UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 6: Mock Test 5 – Advanced Level (100 MCQs)

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UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 6: Mock Test 5 – Advanced Level (100 MCQs) – 100 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Under the UNCCD, desertification refers only to land degradation in hyper-arid deserts.

Statement-II: The UNCCD came into force in 1996.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

the UNCCD defines desertification as land degradation in arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas; Statement-II is correct.

2.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Under the numbering of 2010, national highways running east–west carry odd numbers.
2. The National Highways Authority of India was set up in 1988.
3. The Unigauge policy of the Railways was adopted in 2002.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Unigauge was adopted in 1992, not 2002.

3.  

According to DPIIT, the State that received the largest share of FDI equity inflows in 2025-26 was:

Correct Answer: B [Maharashtra]

Explanation:

Maharashtra received about 31 per cent.

4.  

Consider the following pairs of martial traditions and States:

I. Kathi Samu – Andhra Pradesh

II. Thoda – Keralam

III. Lathi khela – West Bengal

IV. Mukna – Assam

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Kathi Samu (Andhra Pradesh) and Lathi khela (West Bengal) are right; Thoda belongs to Himachal Pradesh and Mukna to Manipur.

5.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Rajya Sabha can have at most 250 members.

II. The six-year term of a Rajya Sabha member is fixed by the Representation of the People Act.

III. A House may declare a seat vacant if the member is absent without permission for 60 days.

IV. A person who sits as a member before taking the oath is liable to a penalty of ₹500 a day.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four are correct (Articles 80, 101(4) and 104, and the RP Act for the term).

6.  

Under the original Constitution of 1950, the only territory placed in Part D of the First Schedule was:

Correct Answer: A [the Andaman and Nicobar Islands]

Explanation:

Part D had one entry – the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

7.  

Consider the following statements about the Rigveda:

1. The Gayatri mantra is addressed to Savitri.
2. The Battle of Ten Kings was fought on the banks of the Parushni.
3. The ninth mandala of the Rigveda is devoted to Indra.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the ninth mandala is devoted entirely to Soma, not Indra.

8.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The provisional all-India CPI inflation for September 2026, released on 12 October 2026, was 5.54 per cent.
2. Rural CPI inflation was higher than urban CPI inflation in September 2026.
3. The Consumer Price Index is compiled by the Reserve Bank of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the CPI is compiled by the National Statistics Office (MoSPI), not the RBI.

9.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A tsunami that is hardly noticed by ships in the open ocean can be very destructive at the coast.

Statement-II: As a tsunami enters shallow water it slows down and its height increases.

Statement-III: In the deep ocean a tsunami travels at only about 50 km an hour.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

only Statement-II is correct, and the slowing and piling up of the wave in shallow water explains its force at the coast; in the deep ocean a tsunami moves at hundreds of kilometres an hour, about the speed of a jet plane.

10.  

Consider the following pairs of States and the year they became States:

I. Gujarat – 1960

II. Meghalaya – 1975

III. Arunachal Pradesh – 1972

IV. Haryana – 1963

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the first pair is correct: Meghalaya became a State in 1972, Arunachal Pradesh in 1987 and Haryana in 1966 (1963 is Nagaland and 1975 Sikkim).

11.  

Consider the following pairs of India–China agreements and years:

I. Agreement on confidence-building measures in the military field – 1996

II. Political Parameters and Guiding Principles – 2005

III. Working Mechanism for Consultation and Coordination – 2012

IV. Border Defence Cooperation Agreement – 2003

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the BDCA was signed in 2013; 2003 is the year the Special Representatives mechanism was set up.

12.  

Consider the following pairs of expert bodies and features:

I. Alagh Task Force (1979) – calorie norms of 2,400 and 2,100

II. Lakdawala Group (1993) – State-specific poverty lines

III. Tendulkar Group (2009) – 21.9 per cent poor in 2011-12

IV. Rangarajan Group (2014) – 29.5 per cent poor in 2011-12

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

13.  

Consider the following pairs of archaeological sites and their locations:

I. Burzahom – Kashmir Valley

II. Chandraketugarh – Odisha

III. Ganeshwar – Haryana

IV. Inamgaon – Gujarat

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the first pair is correct: Chandraketugarh is in West Bengal, Ganeshwar in Rajasthan and Inamgaon in Maharashtra.

