UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 7: Mock Test 6 – Advanced Level (100 MCQs)

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UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 7: Mock Test 6 – Advanced Level (100 MCQs) – 100 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Parliament without the recommendation of the President.

Statement-II: A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

Article 117(1) requires the President's recommendation and Article 109(1) bars the Rajya Sabha; neither explains the other.

2.  

Consider the following pairs of industrial regions and places:

I. Po triangle – Milan, Turin and Genoa

II. Maquiladoras – Brazil

III. Magnitogorsk – the Urals

IV. Pohang – Japan

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

maquiladoras are the assembly plants of Mexico, and Pohang, the steel centre, is in South Korea.

3.  

Who took oath as Chairperson of the Lokpal on 10 March 2024?

Correct Answer: A [Justice A.M. Khanwilkar]

Explanation:

Justice A.M. Khanwilkar took oath on 10 March 2024.

4.  

The RBI's e-rupee (central bank digital currency) pilots began in:

Correct Answer: C [2022 – wholesale in November and retail in December]

Explanation:

the pilots began in 2022, wholesale in November and retail in December.

5.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Every living cell has a membrane-bound nucleus.

II. Vegetative propagation always gives virus-free plants.

III. A lichen is an association of an alga and a fungus.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

prokaryotic cells have no true nucleus, and vegetative propagation passes on viruses of the mother plant; meristem culture is used to get virus-free plants.

6.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Data held in RAM is lost when the power is switched off.

Statement-II: RAM is a permanent memory that holds the start-up instructions.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

RAM is temporary (volatile); it is ROM that is permanent and holds the start-up instructions.

7.  

Consider the following pairs of original rocks and their metamorphic forms:

I. Granite – gneiss

II. Shale – slate

III. Limestone – marble

IV. Sandstone – schist

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

sandstone changes into quartzite; schist forms from shale and slate.

8.  

The Raajmarg InvIT, listed on 24 March 2026, was launched by:

Correct Answer: A [NHAI]

Explanation:

the Raajmarg InvIT (₹6,000 crore) is NHAI's.

9.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. MeghRaj – government cloud

II. AIRAWAT – AI supercomputer

III. FLOPS – a unit of data storage

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

FLOPS (floating-point operations per second) measure the speed of a supercomputer, not storage.

10.  

Consider the following pairs of persons and the rulers or dynasties with whom tradition links them:

I. Charaka – Kanishka

II. Ashvaghosha – Kanishka

III. Kalidasa – Kushanas

IV. Gunadhya – Indo-Greeks

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Charaka and Ashvaghosha are linked with Kanishka; Kalidasa is linked with the Guptas and Gunadhya with a Satavahana king.

11.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Sedimentary rocks make up about three-quarters of the earth's crust.

II. Feldspar makes up about half of the earth's crust.

III. Quartz is used in radio and radar.

IV. Mica is the hardest mineral on the Mohs scale.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

sedimentary rocks cover about 75 per cent of the surface but form only about 5 per cent of the crust, and diamond (10), not mica, is the hardest mineral on the Mohs scale.

12.  

Consider the following statements about the later Vedic age:

I. Iron, called shyama ayas, came into use in the later Vedic age.

II. Bali changed from a voluntary gift into a regular tax.

III. Prajapati rose to become the supreme god.

IV. Women were wholly excluded from philosophical debate in this age.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the last statement is too absolute: Gargi and Maitreyi take part in debates in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, though women lost some earlier freedoms.

13.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India banned the veterinary use of diclofenac in 2006.

Statement-II: Vultures that ate carcasses of cattle treated with diclofenac died of kidney failure.

Statement-III: Diclofenac is an antibiotic.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

only Statement-II is correct, and the vulture deaths it describes led to the 2006 ban; diclofenac is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (a painkiller), not an antibiotic.

14.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria led to the extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid fish.
2. TRAFFIC was founded in 1976 as a joint programme of WWF and IUCN.
3. IPBES (2019) ranks climate change as the largest direct driver of biodiversity loss.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

IPBES ranks change in land and sea use as the largest direct driver; climate change comes third, after direct exploitation.

15.  

Consider the following pairs of local names of shifting cultivation and countries:

I. Milpa – Mexico

II. Conuco – Brazil

III. Ladang – Vietnam

IV. Ray – Indonesia

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the Milpa pair is correct: Conuco is Venezuelan, Ladang Indonesian and Ray Vietnamese; Roca is the name used in Brazil.

