UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 4: Mock Test 3 – Standard Level (100 MCQs)

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UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 4: Mock Test 3 – Standard Level (100 MCQs) – 100 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

The nodal agency for nuclear and radiological emergencies in India is:

Correct Answer: A [the Department of Atomic Energy]

Explanation:

the Department of Atomic Energy is the nodal agency.

2.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. SAARC Charter – Dhaka

II. SAARC Secretariat – Kathmandu

III. SAARC Development Fund – Thimphu

IV. South Asian University – Colombo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the South Asian University is in New Delhi.

3.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India joined the ITER fusion project in 2005.

Statement-II: ITER is being built in France.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are true; the location of ITER does not explain why India joined.

4.  

Consider the following statements about the heat budget of the Earth, taking incoming solar radiation as 100 units:

I. About 35 units of incoming solar radiation are reflected back to space (albedo).

II. About 14 units are absorbed by the atmosphere.

III. About 51 units are absorbed by the Earth's surface.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

the heat budget divides 100 units as 35 albedo, 14 atmosphere and 51 surface.

5.  

Consider the following pairs relating to the Mauryas:

1. Samaharta – collection of revenue
2. Sannidhata – treasury
3. Amitraghata – title of Ashoka

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Amitraghata was the title of Bindusara.

6.  

Consider the following pairs of platforms and launch years:

1. MyGov – 2014
2. DigiLocker – 2015
3. GeM – 2016
4. UMANG – 2019

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [1, 2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

UMANG was launched in 2017.

7.  

Consider the following pairs of cost concepts and their meanings:

1. A2 – actual paid-out costs
2. A2 + FL – paid-out costs plus the imputed value of family labour
3. C2 – A2 + FL plus rent and interest on owned land and capital

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

these are the three cost concepts used by the CACP; MSP is fixed at 1.5 times A2 + FL since 2018-19.

8.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. First Administrative Reforms Commission – 1966

II. Second ARC – M. Veerappa Moily

III. Santhanam Committee – CVC

IV. Gorwala Report – 1951

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four are correct; the Santhanam Committee (1962–64) led to the CVC in 1964.

9.  

Consider the following pairs:

1. Atal Innovation Mission – NITI Aayog
2. NIDHI – Department of Science and Technology
3. Defence Industrial Corridors – Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

AIM (2016) is under NITI Aayog, NIDHI (2016) under DST, and the two corridors (2018) are in Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.

10.  

Consider the following pairs relating to the Disaster Management Act, 2005:

1. National Institute of Disaster Management – Section 42
2. National Disaster Response Force – Section 44
3. Overriding effect of the Act – Section 72

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

NIDM is under Section 42, NDRF under Section 44, and Section 72 gives the Act overriding effect.

11.  

Consider the following pairs of theorists and ideas of industrial location:

I. Weber – least-cost location

II. Lösch – hexagonal market areas

III. Hotelling – clustering of competitors

IV. Hoover – break-of-bulk points

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four pairs of theorists and ideas are correct.

12.  

The target for receipts from disinvestment and asset monetisation in 2026-27 is:

Correct Answer: B [₹80,000 crore]

Explanation:

the 2026-27 target is ₹80,000 crore.

13.  

The Simon Commission was appointed in November 1927 by the British government headed by Prime Minister:

Correct Answer: B [Stanley Baldwin]

Explanation:

Stanley Baldwin's Conservative government appointed the Simon Commission in November 1927.

14.  

The first report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission dealt with:

Correct Answer: A [the Right to Information]

Explanation:

its first report was on the Right to Information, the "master key" to good governance.

15.  

Which of the following are members of the Gulf Cooperation Council?

1. Oman
2. Qatar
3. Iran
4. Bahrain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1, 2 and 4 only]

Explanation:

the GCC (1981) has six members – Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Bahrain and Oman; Iran is not a member.

16.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The National Green Hydrogen Mission aims at 5 MMT of green hydrogen.
2. The Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor is at Kalpakkam.
3. The last stage of India's three-stage nuclear programme uses thorium.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three are correct.

17.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. C-DOT – 1984

II. C-DAC – 1988

III. PARAM 8000 – 1991

IV. Smart India Hackathon – 2017

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four are correct.

18.  

Consider the following pairs of West Asian developments and years:

I. India–Middle East–Europe Economic Corridor announced – 2023

II. Abraham Accords – 2020

III. Arab Peace Initiative – 2012

IV. India recognises the State of Palestine – 1992

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

IMEC was announced in 2023 and the Abraham Accords came in 2020; the Arab Peace Initiative dates from 2002, and India recognised Palestine in 1988 (1992 is the year of full ties with Israel).

19.  