14.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indian Councils Act, 1892 allowed members of the councils to discuss the budget and ask questions.

Statement-II: The Indian Councils Act, 1892 introduced direct election of members to the councils.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

the 1892 Act allowed budget discussion and questions, but members came in only by indirect election through recommendation.

15.  

Consider the following pairs of mining regions and countries or minerals:

I. Carajás – Brazil

II. Kiruna – Norway

III. Mesabi Range – USA

IV. Bayan Obo – copper

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Kiruna is in Sweden, and Bayan Obo in China is known for rare earths, not copper.

16.  

Consider the following pairs of satellites and uses:

I. Oceansat-3 – ocean colour and sea-surface temperature

II. RISAT – ocean colour

III. Cartosat – weather forecasting

IV. INSAT-3DS – navigation

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the first pair is correct: RISAT is a radar-imaging satellite, Cartosat is for high-resolution mapping and INSAT-3DS is a meteorological satellite.

17.  

Consider the following pairs of Congress sessions and presidents:

I. Lucknow, 1936 – Subhas Chandra Bose

II. Faizpur, 1936 – Jawaharlal Nehru

III. Haripura, 1938 – Subhas Chandra Bose

IV. Tripuri, 1939 – Pattabhi Sitaramayya

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Nehru presided at both Lucknow and Faizpur (1936); at Tripuri (1939) Bose defeated Pattabhi Sitaramayya in the presidential election.

18.  

Which one of the following is NOT one of the four biodiversity hotspots that include parts of India?

Correct Answer: D [Eastern Ghats]

Explanation:

the Eastern Ghats are not a hotspot; India's four are the Himalaya, Indo-Burma, the Western Ghats–Sri Lanka and Sundaland.

19.  

Consider the following statements:

1. About 99.6 per cent of the broad-gauge network was electrified by March 2026.
2. Kavach is an indigenous automatic train-protection system.
3. The Western Dedicated Freight Corridor was still incomplete in March 2026.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Western DFC was completed in March 2026.

20.  

Arrange the following intellectual property treaties in chronological order:

1. Patent Cooperation Treaty
2. Berne Convention
3. Doha Declaration on TRIPS
4. Paris Convention
5. Convention establishing WIPO

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [4-2-5-1-3]

Explanation:

Paris (1883), Berne (1886), WIPO (1967), PCT (1970), Doha (2001).

21.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Article 21A – free and compulsory education from 6 to 14

II. Article 24 – no child below 14 in factories, mines or hazardous work

III. Article 45 – early childhood care and education below six

IV. Article 51A(k) – a duty of the State to provide education

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Article 51A(k) is a Fundamental Duty of parents and guardians, not of the State.

22.  

Arrange the following earthquakes in chronological order:

1. Bhuj
2. Assam–Tibet
3. Sikkim
4. Kangra
5. Kashmir

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [4-2-1-5-3]

Explanation:

Kangra (1905), Assam–Tibet (1950), Bhuj (2001), Kashmir (2005), Sikkim (2011).

23.  

The National Monetisation Pipeline 2.0, launched in February 2026 for 2025–30, has an aggregate potential of about:

Correct Answer: D [₹16.72 lakh crore]

Explanation:

NMP 2.0 has a potential of ₹16.72 lakh crore.

24.  

Consider the following pairs of hills and States:

I. Javadi hills – Tamil Nadu

II. Nallamala hills – Andhra Pradesh

III. Mahadeo hills – Chhattisgarh

IV. Dalma hills – Odisha

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Javadi (Tamil Nadu) and Nallamala (Andhra Pradesh) are right; the Mahadeo hills are in Madhya Pradesh and the Dalma hills in Jharkhand.

25.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India ratified ILO Conventions 138 and 182 in 2017.

Statement-II: ILO Convention 138 deals with the worst forms of child labour.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

India ratified both in 2017; Convention 138 is on the minimum age, and Convention 182 on the worst forms.

26.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Vijnaneshwara wrote the Mitakshara at the court of Vikramaditya VI.
2. Basavanna was a minister of the Kalachuri ruler Bijjala.
3. Sharngadeva wrote the Sangita Ratnakara at the Hoysala court.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Sharngadeva wrote at the Yadava court of Singhana at Devagiri, not at the Hoysala court.

