission was the Royal Commission on the Public Services in India.

53.  

The Sarvodaya Plan of 1950 was put forward by:

Correct Answer: D [Jayaprakash Narayan]

Explanation:

Jayaprakash Narayan put forward the Sarvodaya Plan in 1950, built on Gandhian ideas of village self-reliance.

54.  

Which of the following High Courts have jurisdiction over more than one State?

1. Bombay
2. Guwahati
3. Madras
4. Punjab and Haryana

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1, 2 and 4 only]

Explanation:

the Bombay, Guwahati and Punjab and Haryana High Courts each cover more than one State; the Madras High Court covers one State.

55.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Khajuraho – Chandelas

II. Lingaraja temple – Odisha

III. Hoysala temples – star-shaped plan

IV. Kailasanatha temple, Kanchi – Nagara style

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi is in the Dravida style.

56.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Section 48 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 requires each State to set up State and district response and mitigation funds.
2. The National Disaster Mitigation Fund was set up only in 2021.
3. The Global Shield against Climate Risks was launched at COP27 in 2022.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

Section 48 sets up State and district funds; the NDMF came in 2021; the Global Shield began at COP27.

57.  

Consider the following statements:

1. A super cyclonic storm has winds of 222 km/h and above.
2. More cyclones form over the Arabian Sea than over the Bay of Bengal.
3. A new list of 169 cyclone names from 13 countries was released in 2020.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the Bay of Bengal has more cyclones than the Arabian Sea.

58.  

Indentured emigration from India began in 1834 with workers sent to:

Correct Answer: D [Mauritius]

Explanation:

indenture began in 1834 with Mauritius.

59.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Soil Health Card scheme was launched at Suratgarh in 2015.

Statement-II: A Soil Health Card reports on only three nutrients – nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

the scheme was launched at Suratgarh, Rajasthan, on 19 February 2015; the card reports on 12 parameters, including secondary and micro-nutrients, pH, electrical conductivity and organic carbon.

60.  

Consider the following pairs of leaders from the south and events:

I. V. O. Chidambaram Pillai – Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company

II. Vanchinathan – shooting of Ashe at Maniyachi

III. Annie Besant – Home Rule League at Madras

IV. Alluri Sitarama Raju – Chirala–Perala movement

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Alluri Sitarama Raju led the Rampa rebellion (1922–24); Chirala–Perala (1921) was a separate no-tax struggle in Andhra.

61.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Reef-building corals depend on zooxanthellae.

II. Coral reefs grow in warm, clear and shallow water.

III. Bleaching occurs when corals expel their zooxanthellae.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three are correct.

62.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Centre and a general-category State share the SDRF in the ratio 75:25.

II. For north-eastern and Himalayan States the ratio is 90:10.

III. A State may use up to 10 per cent of its SDRF for State-notified local disasters.

IV. The High Level Committee that approves central help is chaired by the Prime Minister.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the High Level Committee is chaired by the Union Home Minister.

63.  

As on 21 October 2026, how many Ramsar sites does India have?

Correct Answer: A [103]

Explanation:

India has 103 Ramsar sites.

64.  

Consider the following statements about the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2026:

1. They divide waste into four streams – wet, dry, sanitary and special care.
2. A bulk waste generator is one producing 100 kg or more a day.
3. They apply only to urban local bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the 2026 Rules also cover rural areas.

65.  

In Mesopotamian records of trade with the Harappans, Magan is identified with:

Correct Answer: A [Oman]

Explanation:

Magan is identified with Oman, a source of copper.

66.  

Consider the following statements:

I. India's 2022 NDC aims to cut the emission intensity of GDP by 45 per cent by 2030.

II. It aims at 50 per cent of power capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030.

III. NDC 3.0 for 2035 aims at a 47 per cent cut in emission intensity.

IV. India has set a target of net zero by 2050.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

India's net-zero target is 2070, announced at COP26.

67.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Luni is the only large river of the Thar and ends in the Rann of Kachchh.

II. Marusthali receives less than 150 mm of rain a year.

III. The Indira Gandhi Canal starts from Harike.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three describe the Thar correctly.

68.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Green Box support is not subject to any limit.

II. De minimis support is 10 per cent for developing countries.

III. Blue Box support is linked to production-limiting programmes.

IV. Market price support is measured against a reference price of 1986–88.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four describe the WTO rules on farm support correctly.

69.  

