UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 8: Mock Test 7 – Advanced Level (100 MCQs)

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UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 8: Mock Test 7 – Advanced Level (100 MCQs) – 100 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Consider the following pairs about the press in British India:

I. Hicky's Bengal Gazette – 1780

II. Vernacular Press Act – Lytton

III. Repeal of the Vernacular Press Act – Ripon

IV. Freedom of the press, 1835 – Metcalfe

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct; Lytton's Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was repealed by Ripon in 1882.

2.  

Consider the following tests and what they do:

I. RT-PCR – detects viral genetic material

II. Rapid antigen test – detects viral proteins

III. ELISA – detects antibodies or antigens

IV. MRI – uses ionising radiation

How many of the above are correctly described?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

MRI uses magnetic fields and radio waves and involves no ionising radiation; X-ray and CT use X-rays.

3.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species was established in 1964.
2. The Zoological Survey of India was set up in 1916 at Kolkata.
3. The Botanical Survey of India was set up in 1916.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Botanical Survey of India dates from 1890.

4.  

Consider the following pairs of inter-State water disputes tribunals and the States concerned:

I. Vansadhara – Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

II. Mahadayi – Goa, Karnataka and Keralam

III. Ravi and Beas – Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan

IV. Narmada – Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra and Karnataka

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Mahadayi tribunal concerns Goa, Karnataka and Maharashtra; the Narmada tribunal concerns Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.

5.  

Consider the following pairs of Mahajanapadas or gana-sanghas and their capitals:

I. Vajji – Vaishali

II. Anga – Champa

III. Magadha – Ujjayini

IV. Assaka – Mathura

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Rajagriha, later Pataliputra, was the capital of Magadha; Ujjayini was a capital of Avanti. Assaka lay on the Godavari, the only Mahajanapada south of the Vindhyas; Mathura was the capital of Surasena.

6.  

Consider the following statements:

1. SDN-1 and SDN-2 genome-edited plants were exempted from GM rules in 2022.
2. ICRISAT is at Patancheru.
3. The IRRI South Asia Regional Centre at Varanasi opened in 2008.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the IRRI regional centre at Varanasi opened in 2018.

7.  

A country has 30 per cent of its people below 15 years, 60 per cent aged 15–64 and 10 per cent aged 65 or more. Its dependency ratio is about:

Correct Answer: A [67]

Explanation:

dependency ratio = (0–14 + 65+) ÷ (15–64) × 100 = (30 + 10) ÷ 60 × 100 ≈ 67.

8.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Mullaperiyar dam is in Keralam but is operated by Tamil Nadu.
2. The Supreme Court has allowed the water level at Mullaperiyar to be kept at 142 feet.
3. Article 262 prevents the Supreme Court from hearing any appeal in a water dispute.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

appeals under Article 136 were still heard in the Cauvery case (2018); the absolute "any appeal" is wrong.

9.  

Articles 330A and 332A, inserted in 2023, provide for:

Correct Answer: D [one-third of seats for women in the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies]

Explanation:

they reserve one-third of seats for women (106th Amendment, 2023), after the delimitation that follows the next census.

10.  

eSanjeevani is India's national platform for:

Correct Answer: A [telemedicine]

Explanation:

eSanjeevani is the telemedicine service.

11.  

Consider the following statements about Magadha and the north-west:

1. Udayin made Pataliputra the capital of Magadha.
2. The Shishunagas destroyed the power of Avanti.
3. Alexander fought Porus on the banks of the Beas.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Alexander fought Porus at the Hydaspes (Jhelum) in 326 BCE; his army refused to go beyond the Beas.

12.  

Arrange the following canals in the order in which they opened:

1. Kiel Canal
2. Panama Canal
3. St Lawrence Seaway
4. Suez Canal
5. Corinth Canal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [4-5-1-2-3]

Explanation:

Suez (1869), Corinth (1893), Kiel (1895), Panama (1914), St Lawrence Seaway (1959).

13.  

Consider the following pairs of organisations and their work:

I. BirdLife International – Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas

II. Conservation International – Living Planet Report

III. World Resources Institute – Global Forest Watch

IV. TRAFFIC – State of India's Environment report

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Living Planet Report is WWF's; the State of India's Environment report comes from the Centre for Science and Environment; TRAFFIC monitors wildlife trade.

14.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.

Statement-II: Article 21A was added by the 86th Amendment in 2002.