27.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India's Pan-African e-Network was launched in 2009.
2. The e-VidyaBharti and e-AarogyaBharti (e-VBAB) network was launched in 2019.
3. The ten guiding principles of India's Africa policy were set out at Kampala in 2015.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Kampala principles were set out in 2018, not 2015.

28.  

A finer-scale re-measurement of India's coastline released in 2025 gives its length as about:

Correct Answer: A [11,098.81 km]

Explanation:

the re-measurement gives about 11,098.81 km.

29.  

Consider the following pairs of places and sectors of the India–China boundary:

I. Galwan – western sector

II. Depsang – western sector

III. Demchok – eastern sector

IV. Tawang – middle sector

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Demchok lies in the western sector (Ladakh), and Tawang in the eastern sector (Arunachal Pradesh).

30.  

Consider the following statements:

1. A PMJDY account holder can get an overdraft of up to Rs 10,000.
2. The RuPay card of a PMJDY account carries accident cover of Rs 2 lakh.
3. The annual premium of the PM Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana is Rs 20.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the PMJJBY premium is Rs 436; Rs 20 is the premium of the PM Suraksha Bima Yojana.

31.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Satellite internet from LEO constellations has much less signal delay than internet through geostationary satellites.

Statement-II: LEO satellites orbit much closer to the Earth than geostationary satellites.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

the signal travels a far shorter distance to a low satellite and back, so the delay is smaller.

32.  

A Chief Secretary declines to act on a minister's oral instruction to transfer an officer and asks for it in writing. The direction of the Supreme Court that supports this was given in:

Correct Answer: C [T.S.R. Subramanian v. Union of India (2013)]

Explanation:

T.S.R. Subramanian asked for written orders, fixed tenure and Civil Services Boards.

33.  

The 'Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas', inscribed on the World Heritage List in 2023, comprise the temples at:

Correct Answer: A [Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura]

Explanation:

The site includes the temples at Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura in Karnataka.

34.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Alluvial soils are generally rich in potash but poor in phosphorus.

II. The older alluvium, bhangar, contains kankar nodules.

III. Arid soils are rich in humus.

IV. The red colour of red soils comes from aluminium oxide.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

arid soils are low in humus, and red soils owe their colour to iron diffused through crystalline rocks.

35.  

Consider the following statements:

1. SVAMITVA uses drones to map rural inhabited land and give property cards.
2. Bhashini is a mission for language technology.
3. CERT-In, the national agency for cyber incidents, was set up in 2014.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

CERT-In was set up in 2004, not 2014.

36.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Baking soda – NaHCO₃

II. Washing soda – Na₂CO₃·10H₂O

III. Bleaching powder – CaOCl₂

IV. Plaster of Paris – CaSO₄·2H₂O

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

plaster of Paris is CaSO₄·½H₂O; CaSO₄·2H₂O is gypsum.

37.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Hard water does not lather easily with soap.

Statement-II: Hardness of water is caused by salts of calcium and magnesium.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

calcium and magnesium salts react with soap to form scum instead of lather.

38.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Swachh Bharat Mission was launched in 2014.

II. AMRUT was launched in 2015.

III. PMAY-Urban 2.0 was launched in 2024.

IV. AMRUT 2.0 was launched in 2019.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

AMRUT 2.0 was launched in 2021, not 2019.

39.  

Under the Kigali Amendment, India (Group 2) must cut its HFC use by 85 per cent by:

Correct Answer: A [2047]

Explanation:

India must reach an 85 per cent cut by 2047.

40.  

Consider the following pairs of famine commissions and years:

I. Strachey Commission – 1880

II. Lyall Commission – 1901

III. MacDonnell Commission – 1898

IV. Woodhead Commission – famine of 1876–78

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the first pair is correct: the Lyall Commission reported in 1898 and the MacDonnell Commission in 1901, while the Woodhead Commission inquired into the Bengal famine of 1943.

41.  

In India a registered industrial design is protected for:

Correct Answer: A [10 years, extendable by 5 years]

Explanation:

the Designs Act, 2000 gives 10 years, extendable by 5.

42.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A laccolith is a large dome-shaped body of igneous rock with a level base, fed from below by a pipe-like conduit.

Statement-II: A laccolith forms when lava cools on the surface of the Earth.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

a laccolith is an intrusive form: the magma cools inside the crust, not as lava on the surface (NCERT).