Arrange the following earthquakes in chronological order:

1. Shillong
2. Latur
3. Koyna
4. Bihar–Nepal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1-4-3-2]

Explanation:

Shillong (1897), Bihar–Nepal (1934), Koyna (1967), Latur (1993).

70.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Gandhi–Irwin Pact
2. Poona Pact
3. Communal Award
4. Third Round Table Conference begins

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1-3-2-4]

Explanation:

Gandhi–Irwin Pact (5 March 1931), Communal Award (16 August 1932), Poona Pact (24 September 1932), Third RTC (November 1932).

71.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. Operation Meghdoot
2. Tashkent Declaration
3. Agreement on not attacking each other's nuclear facilities
4. Operation Vijay (Kargil)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [2-1-3-4]

Explanation:

Tashkent (1966), Meghdoot (1984), nuclear agreement (1988), Vijay (1999).

72.  

The UDAN scheme for regional air connectivity was launched in:

Correct Answer: B [2016]

Explanation:

UDAN was launched in 2016.

73.  

Consider the following pairs of local winds and regions:

I. Chinook – Rockies

II. Mistral – France

III. Harmattan – West Africa

IV. Sirocco – the Alps

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Sirocco blows from the Sahara towards Italy; the Foehn is the wind of the Alps.

74.  

Consider the following statements about High Courts:

1. The number of judges of a High Court is fixed by the President.
2. The pensions of High Court judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State.
3. The superintendence of a High Court under Article 227 does not extend to military tribunals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

pensions are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India; salaries are charged on the State's Fund.

75.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The 86th Amendment inserted Article 21A.
2. The RTE Act came into force on 1 April 2010.
3. The RTE Act covers children aged 6 to 18.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the RTE Act covers children aged 6 to 14.

76.  

Which of the following countries share a land border with Ukraine?

1. Poland
2. Moldova
3. Lithuania
4. Hungary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1, 2 and 4 only]

Explanation:

Ukraine borders Poland, Slovakia, Hungary, Romania, Moldova, Russia and Belarus; Lithuania is not a neighbour.

77.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Aihole inscription of Pulakeshin II was composed by Ravikirti.

II. Dantidurga founded the power of the Rashtrakutas.

III. The Aihole inscription is written in Prakrit.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Ravikirti, the court poet of Pulakeshin II, composed the Aihole inscription (634–35), and Dantidurga founded Rashtrakuta power in the middle of the eighth century; the inscription is in Sanskrit.

78.  

Consider the following statements:

1. SpaDeX demonstrated docking in space.
2. India plans the Bharatiya Antariksh Station by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

SpaDeX demonstrated docking and the BAS is planned by 2035.

79.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The national lockdown of March 2020 was ordered under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

Statement-II: The Epidemic Diseases Act was amended in 2020 to punish violence against health workers.

Statement-III: The Disaster Management Act lets the national authorities give directions to Union ministries and State Governments on the measures to be taken in a disaster.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but only Statement-III explains Statement-I: the lockdown orders of 24 March 2020 used the DM Act's power to give directions to ministries and States.

80.  

Consider the following pairs of puppet forms and types:

1. Kathputli – string puppets
2. Tholu Bommalata – rod puppets
3. Pavakathakali – glove puppets

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Tholu Bommalata is a shadow-puppet form; Putul Nach is the rod form.

81.  

The National Calamity Contingency Fund was created in 2000–01 on the recommendation of the:

Correct Answer: B [Eleventh Finance Commission]

Explanation:

The NCCF was created in 2000–01 on the Eleventh Finance Commission's recommendation.

82.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The International Financial Services Centres Authority has its head office in Mumbai.
2. The Clearing Corporation of India Limited, set up in 2001, clears and settles deals in government securities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

the IFSCA, set up in 2020 under the IFSCA Act, 2019, has its head office at GIFT City, Gandhinagar; CCIL (2001) is the clearing house and central counterparty for government securities, money-market and forex deals.

83.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India and the Soviet Union signed a treaty of friendship in 1971.
2. India and Russia declared a Strategic Partnership in 2010.
3. India signed the S-400 deal in 2018.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the Strategic Partnership dates from 2000; it was raised to a Special and Privileged one in 2010.

84.  

A lake or a pond is an example of a:

Correct Answer: A [lentic ecosystem]

Explanation:

still-water bodies such as lakes and ponds are lentic.

85.  