Statement-III: The 44th Amendment, 1978 provided that a Presidential order under Article 359 cannot suspend the enforcement of Articles 20 and 21.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but only Statement-III explains Statement-I: since the 44th Amendment, Article 359 keeps Articles 20 and 21 out of any suspension.

15.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Freedom from arrest of a Member of Parliament applies only in civil cases.
2. This freedom covers the session and 40 days before and after it.
3. Parliamentary privileges extend to the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

privileges extend to ministers and the Attorney-General, but not to the President.

16.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Coffee – originated in Ethiopia

II. Rubber – originated in the Amazon basin

III. Cocoa – Côte d'Ivoire is the leading producer

IV. Palm oil – Brazil is the leading producer

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Indonesia and Malaysia lead in palm oil.

17.  

Consider the following statements about taxation:

I. The Income-tax Act, 2025 applies from 1 April 2026 and uses the term "tax year".

II. The basic corporation tax rate was cut to 22 per cent in 2019.

III. The equalisation levy of 6 per cent was still in force in 2026.

IV. GST was introduced on 1 July 2017.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the 6 per cent equalisation levy was withdrawn in 2025.

18.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Section 22 of the RTI Act gives it overriding effect over the Official Secrets Act, 1923.

Statement-II: Section 24 exempts the listed security agencies even from allegations of corruption.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

Section 24 exempts the agencies except for information on corruption and human rights violations.

19.  

According to the Zoological Survey of India (July 2026), India's recorded faunal diversity (species and subspecies) stands at about:

Correct Answer: A [105,953]

Explanation:

ZSI's Animal Discoveries 2025 puts India's fauna at 105,953 species and subspecies.

20.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Tax buoyancy excludes the effect of discretionary changes in tax policy.

Statement-II: Tax elasticity excludes the effect of discretionary changes in tax policy.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

buoyancy measures the response of tax revenue to GDP including discretionary changes such as new rates; elasticity excludes them.

21.  

Consider the following statements about the GST rate changes of 2025:

I. Individual life and health insurance policies are exempt from GST from 22 September 2025.

II. Tobacco products and pan masala kept their old rates and cess until the compensation loans were repaid.

III. Most goods earlier taxed at 28 per cent moved to the 5 per cent merit rate.

IV. Gross GST collections in 2025-26 were about ₹22 lakh crore.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

many goods earlier at 28 per cent moved to the 18 per cent standard rate; most items earlier at 12 per cent moved to 5 per cent.

22.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. IARI – 1905

II. ICAR – 1929

III. Pantnagar, the first State agricultural university – 1960

IV. First Krishi Vigyan Kendra – 1974

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct; the first KVK was at Puducherry.

23.  

Consider the following statements:

I. A census town must have a population of at least 5,000.

II. At least 75 per cent of the male main workers of a census town must work outside agriculture.

III. A census town must have a density of at least 400 persons per sq km.

IV. Rural-to-urban migration is the largest migration stream in India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

rural-to-rural migration is the largest stream, mostly women moving on marriage.

24.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India adopted a National Action Plan on AMR in 2017.
2. The Chennai Declaration (2012) concerned antimicrobial resistance.
3. Antibiotics are effective against viral infections.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

antibiotics act on bacteria, not viruses; misuse against viral infections drives resistance.

25.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India's border with Myanmar is about 1,643 km long.
2. Four Indian States border Myanmar.
3. In 2024 the Union Government decided to scrap the India–Myanmar Free Movement Regime and replaced it with a stricter pass-based regime limited to 10 km of the border.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three statements are correct; the States are Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram.

26.  

Consider the following statements about India and Bangladesh:

I. India's border with Bangladesh, about 4,096 km, is its longest land border.

II. Five Indian States border Bangladesh.

III. The Land Boundary Agreement was implemented through the 100th Amendment in 2015.

IV. The Ganga Water Treaty of 1996 runs for 30 years, to 2026.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct; the Ganga treaty was signed on 12 December 1996 for 30 years, so it runs to December 2026.

27.  

Consider the following pairs of programmes or laws and the year in which they began:

I. DAY-NULM – 2013

II. PM SVANidhi – 2020

III. Street Vendors Act – 2019

IV. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana – 1995

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Street Vendors Act was passed in 2014 and the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana began in 1989.

28.  

Consider the following pairs of bilateral exercises and India's partner countries:

I. Shakti – France

II. Garuda – France

III. Ajeya Warrior – United Kingdom

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

Shakti (army) and Garuda (air force) are India–France exercises; Ajeya Warrior is the India–UK army exercise.