43.  

The Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor runs between:

Correct Answer: A [Ludhiana and Sonnagar]

Explanation:

the Eastern DFC runs about 1,337 km from Sahnewal near Ludhiana (Punjab) to Sonnagar (Bihar); the planned stretch on to Dankuni near Kolkata has been shelved.

44.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Coal and petroleum are found mainly in sedimentary rocks.

Statement-II: Most metallic ores occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks.

Statement-III: Coal and petroleum form from the remains of plants and tiny organisms buried in layers of sediment.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but only Statement-III explains Statement-I: the fuels form from organic matter buried in sediments, so they lie in sedimentary rocks.

45.  

K. Sanjay Murthy, who took office on 21 November 2024, holds the post of:

Correct Answer: A [Comptroller and Auditor General of India]

Explanation:

K. Sanjay Murthy has been the CAG since 21 November 2024.

46.  

Which one of the following lists the peaks in descending order of height?

Correct Answer: B [Anamudi – Doddabetta – Guru Shikhar – Mahendragiri]

Explanation:

Anamudi 2,695 m, Doddabetta 2,637 m, Guru Shikhar 1,722 m, Mahendragiri 1,501 m.

47.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The UNCCD was adopted in Paris in 1994.
2. The UNCCD secretariat is in Bonn.
3. UNCCD COP14 was held in Riyadh.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

COP14 was held in New Delhi in 2019.

48.  

Consider the following African countries:

I. Gabon

II. Niger

III. Ghana

IV. Burkina Faso

How many of the above have seen military coups in recent years?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Gabon, Niger and Burkina Faso saw military takeovers in recent years; Ghana did not.

49.  

Consider the following pairs of Mauryan sites and art:

I. Rampurva – bull capital

II. Sankisa – elephant capital

III. Lauriya-Nandangarh – four lions back to back

IV. Parkham – a Yakshi holding a fly-whisk

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Lauriya-Nandangarh has a single lion (the four lions are at Sarnath), and the Parkham figure is a male Yaksha; the Yakshi with a fly-whisk is from Didarganj.

50.  

G.S. Ghurye's study of the features of caste, "Caste and Race in India", was published in:

Correct Answer: A [1932]

Explanation:

Ghurye's book appeared in 1932.

51.  

According to HCES 2023-24, the Gini coefficient of consumption expenditure in rural and urban India was about:

Correct Answer: A [0.237 rural and 0.284 urban]

Explanation:

rural 0.237 and urban 0.284 – inequality is higher in towns; the rural figure fell from 0.266 in 2022-23.

52.  

Consider the following States and Union Territories:

I. Punjab

II. Nagaland

III. Lakshadweep

IV. Tripura

In how many of the above were Hindus not the majority at Census 2011?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Hindus were a minority in Punjab (Sikh majority), Nagaland (Christian majority) and Lakshadweep (Muslim majority); Tripura has a Hindu majority.

53.  

Consider the following pairs of e-governance platforms and their purposes:

I. Jeevan Pramaan – digital life certificates for pensioners

II. e-Office – electronic handling of files in government offices

III. Poshan Tracker – registration of motor vehicles

IV. Vahan – monitoring of nutrition services at anganwadis

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

I and II are correct; Poshan Tracker monitors nutrition and Vahan handles vehicle registration.

54.  

A solution of pH 3 is how many times more acidic (in hydrogen-ion concentration) than a solution of pH 5?

Correct Answer: D [100]

Explanation:

each unit of pH is a tenfold change, so two units is 10 × 10 = 100.

55.  

Which one of the following is NOT a member of the IBSA Dialogue Forum?

Correct Answer: D [Indonesia]

Explanation:

IBSA (2003) is India, Brazil and South Africa; Indonesia is not a member.

56.  

Consider the following statements:

I. A major irrigation project has a culturable command area of more than 10,000 ha.

II. A minor irrigation project has a command area below 10,000 ha.

III. Wells and tube wells account for more than 60 per cent of the irrigated area.

IV. India's ultimate irrigation potential is about 140 million ha.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

a minor project has a command area below 2,000 ha; 2,000 to 10,000 ha is the medium class.