16.  

Consider the following pairs of PPP models and features:

I. EPC – the government pays the full cost

II. BOT-Toll – the government bears the traffic risk

III. HAM – a 40:60 split, with NHAI collecting the toll

IV. TOT – the private partner builds a new road from scratch

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

under BOT-Toll the private partner bears the traffic risk, and under TOT it pays upfront for an existing asset; it does not build a new one.

17.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Angel Falls – Venezuela

II. Itaipu dam – Brazil and Argentina

III. Atacama desert – the Benguela Current

IV. Lake Maracaibo – Colombia

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the Angel Falls pair is correct: Itaipu on the Paraná is a Brazil–Paraguay project, the Atacama is dry because of the cold Humboldt (Peru) Current, and Lake Maracaibo is in Venezuela.

18.  

Consider the following statements about employment data and law:

I. In PLFS 2025 the unemployment rate (usual status) was 3.1 per cent.

II. In PLFS 2025 the female LFPR was 40.0 per cent.

III. The four Labour Codes subsume 29 central labour laws.

IV. Under the current weekly status, a person counts as employed only if he or she worked on all seven days.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

under CWS a person counts as employed after at least one hour of work on any day of the reference week.

19.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Mitochondria produce energy in the form of ATP.
2. Mitochondrial DNA is inherited only from the father.
3. Prokaryotic cells have no true nucleus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

mitochondrial DNA is inherited from the mother.

20.  

Four bytes contain:

Correct Answer: A [32 bits]

Explanation:

1 byte = 8 bits, so 4 bytes = 32 bits.

21.  

Consider the following pairs of international institutions and their headquarters:

I. International Fund for Agricultural Development – Rome

II. Bank for International Settlements – Washington DC

III. Asian Development Bank – Jakarta

IV. International Finance Corporation – Geneva

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

Only IFAD–Rome is right; the BIS is at Basel, the ADB at Manila and the IFC at Washington DC.

22.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Junagadh inscription of Rudradaman (150 CE) is the first long inscription in chaste Sanskrit.

Statement-II: Rudradaman belonged to the Satavahana dynasty of Pratishthana.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

Rudradaman I was a Saka ruler of the Kardamaka family of Ujjain; the Satavahanas ruled from Pratishthana.

23.  

Consider the following statements about the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act:

I. The RPwD Act, 2016 recognises 21 disabilities.

II. A benchmark disability means at least 40 per cent of a specified disability.

III. The Act reserves 4 per cent of government jobs.

IV. The Act reserves 5 per cent of seats in higher education.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

24.  

Consider the following statements about the National Human Rights Commission:

I. Since 2019, a former judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed Chairperson of the NHRC.

II. The NHRC's recommendations are binding on the government.

III. An NHRC member holds office for three years or until 70.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the NHRC's recommendations are not binding; it is an advisory body.

25.  

Consider the following statements about Indo-Islamic architecture:

I. The Qutb Minar was begun and completed by Qutbuddin Aibak.

II. Tughlaq buildings are known for sloping walls.

III. The double dome was never used in India before the Mughals.

IV. The tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah shows early pietra dura work.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Iltutmish completed the Qutb Minar that Aibak began, and the double dome was already used in Lodi tombs.

26.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The IMF has 191 members.
2. India last borrowed from the IMF during the crisis of 1991.
3. India is a member of ICSID.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

India is not a member of ICSID, the World Bank Group body for investment arbitration.

27.  

Consider the following pairs of events in South India and dates:

I. Andhra State – 1 October 1953

II. Madras State renamed Tamil Nadu – 1 November 1956

III. Mysore State renamed Karnataka – 14 January 1969

IV. State of Kerala formed – 26 January 1950

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the Andhra pair is correct: Madras became Tamil Nadu on 14 January 1969, Mysore became Karnataka on 1 November 1973, and the State of Kerala was formed on 1 November 1956.

28.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Contingency Fund of India stands at ₹30,000 crore.
2. Expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund can neither be discussed nor voted on.
3. Zero Hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

charged expenditure is not voted, but it may be discussed in Parliament.

29.  

The Nine Degree Channel separates:

Correct Answer: A [the main Lakshadweep group from Minicoy]

Explanation:

the Nine Degree Channel lies between the main Lakshadweep group and Minicoy.