29.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Revamped PDS began in 1992.

II. One Nation One Ration Card began in 2019.

III. Decentralised procurement by States began in 1997-98.

IV. Cash transfer of food subsidy was piloted in Chandigarh and Puducherry in 2015.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

30.  

If the gross cropped area of a district is 210 thousand hectares and its net sown area is 140 thousand hectares, its cropping intensity is:

Correct Answer: A [150 per cent]

Explanation:

cropping intensity = GCA ÷ NSA × 100 = 210 ÷ 140 × 100 = 150 per cent.

31.  

Consider the following statements about the IMD classification of cyclonic disturbances:

I. A deep depression has winds of 50–61 km/h.

II. A severe cyclonic storm has winds of 89–117 km/h.

III. An extremely severe cyclonic storm has winds of 118–166 km/h.

IV. A cyclonic storm has winds of 34–47 knots.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

118–166 km/h is a very severe cyclonic storm; an extremely severe cyclonic storm has 167–221 km/h.

32.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The IUCN Red List update of July 2026 assessed 175,909 species.
2. It listed 49,505 species as threatened.
3. The "threatened" total includes Near Threatened species.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

threatened means Critically Endangered, Endangered and Vulnerable only; Near Threatened is outside it.

33.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India and the European Union agreed in 2022 to set up a Trade and Technology Council.
2. India and Germany signed a Migration and Mobility Partnership Agreement in 2022.
3. The first India–Nordic Summit was held in Oslo.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

TTC agreed April 2022; India–Germany mobility agreement signed December 2022; the first Nordic summit met at Stockholm, not Oslo.

34.  

Uluru (Ayers Rock), a large sandstone monolith, lies in:

Correct Answer: A [the Northern Territory of Australia]

Explanation:

Uluru is in the Uluru-Kata Tjuta National Park in the Northern Territory.

35.  

Consider the following pairs of Köppen types and descriptions or regions:

I. Af – equatorial

II. Cs – Mediterranean

III. Cfb – marine west coast (British type)

IV. Dw – Patagonia

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

D climates occur only in the Northern Hemisphere; Dw is found in Siberia.

36.  

Consider the following pairs of local names of shifting cultivation and regions:

I. Podu – Andhra Pradesh

II. Bewar – Madhya Pradesh

III. Kuruwa – Jharkhand

IV. Khil – the Himalaya

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

37.  

Consider the following Articles:

I. Article 15

II. Article 16

III. Article 19

IV. Article 21

How many of the above confer rights available only to citizens?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Articles 15, 16 and 19 (with 29 and 30) are for citizens only; Article 21 protects every person.

38.  

Consider the following pairs of diseases and modes of spread:

I. Hepatitis A – food and water

II. Hepatitis B – food and water

III. Dengue – Aedes mosquito

IV. Japanese encephalitis – Anopheles mosquito

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

hepatitis B spreads through blood, unsafe needles, sex and from mother to child; Japanese encephalitis is spread by the Culex mosquito.

39.  

Consider the following pairs of diseases and the year India was declared free of them or eliminated them:

I. Guinea worm – 2000

II. Polio – 2014

III. Yaws – 2016

IV. Trachoma – 2024

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

40.  

Consider the following pairs of cyclones and years:

I. Phailin – 2013

II. Fani – 2019

III. Amphan – 2020

IV. Biparjoy – 2023

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

41.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In May 2026 the Governor of Tamil Nadu appointed C. Joseph Vijay Chief Minister although his party, the TVK, had won 108 of 234 seats.

Statement-II: The Governor appoints the leader who can show majority support, which may come from other parties, and the majority is then tested on the floor of the House.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

the support of other parties gave him a majority, which was proved by a floor test (144 votes in favour); Statement-II explains Statement-I.

42.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Germanwatch publishes the Climate Risk Index.
2. GEO-7 was released by UNEP in December 2025.
3. The Emissions Gap Report is published by the WMO.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Emissions Gap Report is a UNEP report.

43.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Bay of Bengal has about four times as many cyclones as the Arabian Sea.

Statement-II: Storm surge is the main killer in a cyclone.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but the danger of storm surge does not explain the higher frequency of cyclones in the Bay of Bengal.

44.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Low earth orbit constellations give lower latency than geostationary satellites.