57.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Article 80 – composition of the Rajya Sabha

II. Article 83 – duration of the Houses

III. Article 85 – sessions, prorogation and dissolution

IV. Article 100 – qualifications for membership of Parliament

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Article 100 deals with voting and quorum; qualifications are in Article 84.

58.  

Consider the following pairs of clouds and descriptions:

I. Cirrus – high, white and feathery, at 8,000–12,000 m

II. Cumulus – layered sheets covering the sky

III. Stratus – cotton-wool heaps

IV. Nimbus – dark clouds that bring rain

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the descriptions of cumulus and stratus are swapped: cumulus look like cotton wool, and stratus are layered sheets.

59.  

Consider the following:

I. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities

II. Advocate General of a State

III. Finance Commission

IV. NITI Aayog

How many of the above are constitutional bodies or offices?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

NITI Aayog was set up by an executive resolution; the other three are provided for in the Constitution (Articles 350B, 165 and 280).

60.  

Consider the following pairs of navigation systems and owners:

I. GLONASS – USA

II. Galileo – European Union

III. BeiDou – China

IV. NavIC – Japan

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

GLONASS is Russian and NavIC is India's regional system.

61.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Halons and carbon tetrachloride are ozone-depleting substances.
2. HCFCs are ozone-depleting substances.
3. HFCs are ozone-depleting substances.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

HFCs do not deplete ozone; they are controlled by the Kigali Amendment because they are strong greenhouse gases.

62.  

Consider the following statements:

1. According to NFHS-5, about 33 per cent of women and 57 per cent of men had ever used the internet.
2. According to NFHS-5, about 57 per cent of women were anaemic.
3. The Gender Inequality Index is published by the World Economic Forum.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the GII is published by the UNDP; the WEF publishes the Global Gender Gap Index.

63.  

Consider the following areas:

I. Kachchh

II. Chennai

III. Mumbai

IV. Kolkata

How many of the above lie in seismic Zone V under IS 1893:2016?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only Kachchh is in Zone V; Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata are in Zone III.

64.  

Consider the following pairs of Sufi saints and their centres:

I. Gesu Daraz – Gulbarga

II. Bahauddin Zakariya – Ajmer

III. Baba Farid – Pakpattan

IV. Sharafuddin Maneri – Kashmir

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Bahauddin Zakariya of the Suhrawardi order was at Multan (Ajmer is the seat of Muinuddin Chishti), and Maneri of the Firdausi order worked in Bihar.

65.  

Consider the following pairs of disasters and places:

I. Mandhar Devi temple stampede – Satara

II. Chamunda Devi temple stampede – Jodhpur

III. Pulmedu stampede – Sabarimala

IV. Takshashila coaching centre fire – Rajkot

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Takshashila fire (2019) was in Surat; Rajkot had the game-zone fire of 2024.

66.  

Which one of the following is NOT a Union Territory at present?

Correct Answer: D [Sikkim]

Explanation:

Sikkim became the 22nd State in 1975.

67.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The EU's Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism covers imports of steel, aluminium, cement, fertilisers, hydrogen and electricity.
2. Reporting under the CBAM began in October 2023.
3. Importers have had to buy CBAM certificates since 2024.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the definitive (paying) phase began on 1 January 2026, but under the CBAM Omnibus simplification (Regulation adopted October 2025) certificates can be bought and surrendered only from February 2027, for 2026 imports; October 2023–December 2025 was a reporting-only phase.

68.  

The section of the Patents Act, 1970 that excludes plants, animals and essentially biological processes from patents is:

Correct Answer: B [Section 3(j)]

Explanation:

Section 3(j) bars patents on plants, animals and biological processes.

69.  

At Census 2011, the highest child sex ratio (0–6 years) among the States was recorded in:

Correct Answer: D [Arunachal Pradesh]

Explanation:

Arunachal Pradesh recorded 972, the highest.

70.  

Consider the following pairs of cases and holdings:

I. Minerva Mills – judicial review is part of the basic structure

II. I.R. Coelho – Ninth Schedule laws after 24 April 1973 can be reviewed

III. S.P. Gupta – the rule of locus standi was relaxed

IV. L. Chandra Kumar – decisions of tribunals are subject to High Court review

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

71.  

Consider the following:

I. Melting of wax

II. Dissolving of sugar in water

III. Rusting of iron

IV. Burning of paper

How many of the above are physical changes?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

melting and dissolving are physical changes; rusting and burning make new substances and are chemical changes.