30.  

Consider the following statements about the Sixteenth Finance Commission:

1. It was chaired by Arvind Panagariya.
2. Its recommendations cover the five years from 2026-27 to 2030-31.
3. Its Chairman is appointed by the Chief Justice of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Chairman and members are appointed by the President under Article 280.

31.  

Consider the following pairs of Kunming–Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework targets and aims:

I. Target 2 – at least 30 per cent of degraded ecosystems under restoration

II. Target 3 – "30 by 30"

III. Target 18 – cut harmful subsidies by at least US$500 billion a year

IV. Target 6 – eliminate all invasive alien species

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Target 6 asks for at least a 50 per cent cut in the introduction and establishment of invasive species, not their elimination.

32.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Flood management is mainly a State subject.

II. The Ganga Flood Control Commission is at Patna.

III. The Central Water Commission issues river flood forecasts.

IV. The India Meteorological Department is the agency that issues river flood forecasts.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

IMD gives rainfall forecasts that feed the flood forecasts; the river flood forecasts come from the CWC.

33.  

PRAGATI, mentioned in discussions on policy implementation, is:

Correct Answer: A [a platform for the Prime Minister's review of projects and grievances]

Explanation:

PRAGATI is the Prime Minister's review of projects and grievances.

34.  

The IPBES assessment on invasive alien species (2023) found that invasive species played a major part in about what share of recorded global extinctions?

Correct Answer: D [60 per cent]

Explanation:

about 60 per cent; the same report counted more than 37,000 established alien species.

35.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Exactly five Indian States border Nepal.

II. Nepal's map of 2020 shows Kalapani, Lipulekh and Limpiyadhura as Nepali territory.

III. The 2007 revision of the India–Bhutan Treaty removed the clause on Bhutan being guided by India in external affairs.

IV. Bhutan became a constitutional monarchy in 2008.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct; the States are Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim.

36.  

The PM Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana, launched in August 2025 with an outlay of ₹99,446 crore, aims to support the creation of about:

Correct Answer: A [3.5 crore jobs]

Explanation:

the scheme targets about 3.5 crore jobs created between 1 August 2025 and 31 July 2027, with incentives paid through EPFO.

37.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The BBNJ Agreement entered into force on 17 January 2026.
2. The United States is a Party to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
3. The Cali Fund concerns benefits from digital sequence information.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the United States is not a Party to the CBD, which has 196 Parties.

38.  

Consider the following pairs of border-guarding forces and borders:

I. BSF – Pakistan and Bangladesh

II. ITBP – China

III. SSB – Nepal and Bhutan

IV. Assam Rifles – Myanmar

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct; the Army holds the Line of Control.

39.  

Consider the following pairs of classical languages and the year they were declared:

I. Tamil – 2004

II. Sanskrit – 2005

III. Malayalam – 2013

IV. Odia – 2008

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Odia was declared a classical language in 2014; Telugu and Kannada were declared in 2008.

40.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Central Government can deprive a citizen by birth of Indian citizenship.

Statement-II: Deprivation does not apply to a citizen by birth; it applies to citizens by naturalisation or registration (and to those who are citizens only under Article 5(c)).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

Statement-I is wrong because deprivation is limited to citizens by registration or naturalisation, as Statement-II says.

41.  

Consider the following statements about Census 2011:

I. Bihar had the highest population density among the States in 2011.

II. Kerala had the highest sex ratio in 2011.

III. Haryana had the lowest child sex ratio in 2011.

IV. The child sex ratio in 2011 was lower than the overall sex ratio.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct: Bihar 1,106 per sq km, Kerala 1,084, Haryana 834 (child sex ratio), and a child sex ratio of 918 against an overall 943.

42.  

Consider the following pairs of hydropower projects in Bhutan and their capacity:

I. Chukha – 336 MW

II. Tala – 720 MW

III. Mangdechhu – 1,020 MW

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

the figures for Tala and Mangdechhu are swapped: Tala is 1,020 MW and Mangdechhu 720 MW.

43.  

Consider the following pairs of Articles and subjects:

I. Article 268 – stamp duties collected by the States

II. Article 269A – IGST

III. Article 271 – surcharges for the Union only

IV. Article 275 – statutory grants on Finance Commission principles

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct; discretionary grants, by contrast, are under Article 282.