The Doha Amendment (2012) to the Kyoto Protocol set a second commitment period covering:

Correct Answer: A [2013–2020]

Explanation:

the Doha Amendment covered 2013–2020 and entered into force on 31 December 2020.

20.  

The 2025 estimation of Asiatic lions in Gujarat covered an area of about 35,000 sq km spread over how many districts?

Correct Answer: B [11]

Explanation:

The 2025 estimation covered about 35,000 sq km in 58 talukas of 11 districts.

21.  

Consider the following pairs of missions and locations or targets:

1. Aditya-L1 – Lagrange point L1
2. James Webb Space Telescope – Lagrange point L2
3. Cassini – Mercury

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Cassini studied Saturn; MESSENGER studied Mercury.

22.  

The Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme of the Ministry of Defence, which funds industry, especially MSMEs and start-ups, to develop defence technologies, is executed by:

Correct Answer: A [DRDO]

Explanation:

The Technology Development Fund is executed by DRDO under the Make in India initiative.

23.  

Consider the following pairs of Deccan sultanates and dynasties:

1. Bijapur – Adil Shahi
2. Golconda – Qutb Shahi
3. Ahmadnagar – Imad Shahi

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Ahmadnagar was ruled by the Nizam Shahis; the Imad Shahis ruled Berar.

24.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The rule of absolute liability admits no exceptions.

Statement-II: The rule of strict liability comes from the English case of Rylands v. Fletcher.

Statement-III: In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (1986), the Supreme Court held that an enterprise carrying on a hazardous activity owes an absolute and non-delegable duty to the community.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but only Statement-III explains Statement-I: the absolute, non-delegable duty laid down in M.C. Mehta (1986) leaves no exceptions, unlike the strict liability of Rylands v. Fletcher.

25.  

Consider the following pairs of dynasties and centres:

I. Chahamanas – Ajmer

II. Gahadavalas – Kanauj

III. Chandelas – Gujarat

IV. Chaulukyas – Malwa

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Chandelas are linked with Khajuraho and the Chaulukyas with Gujarat; Malwa was ruled by the Paramaras.

26.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Bhopal gas tragedy – methyl isocyanate

II. Mayapuri incident – cobalt-60

III. Oleum gas leak case – absolute liability

IV. Chernobyl – level 7 on the INES

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four are correct; Fukushima was also rated level 7.

27.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is used as an assay of organic pollution in water.

Statement-II: BOD is measured over five days at 20 °C.

Statement-III: BOD is the amount of oxygen that micro-organisms need to break down the organic matter in water.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but only Statement-III explains Statement-I: the more organic matter there is, the more oxygen microbes need; five days at 20 °C is only the test condition.

28.  

Consider the following pairs of diseases and pollutants:

I. Itai-itai disease – cadmium

II. Minamata disease – mercury

III. Blue baby syndrome – nitrate

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three pairs are correct.

29.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Bhadla – solar power

II. Muppandal – wind power

III. Puga – geothermal energy

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

Bhadla is a solar park, Muppandal a wind farm in Tamil Nadu, and Puga a geothermal site in Ladakh.

30.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. COP16, Cancún – Green Climate Fund

II. COP27, Sharm el-Sheikh – loss and damage fund

III. COP29, Baku – New Collective Quantified Goal on finance

IV. COP26, Glasgow – first global stocktake

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the first global stocktake was concluded at COP28, Dubai; Glasgow is known for the coal phase-down.

31.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Shahid Beheshti terminal, developed with Indian participation, is at Chabahar in Iran.

Statement-II: The Strait of Hormuz links the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are true, but the Strait of Hormuz has nothing to do with where the terminal is.

32.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Teak is a tree of tropical moist deciduous forests.
2. Jackfruit is an evergreen tree.
3. Sandalwood is a typical tree of Himalayan forests.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Himalayan forests have oak, rhododendron and deodar, not sandalwood.

33.  

Consider the following pairs of Schedules and the Amendments that added them:

1. Ninth Schedule – First Amendment
2. Tenth Schedule – 52nd Amendment
3. Twelfth Schedule – 73rd Amendment

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Twelfth Schedule came with the 74th Amendment; the 73rd added the Eleventh.

34.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Fair and Remunerative Price of sugarcane is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.

Statement-II: The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices is a statutory body.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

the CACP is an attached office, not a statutory body; the CCEA approves the FRP.

35.  

Consider the following pairs of biomes and features:

I. Savanna – fire and grazing

II. Tundra – permafrost

III. Taiga – coniferous trees

IV. Steppe – scanty rain and nomadic herders

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four biomes are matched with their features; epiphytes, by contrast, mark the equatorial rainforest.

36.  