72.  

Arrange the following steps in financial inclusion in chronological order:

1. SHG–Bank Linkage Programme
2. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana
3. Lead Bank Scheme
4. Business correspondents allowed
5. Service Area Approach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [3-5-1-4-2]

Explanation:

Lead Bank Scheme (1969), Service Area Approach (1989), SHG–Bank Linkage (1992), business correspondents (2006), PMJDY (2014).

73.  

The China–Pakistan Economic Corridor passes through which area claimed by India?

Correct Answer: D [Gilgit-Baltistan]

Explanation:

the CPEC runs through Gilgit-Baltistan, which is why India objects to it.

74.  

Consider the following statements:

I. A Bill under Article 3 can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.

II. The 18th Amendment clarified that "State" in Article 3 includes a Union Territory.

III. The views of the State legislature on such a Bill bind Parliament.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the President refers the Bill to the State legislature, but its views do not bind Parliament.

75.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme began in 1985.

II. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme began in 2009.

III. Enrolment under PMFBY has been compulsory for all farmers since kharif 2020.

IV. RWBCIS settles claims on the basis of actual crop yield.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the first is correct: NAIS began in 1999, PMFBY became voluntary from kharif 2020, and RWBCIS settles claims on weather indices, not measured yield.

76.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The National Front government took office in December 1989.

II. The New Industrial Policy was announced on 24 July 1991.

III. SEBI became a statutory body in 1992.

IV. The National Human Rights Commission was set up in 1993.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four dates are correct: National Front (2 December 1989), NIP (24 July 1991), SEBI Act (1992) and NHRC (1993).

77.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Union fiscal deficit for 2026-27 (BE) is 4.3 per cent of GDP.
2. The Union aims to bring its debt to 50 ± 1 per cent of GDP by 2030-31.
3. The Union revenue deficit for 2026-27 (BE) is 2.5 per cent of GDP.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the revenue deficit for 2026-27 (BE) is 1.5 per cent of GDP.

78.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India is one of the 17 megadiverse countries.

Statement-II: India has about 7 to 8 per cent of the world's recorded species on 2.4 per cent of its land.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

India's place among the megadiverse countries rests on its very high share of species for its area.

79.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Temperature rises with height in the mesosphere.

Statement-II: The mesosphere lies immediately above the stratosphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

the mesosphere lies above the stratosphere, up to about 80 km, and temperature falls with height through it to about −100 °C; it is in the stratosphere that temperature rises with height.

80.  

Which one of the following lists the Great Lakes correctly from west to east?

Correct Answer: D [Superior – Huron – Erie – Ontario]

Explanation:

water flows from Superior through Huron and Erie into Ontario, from west to east; Michigan lies south-west of Huron.

81.  

Consider the following pairs of monuments and places:

I. Vettuvan Koil – Kazhugumalai

II. Stone chariot of the Vitthala temple – Hampi

III. Pudhu Mandapam – Madurai

IV. Shore Temple – Kanchipuram

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Shore Temple of Rajasimha stands at Mamallapuram; Kanchipuram has his Kailasanatha temple.

82.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The National Center for Seismology monitors earthquakes and works under the Ministry of Earth Sciences.
2. The seismic zone map of India is published by the BIS.
3. Earthquake intensity in India is measured on the Richter scale.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

intensity is measured on the MSK-64 scale; the Richter scale measures magnitude.

83.  

Consider the following statements:

I. A single chlorine atom can destroy thousands of ozone molecules.

II. The Antarctic ozone hole was reported in 1985.

III. India phased out CFCs by 2010.

IV. The Arctic ozone layer is expected to recover by about 2045.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four are correct.

84.  

Consider the following functions:

I. Regulation

II. Accreditation

III. Funding

IV. Academic standard-setting

How many of the above are proposed as separate verticals of the Higher Education Commission of India under NEP 2020?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

NEP 2020 proposes all four as verticals of the Higher Education Commission of India; medical and legal education stay outside it.

85.  

Consider the following pairs relating to centres of service activities:

I. GIFT City IFSC – Gujarat

II. Manila – a leading BPO centre

III. Dublin – European headquarters of technology firms

IV. Cebu – the Philippines

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct; Cebu, like Manila, is a BPO centre in the Philippines.