Statement-II: LEO constellations such as Starlink and OneWeb orbit a few hundred to about 1,200 km up, while geostationary satellites are about 35,786 km above the equator.

Statement-III: Radio signals travel more slowly through space than light does through an optical fibre.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

only Statement-II is correct, and the much shorter distance the signal travels is the reason for the lower delay; light in a fibre moves at only about two-thirds of its speed in space.

45.  

Consider the following pairs of vulnerable groups and the measures suggested for them in disasters:

I. Women and girls – separate toilets and lighting in relief camps

II. Children – child-friendly spaces and family tracing

III. Older people – child-friendly spaces

IV. Persons with disabilities – sign-language and text alerts

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

for older people the needs are priority evacuation and medicines.

46.  

Consider the following statements about Alauddin Khalji:

I. Alauddin Khalji introduced the branding of horses (dagh) and descriptive rolls of soldiers (huliya).

II. Alauddin's market control was enforced through the shahna-i-mandi.

III. Alauddin built the city of Siri.

IV. Alauddin fixed land revenue at one-tenth of the produce.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Alauddin raised land revenue to half of the produce in the Doab.

47.  

Consider the following statements about the UK and US constitutions:

I. The House of Lords in the United Kingdom is not an elected House.

II. An amendment to the US Constitution needs ratification by three-fourths of the States.

III. The UK Supreme Court can strike down an Act of Parliament.

IV. The US Constitution originally had nine Articles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Parliament is sovereign in the UK, so its Supreme Court cannot strike down Acts; the US Constitution originally had seven Articles.

48.  

Consider the following statements about the Quit India movement:

I. Usha Mehta ran an underground radio during the Quit India movement.

II. A parallel government called the Jatiya Sarkar was set up at Tamluk.

III. Nana Patil led the parallel government at Satara.

IV. The Communist Party of India supported the Quit India movement.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the CPI, the Muslim League and the Hindu Mahasabha stayed out of the movement.

49.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Montesquieu's The Spirit of Laws – 1748

II. Ram Jawaya Kapur – 1955

III. Article 145(3) – a bench of at least five judges

IV. Article 50 – separation of the judiciary from the executive

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

50.  

Consider the following pairs of works or poets and languages:

I. Kavirajamarga – Kannada

II. Ezhuthachan – Malayalam

III. Ramcharitmanas – Braj

IV. Padmavat – Telugu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Ramcharitmanas of Tulsidas and the Padmavat of Jayasi are both in Awadhi; Surdas's Sursagar is in Braj.

51.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Aapda Mitra scheme began as a pilot in 2016.

II. A disaster role was added to the Civil Defence Act in 2009.

III. The Indian Red Cross Society was set up under an Act of 1920.

IV. In the Incident Response System, the Responsible Officer leads the response on the ground.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Responsible Officer sets objectives; the Incident Commander leads on the ground.

52.  

Consider the following pairs of international NGOs and years of founding:

I. ICRC – 1863

II. Oxfam – 1942

III. Amnesty International – 1961

IV. Médecins Sans Frontières – 1971

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

53.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The conclusion of the India–EU free trade talks was announced in January 2026.

Statement-II: Talks on the India–EU Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement began in 2007.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but the start of talks in 2007 does not explain the conclusion in 2026; the talks were stalled in 2013 and relaunched in 2022.

54.  

In its opinion of 20 November 2025 on the Presidential reference under Article 143, the Supreme Court said that if a Governor stays inactive on a Bill for a long, unexplained and indefinite period, a court may:

Correct Answer: A [issue a limited direction to the Governor to decide within a reasonable time, without examining the merits of the decision]

Explanation:

the five-judge Bench held that prolonged, unexplained and indefinite inaction invites a limited mandamus to act, though the Governor's choice among assent, reservation and return cannot be reviewed on its merits.

55.  

Consider the following statements:

1. UNFPA (2025) put India's population at about 146.39 crore.
2. NFHS-6 (2023-24) found India's TFR to be 2.0.
3. The replacement level of fertility is a TFR of about 3.1.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

replacement-level fertility is a TFR of about 2.1.

56.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indus Waters Treaty was signed in 1960.

Statement-II: India placed the Indus Waters Treaty "in abeyance" in 2025.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both statements are correct, but the 2025 decision does not explain the signing of the treaty in 1960.

57.  