44.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The "evil quartet" includes co-extinction.

II. The last mass extinction was about 66 million years ago.

III. The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau was set up in 2007.

IV. IPBES (2019) estimated about one million species to be threatened.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

45.  

Consider the following statements about the joint sitting of Parliament:

I. A joint sitting cannot be held on a Money Bill.

II. The Speaker presides over a joint sitting.

III. A Bill at a joint sitting needs a majority of the total membership of both Houses.

IV. There have been three joint sittings so far.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

a joint sitting decides by a simple majority of members present and voting; the three sittings were in 1961, 1978 and 2002.

46.  

Consider the following pairs of authors and works:

I. Bharavi – Kiratarjuniya

II. Magha – Shishupalavadha

III. Dandin – Kavyadarsha

IV. Vishakhadatta – Mudrarakshasa

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

47.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The 2022 amendment reduced the Schedules of the Wildlife (Protection) Act to four.
2. Articles 48A and 51A(g) were added by the 42nd Amendment.
3. The National Biodiversity Authority is headquartered in New Delhi.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the National Biodiversity Authority is at Chennai.

48.  

Consider the following statements about the post-Mauryan period:

1. Menander ruled from Sakala.
2. The Milindapanho is a dialogue between Menander and Nagasena.
3. The Saka era began in 57 BCE.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Saka era began in 78 CE; 57 BCE is the start of the Vikrama era.

49.  

Consider the following pairs of food policy measures and years:

I. TPDS – 1997

II. Antyodaya Anna Yojana – 1965

III. Food Corporation of India – 2000

IV. National Food Security Mission – 1954

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only TPDS is correct: the AAY began in 2000, the FCI in 1965 and the NFSM in 2007-08; 1954 is the year of PL-480.

50.  

Consider the following pairs of India–Nepal agreements and years:

I. Kosi agreement – 1954

II. Gandak agreement – 1959

III. Mahakali Treaty – 1996

IV. India–Nepal Treaty of Peace and Friendship – 1949

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the India–Nepal Treaty was signed on 31 July 1950; 1949 is the year of the India–Bhutan Treaty.

51.  

Consider the following pairs of Articles and budget subjects:

I. Article 114 – Appropriation Bill

II. Article 115 – supplementary grants

III. Article 116 – vote on account

IV. Article 265 – Annual Financial Statement

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Annual Financial Statement is under Article 112; Article 265 says no tax shall be levied except by authority of law.

52.  

Consider the following pairs of laws and years:

I. Water Act – 1974

II. Air Act – 1981

III. Environment (Protection) Act – 1986

IV. Biological Diversity Act – 2010

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Biological Diversity Act is of 2002; 2010 is the year of the NGT Act.

53.  

Consider the following statements:

1. India's decadal growth rate peaked in 1961–71.
2. 1921 is called the year of the great divide.
3. The National Population Policy, 2000 aims at a stable population by 2030.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the long-term aim of the NPP 2000 is a stable population by 2045.

54.  

Consider the following pairs of names of tropical cyclones and regions:

I. Hurricanes – Atlantic and eastern Pacific

II. Typhoons – western Pacific

III. Willy-willies – north-west Australia

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three pairs are correct.

55.  

For 2026–31, the inflation target under the RBI's monetary policy framework is:

Correct Answer: B [4 per cent CPI inflation, with a band of ±2 per cent]

Explanation:

the target of 4 per cent CPI inflation, ±2 per cent, was retained for 2026–31.

56.  

Consider the following pairs of committees or programmes and their focus:

I. Surinder Nath Committee – training

II. Yugandhar Committee – training

III. Hota Committee – mid-career training

IV. Mission Karmayogi – recruitment

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the Yugandhar pair is correct: the Surinder Nath Committee (2003) dealt with performance appraisal, mid-career training was the Yugandhar Committee's subject (the Hota Committee covered domain assignment and ethics), and Mission Karmayogi deals with capacity building, not recruitment.

57.  

A Proclamation of President's Rule under Article 356 must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within:

Correct Answer: B [two months]

Explanation:

under Article 356(3) a Proclamation of President's Rule ceases to operate after two months unless both Houses approve it.

58.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: None of the 20 Aichi Biodiversity Targets was fully met at the global level.