86.  

Under India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme, 2023, one carbon credit certificate represents:

Correct Answer: A [one tonne of carbon dioxide equivalent]

Explanation:

One carbon credit certificate equals one tonne of CO2 equivalent reduced, removed or avoided.

87.  

Under the Comptroller and Auditor-General's (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, the salary of the CAG is:

Correct Answer: A [equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court]

Explanation:

Section 3 of the 1971 Act equates the CAG's salary with that of a Supreme Court judge.

88.  

In the structure of a stupa, the railed, box-like enclosure on top of the dome is the:

Correct Answer: C [harmika]

Explanation:

the harmika sits on top of the anda and holds the shaft (yashti) with its umbrellas.

89.  

The two members who served with Fazl Ali on the States Reorganisation Commission were:

Correct Answer: A [K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru]

Explanation:

the Commission was Fazl Ali, K.M. Panikkar and H.N. Kunzru; it reported in 1955.

90.  

Consider the following:

I. Nidhi companies

II. Transferable development rights

III. Chit funds

IV. Multi-brand retail trading

In how many of the above is foreign direct investment prohibited in India?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

multi-brand retail is open up to 51 per cent through the government route; the other three are prohibited.

91.  

Consider the following statements:

I. About 1.5 million species have been described.

II. Robert May estimated the total number of species at about 7 million.

III. Insects are the richest group of species.

IV. In Humboldt's species–area relation, Z is usually 0.6 to 1.2 for small regions.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

for small regions Z usually lies between 0.1 and 0.2; much steeper slopes are found only for whole continents.

92.  

Consider the following pairs of substances and acids:

I. Vinegar – acetic acid

II. Tamarind – tartaric acid

III. Lemon – formic acid

IV. Curd – citric acid

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

lemon contains citric acid and curd lactic acid; formic acid is in ant stings.

93.  

Consider the following:

I. Paris Convention

II. Berne Convention

III. Patent Cooperation Treaty

IV. TRIPS Agreement

How many of the above are administered by WIPO?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

WIPO runs the Paris and Berne Conventions and the PCT; the TRIPS Agreement is administered by the WTO.

94.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: National Waterway-2 runs on the Ganga between Prayagraj and Haldia.

Statement-II: The National Waterways Act, 2016 declared 111 national waterways.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

Prayagraj–Haldia on the Ganga is NW-1; NW-2 runs on the Brahmaputra from Dhubri to Sadiya. Statement-II is correct.

95.  

Consider the following pairs of Rigvedic and modern river names:

I. Asikni – Chenab

II. Vitasta – Beas

III. Vipas – Jhelum

IV. Sutudri – Ravi

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the first pair is correct: the Vitasta is the Jhelum, the Vipas is the Beas, the Sutudri is the Sutlej, and the Ravi was called the Parushni.

96.  

Consider the following pairs of dynasties and capitals:

I. Hoysalas – Dorasamudra

II. Kakatiyas – Warangal

III. Yadavas – Devagiri

IV. Chalukyas of Kalyani – Badami

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the later Chalukyas ruled from Kalyani; Badami (Vatapi) was the capital of the earlier Chalukyas.

97.  

Consider the following pairs of bodies and Articles:

I. National Commission for Scheduled Castes – Article 338

II. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes – Article 338A

III. National Commission for Backward Classes – Article 338A

IV. Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities – Article 350A

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the NCBC is under Article 338B (102nd Amendment, 2018) and the Special Officer under Article 350B.

98.  

According to the FAO Global Forest Resources Assessment 2025, forests cover about what share of the world's land?

Correct Answer: A [32 per cent]

Explanation:

forests cover about 4.14 billion ha, about 32 per cent of land.

99.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Radcliffe Award was made public on 17 August 1947.
2. C. Rajagopalachari was Governor-General from June 1948 to January 1950.
3. The Nehru–Liaquat Pact of 1950 dealt with the sharing of river waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Nehru–Liaquat Pact (8 April 1950) dealt with the protection of minorities, not river waters.

100.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Uphaar cinema fire took place in Delhi in 1997.
2. The game-zone fire at Rajkot took place in 2024.
3. The AMRI hospital fire of 2011 took place in Mumbai.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the AMRI hospital fire of 2011 was in Kolkata.

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