Consider the following pairs of processes and types of weathering:

I. Carbonation – physical weathering

II. Hydration – chemical weathering

III. Exfoliation by unloading – physical weathering

IV. Frost wedging – chemical weathering

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

carbonation is chemical weathering; frost wedging is physical weathering, in which water freezes in cracks and prises the rock apart.

58.  

Consider the following statements:

I. In the 2G case (2012), the Supreme Court cancelled 122 licences.

II. FASTag toll payment became mandatory on 15 February 2021.

III. Passive RFID tags carry their own battery.

IV. India's limits on emissions from mobile towers are ten times the international guideline.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

passive RFID tags have no battery and draw power from the reader's signal; India's tower emission limits are one-tenth of the international guideline.

59.  

Consider the following statements:

1. CSR spending under Section 135 of the Companies Act is 2 per cent of average net profit.
2. The FCRA amendment of 2020 bars the transfer of foreign contribution to another person.
3. The FCRA is administered by the Ministry of External Affairs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the FCRA is administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

60.  

Consider the following pairs of events in Aurangzeb's reign and years:

I. Battle of Saraighat – 1671

II. Annexation of Bijapur – 1686

III. Annexation of Golconda – 1687

IV. Reimposition of jizya – 1679

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

61.  

Consider the following pairs of mobile generations and features:

I. 1G – analog voice

II. 2G – SMS

III. 3G – mobile internet

IV. 4G – network slicing

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

network slicing is a feature of 5G; 4G is LTE.

62.  

Consider the following statements about the National Social Assistance Programme:

I. The NSAP began on 15 August 1995.

II. The National Family Benefit Scheme gives ₹20,000.

III. Annapurna gives 10 kg of foodgrain free.

IV. IGNOAPS gives ₹200 a month to those aged 60–79.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

63.  

Consider the following statements about the RTI Act, 2005:

I. A public information officer must reply within 30 days.

II. Information on life or liberty must be given within 48 hours.

III. The penalty is ₹250 a day, up to ₹25,000.

IV. A second appeal to the Information Commission may be filed within 90 days.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

64.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India's first mobile phone call was made in 1995.
2. 5G services were launched in India on 1 October 2022.
3. The Telecommunications Act was passed in 2019.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Telecommunications Act was passed in 2023.

65.  

Consider the following pairs of revolutionary groups or events and leaders:

I. Anushilan Samiti, Dacca – Pulin Das

II. Abhinav Bharat – Aurobindo Ghose

III. India House, London – Lala Har Dayal

IV. Chittagong armoury raid – Bhagat Singh

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

Abhinav Bharat (1904) was founded by the Savarkar brothers; India House (1905) by Shyamji Krishna Varma; the Chittagong armoury raid of 18 April 1930 was led by Surya Sen.

66.  

Consider the following pairs of buildings and architects:

I. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus – F. W. Stevens

II. Victoria Memorial – William Emerson

III. Gateway of India – George Wittet

IV. Chandigarh – Le Corbusier

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct; Louis Kahn designed IIM Ahmedabad, not Chandigarh.

67.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024 was examined by a Joint Parliamentary Committee before it was enacted in 2025.

Statement-II: A Joint Parliamentary Committee is an ad hoc committee of both Houses, set up by a motion in one House and agreed to by the other.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but the nature of a JPC does not explain why this particular Bill was sent to one.

68.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Historic City of Ahmedabad was inscribed as a World Heritage Site in 2017.
2. The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco ensembles of Mumbai were inscribed in 2018.
3. Jaipur City was inscribed in 2016.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Jaipur was inscribed in 2019; 2016 is the year of Le Corbusier's architectural work, including Chandigarh's Capitol Complex.

69.  

Consider the following statements about the higher judiciary in 2025–26:

1. Justice Surya Kant became the 53rd Chief Justice of India on 24 November 2025.
2. Justice B.R. Gavai, his predecessor, was the 52nd Chief Justice.
3. Justice Yashwant Varma was removed from office by Parliament in 2026.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Justice Varma resigned in 2026 before any vote in Parliament, so no removal took place.

70.  

Consider the following pairs of species and places:

I. Nilgiri tahr – Western Ghats

II. Irrawaddy dolphin – Chilika

III. Gharial – Chambal

IV. Jerdon's courser – Western Ghats

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Jerdon's courser belongs to the Eastern Ghats.

71.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007 allows maintenance of up to ₹10,000 a month.
2. PM-JAY was extended to all people aged 70 and above in 2024.
3. The Central old-age pension for persons aged 80 and above is ₹2,000 a month.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Central IGNOAPS pension is ₹200 a month, and ₹500 for those aged 80 and above.