Statement-II: The Kunming–Montreal Framework has 23 targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but the number of KMGBF targets does not explain the failure of the Aichi targets.

59.  

Consider the following pairs of agencies and hazards:

I. INCOIS – tsunami warnings

II. National Centre for Seismology – earthquakes

III. DGRE – cyclone warnings

IV. Forest Survey of India – lightning

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

cyclone warnings are issued by the IMD (the DGRE of DRDO deals with avalanches and landslides in the Himalaya), and lightning nowcasts are issued by the IMD, with the IITM's Damini app; the Forest Survey of India deals with forest-fire alerts.

60.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. ARPANET – 1969

II. World Wide Web proposed – 1989

III. Public internet in India – 1995

IV. National Supercomputing Mission – 2015

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct.

61.  

If the labour force participation rate is 60 per cent and the unemployment rate is 5 per cent, the worker population ratio is:

Correct Answer: D [57 per cent]

Explanation:

WPR = LFPR × (1 − UR) = 60 × 0.95 = 57 per cent.

62.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: "Relief of the disabled and unemployable" is a subject in the Union List.

Statement-II: Article 41 directs the State to provide public assistance in cases of disablement.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

the subject is Entry 9 of the State List; Statement-II is correct.

63.  

Consider the following statements about Centre–State relations:

I. The residuary power of legislation rests with Parliament.

II. The 42nd Amendment moved education and forests to the Concurrent List.

III. A law made under Article 249 continues in force permanently.

IV. A resolution under Article 249 needs the support of two-thirds of the total membership of the Rajya Sabha.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

a law under Article 249 lapses six months after the resolution ends, and the resolution needs two-thirds of the members present and voting.

64.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Lokpal can have up to eight members besides the Chairperson.
2. A Lokpal member must be at least 45 years old.
3. The Prime Minister lies wholly outside the jurisdiction of the Lokpal.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Prime Minister is covered by the Lokpal, with safeguards; the statement is too absolute.

65.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: O negative blood is the universal donor for red cells.

Statement-II: O negative red cells carry neither the A nor the B antigen.

Statement-III: O negative red cells carry no Rh (D) antigen.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

with no A, B or Rh (D) antigen, the cells are not attacked by a recipient's anti-A, anti-B or anti-D antibodies; both statements explain Statement-I.

66.  

Consider the following forest types and the annual rainfall they need:

I. Tropical wet evergreen – over 200 cm

II. Tropical moist deciduous – 100 to 200 cm

III. Tropical dry deciduous – 70 to 100 cm

IV. Tropical thorn – under 50 cm

How many of the above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four rainfall bands are correct.

67.  

The reference date of the next Census, for most of India, is:

Correct Answer: D [1 March 2027]

Explanation:

1 March 2027 is the reference date.

68.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. CBI – Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946

II. CVC – statutory status in 1964

III. NITI Aayog – 1 January 2014

IV. Lokpal Act – in force from 16 January 2013

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the CBI pair is correct: the CVC was set up in 1964 but became statutory in 2003, NITI Aayog came on 1 January 2015, and the Lokpal Act came into force on 16 January 2014.

69.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The western coastal plain is an example of a submerged coast.

II. The eastern coastal plain is broader than the western coastal plain.

III. The Lakshadweep islands are entirely of volcanic origin.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Lakshadweep islands are coral islands; the Andaman and Nicobar group are the summits of submarine mountains.

70.  

Arrange the following events of Akbar's reign in chronological order:

1. Conquest of Gujarat
2. Battle of Haldighati
3. Alliance with Amber
4. Fall of Asirgarh
5. Siege of Chittor

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [3-5-1-2-4]

Explanation:

Amber (1562), Chittor (1568), Gujarat (1572–73), Haldighati (1576), Asirgarh (1601).

71.  

Consider the following pairs of India–US exercises and services:

I. Yudh Abhyas – army

II. Vajra Prahar – special forces

III. Cope India – air force

IV. Tiger Triumph – navy only

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Tiger Triumph is a tri-service exercise (from 2019); Malabar is the naval exercise.

72.  

Which country adopted the euro in 2026?

Correct Answer: A [Bulgaria]

Explanation:

Bulgaria adopted the euro in 2026.

73.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The World Health Assembly adopted the WHO Pandemic Agreement in May 2025.