Consider the following statements:

I. India's total exports in 2025-26 were about US$ 860 billion.

II. Services exports were larger than goods exports in 2025-26.

III. The Foreign Trade Policy, 2023 has no end date.

IV. The Foreign Trade Policy, 2023 aims at exports of US$ 2 trillion by 2030.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

goods exports (US$ 441.78 billion) were larger than services exports (US$ 418.31 billion).

86.  

Consider the following pairs of World Heritage Sites of India and the States in which they lie:

I. Dholavira – Gujarat

II. Santiniketan – West Bengal

III. Moidams of the Ahom dynasty – Assam

IV. Maratha Military Landscapes – Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

Dholavira (Gujarat, 2021), Santiniketan (West Bengal, 2023), the Moidams at Charaideo (Assam, 2024) and the Maratha Military Landscapes – eleven forts in Maharashtra and Gingee in Tamil Nadu (2025) – are all correctly matched.

87.  

Consider the following pairs of steel plants and the countries that helped build them:

I. Bhilai – Soviet help

II. Rourkela – German help

III. Durgapur – German help

IV. Bokaro – British help

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Durgapur was built with British help and Bokaro with Soviet help.

88.  

Which Chola ruler abolished tolls and united the Chola and Vengi lines?

Correct Answer: D [Kulottunga I]

Explanation:

Kulottunga I abolished tolls and brought about the Chola–Vengi union.

89.  

India's foreign-exchange reserves on 9 October 2026 were about:

Correct Answer: D [US$ 726.0 billion]

Explanation:

reserves were about US$ 726.0 billion.

90.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Since the 44th Amendment, the President can proclaim a National Emergency only on the written advice of the Union Cabinet.
2. Article 75(1A), added in 2003, caps the size of the Union Council of Ministers in relation to the strength of the Lok Sabha.
3. In S.P. Anand (1996), the Supreme Court held that a person who is not a member of Parliament cannot be appointed Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Article 352(3), added in 1978, requires the written advice of the Cabinet, and Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment (2003), caps the Council of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, at 15 per cent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha; in S.P. Anand v. H.D. Deve Gowda (1996) the Court upheld the appointment of a non-member, who must enter Parliament within six months.

91.  

With reference to the Ramsar Convention on wetlands, which one of the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer: D [India became a party to it in 1982.]

Explanation:

India became a party on 1 February 1982; the Convention dates from 1971 and India's Wetlands Rules from 2017.

92.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Harappan weights were mostly cubes of chert.

Statement-II: Harappan weights followed a binary system for lower values and a decimal system for higher values.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct; the number system of the weights does not explain the material they were made of.

93.  

India deposited its instrument of ratification of the Paris Agreement on:

Correct Answer: A [2 October 2016]

Explanation:

India ratified the Paris Agreement on 2 October 2016, Gandhi Jayanti.

94.  

India's nuclear triad was completed with the deterrence patrol of INS Arihant in:

Correct Answer: D [2018]

Explanation:

the Arihant patrol of 2018 completed the triad.

95.  

In the monthly PLFS for September 2026, the unemployment rate on current weekly status was:

Correct Answer: A [5.0 per cent]

Explanation:

the CWS unemployment rate was 5.0 per cent.

96.  

India's Act Far East policy, with a US$ 1 billion line of credit for Russia's Far East, was announced in:

Correct Answer: A [2019]

Explanation:

Act Far East dates from 2019.

97.  

Consider the following statements about India's stock markets:

1. The Bombay Stock Exchange was set up in 1875.
2. The National Stock Exchange was set up in 1992.
3. Equity trades in India now settle on a T+1 cycle.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the BSE dates from 1875, the NSE from 1992, and settlement is T+1.

98.  

The all-India river dolphin estimate of 2025 counted about:

Correct Answer: A [6,327]

Explanation:

the count was about 6,327 river dolphins.

99.  

Consider the following statements:

I. A person who is not a Member of Parliament can be Prime Minister for up to six months.

II. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

III. The ranks of Cabinet Minister and Minister of State are laid down in the Constitution.

IV. A no-confidence motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the ranks of ministers are a matter of convention, not of the Constitution.

100.  

With reference to India's space programme, which one of the following statements is correct?

Correct Answer: D [INCOSPAR was set up in 1962, before ISRO was formed in 1969.]

Explanation:

INCOSPAR was set up in 1962 under the Department of Atomic Energy, and ISRO took its place in 1969.

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