72.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. IPCC – 1988

II. IRENA – Abu Dhabi

III. International Solar Alliance – Gurugram

IV. IPBES secretariat – Bonn

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

73.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Chief Ministers of the member States act as Vice-Chairman of a Zonal Council by rotation.

II. Odisha is a member of the Eastern Zonal Council.

III. The Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council is chaired by the Prime Minister.

IV. Zonal Councils are advisory bodies.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

I, II and IV are correct; the Union Home Minister, not the Prime Minister, chairs the ISC Standing Committee.

74.  

Consider the following statements about Indo-Roman trade:

I. Pepper was among the main exports from India to Rome.

II. Arretine ware and amphorae have been found at Arikamedu.

III. Gold and silver coins were among the imports into India.

IV. Muziris was a port on the Gujarat coast.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Muziris was a port of the south; Barygaza (Bharuch) was the port of Gujarat named in the Periplus.

75.  

The investigation of the car explosion near the Red Fort, New Delhi, on 10 November 2025 was taken over by the:

Correct Answer: A [National Investigation Agency]

Explanation:

the NIA took over the case.

76.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Optical fibres carry light signals by total internal reflection.

Statement-II: Li-Fi uses radio waves to carry data.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

light is kept inside an optical fibre by total internal reflection; Li-Fi carries data on light, not radio waves (it is Wi-Fi that uses radio waves).

77.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Panchsheel Agreement – 1954

II. Bandung Conference – 1961

III. Belgrade NAM summit – 1955

IV. Indo-Soviet Treaty – 1966

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

the years of Bandung (1955) and Belgrade (1961) are swapped, and the Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation was signed on 9 August 1971.

78.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Kaladan project – Chittagong port

II. Trilateral Highway – Moreh to Mae Sot

III. Maitri Setu – the Feni river

IV. Operation Insaniyat – the coup of 2021

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Kaladan project runs through Sittwe port in Myanmar; Operation Insaniyat (2017) sent relief for the Rohingya; the coup in Myanmar came on 1 February 2021.

79.  

Consider the following statements about constitutional offices:

1. Dr Ajay Kumar has been Chairman of the UPSC since 15 May 2025.
2. The term of Attorney General R. Venkataramani was extended by two years from 1 October 2025.
3. The Federal Public Service Commission became the Union Public Service Commission on 15 August 1947.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Federal Public Service Commission became the UPSC on 26 January 1950, when the Constitution came into force.

80.  

Consider the following statements about guidelines issued by the National Disaster Management Authority:

1. Guidelines on the Management of Earthquakes were issued in 2007.
2. Guidelines on Hospital Safety were issued in 2016.
3. Guidelines on Cultural Heritage Sites and Precincts were issued in 2017.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

NDMA issued earthquake guidelines in April 2007, hospital safety in February 2016 and cultural heritage sites in September 2017.

81.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The NGT was set up on 18 October 2010.
2. The NGT has zonal benches at Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai.
3. The NGT hears cases under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Wildlife (Protection) Act and the Forest Rights Act are not among the Acts listed in Schedule I of the NGT Act.

82.  

Consider the following pairs of judgments and years:

I. Indra Sawhney – 1992

II. M. Nagaraj – 2006

III. Janhit Abhiyan (EWS) – 2022

IV. Davinder Singh (sub-classification) – 2014

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Davinder Singh judgment, which allowed sub-classification of Scheduled Castes, came in 2024.

83.  

Jagadish Chandra Bose demonstrated wireless signalling with microwaves in Calcutta in:

Correct Answer: A [1895]

Explanation:

Bose gave the demonstration in 1895, the same year in which Marconi developed radio telegraphy.

84.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. CAQM Act – 2021

II. Central Zoo Authority – 1992

III. Animal Welfare Board of India – 1962

IV. SACON – Coimbatore

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct; SACON was set up at Coimbatore in 1990.

85.  

Consider the following pairs of scholars and ideas:

I. G.S. Ghurye – six features of caste

II. Louis Dumont – purity and pollution

III. W.H. Wiser – the jajmani system

IV. M.N. Srinivas – Homo Hierarchicus

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Homo Hierarchicus (1966) is Dumont's work; Srinivas gave the ideas of the dominant caste and Sanskritisation.

86.  