Statement-II: The WHO Pandemic Agreement deals only with vaccine patents.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

the Agreement, adopted in May 2025, covers pandemic prevention, preparedness and response as a whole; "only vaccine patents" is wrong.

74.  

According to NFHS-5 (2019–21), the share of children under five years who are underweight is about:

Correct Answer: B [32.1 per cent]

Explanation:

NFHS-5 found 32.1 per cent of children under five underweight.

75.  

Consider the following statements about citizenship:

I. Article 11 empowers Parliament to regulate citizenship by law.

II. For a person born abroad before 10 December 1992, citizenship by descent came only through the father.

III. An OCI cardholder can vote in Lok Sabha elections.

IV. Deprivation can be ordered against any citizen, including a citizen by birth.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

OCI cardholders have no right to vote, and deprivation applies only to citizens by naturalisation, registration or Article 5(c), never to a citizen by birth.

76.  

Consider the following pairs of lakes and features:

I. Chilika – the largest salt-water lake

II. Kolleru – a freshwater lake between the Godavari and Krishna deltas

III. Pulicat – on the Andhra Pradesh–Tamil Nadu border

IV. Vembanad – Karnataka

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Vembanad is a kayal of the Malabar coast in Keralam.

77.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The UN's Early Warnings for All initiative aims to cover everyone by 2027.
2. SACHET is NDMA's alert platform based on the Common Alerting Protocol.
3. The GEMINI device for fishermen was developed by IMD.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

GEMINI (2019) is an INCOIS device that uses GAGAN satellite signals.

78.  

Arrange the following steps in India–US relations in chronological order:

1. Hyde Act
2. Major Defence Partner status for India
3. Next Steps in Strategic Partnership
4. Comprehensive Global Strategic Partnership
5. STA-1 status for India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [3-1-2-5-4]

Explanation:

NSSP (2004), Hyde Act (2006), Major Defence Partner (2016), STA-1 (2018), CGSP (2020).

79.  

The correct order of seed classes in seed multiplication is:

Correct Answer: A [nucleus – breeder – foundation – certified]

Explanation:

nucleus seed is kept by the breeder, multiplied as breeder seed, then foundation seed, and sold to farmers as certified seed.

80.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Model Flood Plain Zoning Bill was circulated to the States in 1975.

Statement-II: Most States have enacted flood-plain zoning laws on that model.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

the model Bill was circulated in 1975, but only a few States have enacted it.

81.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The National Supercomputing Mission is run by MeitY and DST.

II. PARAM supercomputers are built through C-DAC.

III. India taxes income from virtual digital assets.

IV. An NFT is a token that can be exchanged one-for-one with any other NFT.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

an NFT is non-fungible – each token is unique and cannot be swapped one-for-one.

82.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The rules under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 were notified on 11 March 2024.
2. The Supreme Court upheld Section 6A of the Citizenship Act by 4:1 in October 2024.
3. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 covers six communities from four countries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the CAA covers six communities from three countries – Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan.

83.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The partition of Bengal came into effect on 16 October 1905.

Statement-II: The boycott resolution was passed at the Calcutta Town Hall on 7 August 1905.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both dates are correct, but the boycott resolution was a response to the partition, not the reason the partition took effect.

84.  

Consider the following pairs of skill institutions and years:

I. NSDC – 2008

II. NSQF – 2013

III. NCVET – 2018

IV. MSDE – 2019

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship was created in 2014.

85.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The National Programme for Organic Production is run by the Commerce Ministry, with APEDA as secretariat.
2. PGS-India is run by the Agriculture Ministry.
3. The National Mission on Natural Farming was launched in 2015.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the National Mission on Natural Farming dates from 2024; 2015 is the year of the PKVY.

86.  

Consider the following statements about social legislation and reports:

I. The Special Marriage Act was passed in 1954.

II. The Hindu Marriage Act was passed in 1955.

III. The Dowry Prohibition Act was passed in 1961.

IV. The report "Towards Equality" appeared in 1974.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four dates are correct.

87.  

Consider the following statements about the early Mughals and the Surs:

I. Babur wrote the Baburnama in Persian.

II. Sher Shah died during the siege of Kalinjar.

III. The Humayun-nama was written by Gulbadan Begum.

IV. Humayun never regained Delhi after his defeat at Kanauj.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Babur wrote in Turki, and Humayun did return to power in 1555, a year before his death.

88.  