Consider the following pairs of global AI summits and years:

I. Bletchley Park – 2023

II. Seoul – 2024

III. Paris – 2025

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

the AI summits were held at Bletchley (2023), Seoul (2024) and Paris (2025, co-chaired by India).

37.  

The Duns, such as Dehra Dun, lie between:

Correct Answer: A [the Lesser Himalaya and the Shiwaliks]

Explanation:

the Duns are longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalaya and the Shiwaliks.

38.  

ITER and India's Aditya and SST-1 machines are all of which type of fusion device?

Correct Answer: A [Tokamak]

Explanation:

these are tokamaks, which hold hot plasma in a magnetic field.

39.  

Consider the following pairs of festivals and people or States:

I. Hornbill festival – Nagaland

II. Sangai festival – Manipur

III. Nuakhai – Odisha

IV. Wangala – Garo

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four festivals are correctly matched.

40.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Satyashodhak Samaj – Jyotiba Phule

II. Vital-Vidhwansak – Gopal Baba Walangkar

III. SNDP – Narayana Guru

IV. Self-Respect Movement – B.R. Ambedkar

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Self-Respect Movement (1925) was founded by Periyar.

41.  

The cosmic microwave background, the afterglow of the Big Bang, was discovered in:

Correct Answer: A [1965]

Explanation:

the cosmic microwave background was discovered in 1965.

42.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The HDI has been published by the UNDP since 1990.
2. Since 2010 the HDI uses the geometric mean of its dimension indices.
3. India was ranked 130 out of 193 in the HDR 2025.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the HDI began in 1990 (Mahbub ul Haq); the geometric mean replaced the arithmetic mean in 2010; India's HDI was 0.685, rank 130/193.

43.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Permanent Settlement – Cornwallis

II. Ryotwari – Thomas Munro

III. Mahalwari – Holt Mackenzie

IV. Operation Barga – Kerala

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Operation Barga (1978) was in West Bengal.

44.  

Consider the following pairs relating to the WTO:

I. Peace clause – Bali, 2013

II. Trade Facilitation Agreement – in force February 2017

III. MC14 – Yaoundé, 2026

IV. TRIMS – trade in services

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

TRIMS applies to trade in goods only.

45.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Cepheids – pulsating stars

II. Pulsars – spinning neutron stars

III. Nebulae – clouds of gas and dust

IV. Higgs boson – detection of neutrinos

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Higgs boson explains why particles have mass; neutrinos are detected by IceCube.

46.  

Consider the following pairs of African rivers and features:

1. Congo – crosses the equator twice
2. Niger – inland delta in Mali
3. Zambezi – Victoria Falls
4. Nile – Okavango inland delta

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1, 2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the Okavango inland delta is in Botswana and is not part of the Nile.

47.  

Consider the following pairs of schools of sculpture and materials:

I. Gandhara school – schist and stucco

II. Mathura school – spotted red sandstone

III. Amaravati school – white limestone

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

each school is matched with its usual material.

48.  

Who among the following take part in the election of the President?

1. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry
2. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
3. Elected members of State Legislative Councils

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

Delhi and Puducherry MLAs vote since the 70th Amendment (1992); nominated members and MLCs do not vote.

49.  

Consider the following statements:

1. A rise in the number of rupees per US dollar means the rupee has weakened.
2. A rise in the NEER index means the rupee has strengthened.
3. Current account convertibility of the rupee came in August 1994.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

more rupees per dollar is a weaker rupee; a higher NEER index is a stronger rupee; current account convertibility came in August 1994.

50.  

Consider the following statements about the National Food Security Act, 2013:

1. It covers up to 75 per cent of the rural and 50 per cent of the urban population.
2. Priority households get 5 kg of grain per person a month.
3. Antyodaya households get 35 kg a month.
4. The eldest man of the household is the head for the ration card.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: B [1, 2 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the eldest woman of the household, aged 18 or above, is the head for the ration card.

51.  

By the rule of 70, an economy growing at 7 per cent a year doubles its size in about:

Correct Answer: B [10 years]

Explanation:

doubling time ≈ 70 ÷ growth rate = 70 ÷ 7 = 10 years.

52.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution prescribes no minimum age for a Supreme Court judge.
2. A Supreme Court judge retires at 65.
3. A removal motion needs the signatures of 100 Lok Sabha or 50 Rajya Sabha members.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three are correct; no judge has ever been removed.

53.  

Consider the following pairs of Koeppen's climate types and regions of India:

1. Amw – west coast south of Goa
2. As – Coromandel coast
3. Dfc – western Rajasthan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Dfc is found in Arunachal Pradesh; extreme western Rajasthan is BWhw.

54.  