Consider the following pairs of schools of art and their features:

I. Gandhara Buddha – wavy hair and a heavy robe with folds

II. Mathura Buddha – shaven or spiral hair and a smiling face

III. Amaravati – the Buddha shown mostly in narrative panels

IV. Gandhara school – patronised mainly by the Satavahanas

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Gandhara and Mathura schools were patronised by the Kushanas; the Satavahanas and their successors patronised Amaravati.

87.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. C-DOT – 1984

II. TRAI – 1997

III. Bharat 6G Vision – 2023

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three pairs are correct.

88.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. NALSA – recognition of the third gender (2018)

II. Navtej Singh Johar – Section 377 (2013)

III. Supriyo – same-sex marriage (2023)

IV. Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act – 2014

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

NALSA was decided in 2014 and Navtej Singh Johar in 2018; the Transgender Persons Act was passed in 2019.

89.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Lake Eyre is the lowest point of Australia.
2. The Great Barrier Reef lies off Queensland.
3. India is a full member of the Arctic Council.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

India has been an observer of the Arctic Council since 2013; only the eight Arctic States are members.

90.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife is chaired by the Union Minister in charge of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Statement-II: Proposals for projects in and around protected areas are considered by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

The Environment Minister, the Board's Vice-Chairperson, chairs it; clearing projects is a separate function, not the reason.

91.  

Consider the following pairs about parliamentary committees:

I. Public Accounts Committee – 22 members

II. Estimates Committee – 30 members, all from the Lok Sabha

III. Committee on Public Undertakings – 22 members

IV. Departmentally related standing committees – 24

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

92.  

Which one of the following lists the rivers in descending order of length, according to NCERT (India: Physical Environment)?

Correct Answer: A [Brahmaputra – Indus – Ganga]

Explanation:

Brahmaputra about 2,900 km, Indus about 2,880 km, Ganga about 2,525 km.

93.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission was set up on 25 January 1950.
2. The first general elections were held between October 1951 and February 1952.
3. The first Lok Sabha had 543 elected seats.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the first Lok Sabha had 489 seats, of which the Congress won 364.

94.  

Arrange the following events of the seventeenth century in chronological order:

1. Thomas Roe arrives at Surat as English ambassador to Jahangir
2. Loss of Kandahar
3. Revolt of Khusrau
4. Battle of Samugarh
5. Deed of Submission by Bijapur and Golconda

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [3-1-5-2-4]

Explanation:

Khusrau (1606), Thomas Roe (1615), Deed of Submission (1636), Kandahar lost (1649), Samugarh (1658).

95.  

Consider the following statements about European institutions:

I. NATO, founded in 1949, has 32 members.

II. The European Union has 27 members.

III. The EU adopted a Nature Restoration Law in 2024.

IV. Every member of NATO is also a member of the EU.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

several NATO members, such as the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom and Norway, are not in the EU.

96.  

Consider the following pairs of straits and the lands on either side:

I. Strait of Hormuz – Iran and Oman

II. Bab-el-Mandeb – Yemen and Djibouti

III. Strait of Malacca – Malaya and Sumatra

IV. Strait of Gibraltar – Spain and Morocco

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

97.  

Consider the following pairs of sources and rivers:

I. Satopanth glacier – Alaknanda

II. Chemayungdung glacier – Brahmaputra

III. Rakas Tal – Satluj

IV. Beas Kund – Ravi

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

NCERT gives Satopanth for the Alaknanda, Chemayungdung for the Brahmaputra and Rakas Tal for the Satluj; Beas Kund feeds the Beas.

98.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Industrial licensing is now compulsory for only a few industries, such as alcoholic drinks, tobacco products and industrial explosives.
2. Only atomic energy and railway operations remain reserved for the public sector.
3. FEMA replaced FERA in 1995.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

FEMA came in 2000.

99.  

Consider the following pairs of reform committees and years:

I. Narasimham Committee I – 1991

II. Rangarajan Committee on disinvestment – 1993

III. Malhotra Committee on insurance – 1994

IV. Srikrishna Commission (FSLRC) – 2013

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

100.  

Consider the following pairs of amendments and provisions:

I. 86th Amendment – Article 21A

II. 93rd Amendment – Article 15(5)

III. 103rd Amendment – reservation for economically weaker sections

IV. 77th Amendment – Article 16(4B)

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the 77th Amendment (1995) added Article 16(4A); Article 16(4B) came with the 81st Amendment (2000).

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