Which one of the following is NOT one of the three countries of the "Lithium Triangle"?

Correct Answer: A [Peru]

Explanation:

the Lithium Triangle is Argentina, Bolivia and Chile; Peru is not part of it.

89.  

Consider the following pairs of judgments and years:

I. M.C. Mehta (oleum gas, absolute liability) – 1986

II. Vellore Citizens' Welfare Forum (precaution and polluter pays) – 1996

III. M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath (public trust) – 1996

IV. Ranjitsinh (right against adverse effects of climate change) – 2024

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs are correct (years of judgment: oleum gas, December 1986; Kamal Nath, December 1996).

90.  

Consider the following statements about the Company's constitutional history:

I. The Regulating Act, 1773 made the Governors of Bombay and Madras subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal.

II. Pitt's India Act, 1784 abolished the Court of Directors.

III. The Charter Act, 1853 first opened Indian trade to all British merchants.

IV. The Act of 1858 gave the Secretary of State a Council of India of fifteen members.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Pitt's India Act set up the Board of Control beside the Court of Directors (dual control), and both were abolished only in 1858; Indian trade was opened to British merchants by the Charter Act of 1813, not 1853.

91.  

Consider the following pairs of glands and hormones:

I. Pineal – melatonin

II. Thyroid – thyroxine

III. Pancreas – insulin

IV. Adrenal – glucagon

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

glucagon comes from the pancreas, with insulin; the adrenal gland makes adrenaline.

92.  

Which one of the following is capital expenditure of the Union Government?

Correct Answer: A [Loans given to State Governments]

Explanation:

Loans and advances to States create financial assets, so they are capital expenditure.

93.  

Consider the following pairs of monuments and places:

I. Atala Masjid – Mandu

II. Adina Masjid – Pandua

III. Sidi Saiyyed mosque – Bijapur

IV. Gol Gumbaz – Golconda

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [Only one]

Explanation:

only the Adina pair is correct: the Atala Masjid is at Jaunpur, the Sidi Saiyyed mosque at Ahmedabad, and the Gol Gumbaz at Bijapur; Mandu has the Jahaz Mahal.

94.  

Arrange the following floods in chronological order:

1. Srinagar
2. Kedarnath
3. Chennai
4. Mumbai

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [4-2-1-3]

Explanation:

Mumbai (July 2005), Kedarnath (2013), Srinagar (September 2014), Chennai (December 2015).

95.  

Consider the following statements about 1940:

1. The August Offer of 1940 promised dominion status as the objective.
2. Vinoba Bhave was the first individual satyagrahi in October 1940.
3. The Lahore resolution of 1940 was moved by Jinnah.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Lahore resolution was moved by A.K. Fazlul Huq, with Jinnah presiding.

96.  

Consider the following pairs of historians and their views on early medieval India:

I. R. S. Sharma – the case for Indian feudalism

II. Harbans Mukhia – Indian peasants were serfs

III. B. D. Chattopadhyaya – state formation, not fragmentation

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Harbans Mukhia criticised the feudal model: he held that Indian peasants were not serfs and that trade and towns did not collapse.

97.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Domain Name System turns names into IP addresses.
2. BharatNet began in 2011 as the National Optical Fibre Network.
3. All international internet traffic is carried by satellites.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

most international traffic travels through undersea optical-fibre cables; "all" by satellite is wrong.

98.  

Under the Viability Gap Funding scheme, for a PPP project in economic infrastructure the Centre can give up to:

Correct Answer: C [20 per cent of project cost, with up to 20 per cent more from the sponsoring authority]

Explanation:

VGF (2006): up to 20 per cent from the Centre and up to 20 per cent from the sponsoring authority.

99.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Littoral and swamp forests include the mangroves of the deltas of the Ganga, the Mahanadi, the Godavari and the Krishna.
2. Rhododendrons are found in the higher, sub-alpine and alpine zones of the Himalaya.
3. Among the States, Gujarat has the largest mangrove cover.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Deltaic mangroves and Himalayan rhododendrons are correct; West Bengal, not Gujarat, leads in mangroves.

100.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Aspirational Districts Programme began in 2018.

II. The Aspirational Blocks Programme covers 500 blocks.

III. The Pre-Legislative Consultation Policy dates from 2014.

IV. Results-Framework Documents were introduced in 2009.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four statements are correct.

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