Consider the following pairs of sites and their features:

I. Dholavira – reservoirs and dams

II. Lothal – dockyard

III. Kalibangan – ploughed field

IV. Sohgaura – Harappan granary

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Sohgaura is not a Harappan site; it is known for a copper-plate inscription.

55.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The United States' withdrawal from the Paris Agreement took effect on 27 January 2026.

Statement-II: COP31 (November 2026) is hosted at Antalya, Türkiye.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are true but unrelated.

56.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Stunting – low height for age

II. Wasting – low weight for height

III. Underweight – low weight for age

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three measures are correctly matched.

57.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Lithium-ion battery – graphite anode

II. Radioisotope thermoelectric generator – decay of plutonium-238

III. Fuel-cell electric vehicle – exhaust of water vapour

IV. Solar photovoltaic cell – direct current output

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four are correct; a fuel cell also gives direct current.

58.  

Consider the following pairs of commodity boards and headquarters:

I. Coffee Board – Bengaluru

II. Rubber Board – Kochi

III. Spices Board – Kochi

IV. Turmeric Board – Guntur

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Rubber Board is at Kottayam and the Turmeric Board (2023) at Nizamabad; Guntur has the Tobacco Board.

59.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Mandal Commission submitted its report in 1980.

II. The income ceiling for the OBC creamy layer has been ₹8 lakh a year since 2017.

III. The Rohini Commission was set up in 2017 to examine sub-categorisation of OBCs.

IV. The National Commission for Backward Classes was given constitutional status by the 102nd Amendment (2018).

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

the Mandal report came in 1980, the ₹8 lakh ceiling dates from 2017, the Rohini Commission was set up in 2017, and the 102nd Amendment (2018) made the NCBC a constitutional body under Article 338B.

60.  

Arrange the following events in the history of the Deccan in chronological order:

1. Battle of Talikota
2. Annexation of Golconda by Aurangzeb
3. Foundation of the Bahmani kingdom
4. Mahmud Gawan's madrasa at Bidar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [3-4-1-2]

Explanation:

Bahmani kingdom 1347, Bidar madrasa 1472, Talikota 1565, Golconda annexed 1687.

61.  

Consider the following pairs of local weather and regions:

I. Mango showers – Keralam and Karnataka

II. Kalbaisakhi – Karnataka

III. Bardoli Chheerha – Assam

IV. Loo – Tamil Nadu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Kalbaisakhi is the local name of the nor'westers of Bengal and Assam, not of Karnataka; the loo is the hot, dry wind of north India.

62.  

In the Union Budget 2026-27, the Centre's capital expenditure is placed at about:

Correct Answer: A [₹12.22 lakh crore]

Explanation:

capital expenditure is ₹12.22 lakh crore.

63.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Punjab Himalaya – between the Indus and the Satluj

II. Kumaon Himalaya – between the Satluj and the Kali

III. Nepal Himalaya – between the Kali and the Teesta

IV. Assam Himalaya – between the Teesta and the Dihang

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

these are the four river-bounded divisions of the Himalaya.

64.  

The James Webb Space Telescope, which observes mainly in the infrared, was launched in:

Correct Answer: A [December 2021]

Explanation:

the JWST was launched in December 2021.

65.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Oath of the President – before the Chief Justice of India

II. Resignation of the President – addressed to the Vice-President

III. Oath of the Vice-President – before the President

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three pairs are correct.

66.  

Consider the following statements about the criteria for bathing water in India:

1. Dissolved oxygen should be 5 mg/L or more.
2. BOD should be 3 mg/L or less.
3. COD is always lower than BOD.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

COD is equal to or greater than BOD, because it measures all oxidisable matter.

67.  

Arrange the following stages of India's exchange-rate system in chronological order:

1. Liberalised Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS)
2. Current account convertibility
3. Peg to a basket of currencies
4. Market-determined exchange rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [3-1-4-2]

Explanation:

basket peg 1975, LERMS 1992, market rate 1993, current account convertibility 1994.

68.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Rostow – stages of growth and take-off

II. Lewis – surplus labour

III. Kuznets – inverted-U curve of inequality

IV. Solow – big push

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Solow's model (1956) stresses technology; the big push is a different theory.

69.  

Consider the following statements:

I. India's composite score in the SDG India Index 2023-24 was 71.

II. Kerala and Uttarakhand topped that Index with 79.

III. India ranked 94 of 167 countries in the Sustainable Development Report 2026.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three are correct; Finland topped the SDR 2026.

70.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Fourteen banks were nationalised on 19 July 1969.

Statement-II: The State Bank of India was formed in 1955 from the Imperial Bank of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are true events of bank nationalisation, but the creation of SBI does not explain the 1969 nationalisation.

71.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Afghanistan became a member of SAARC in 2007.
2. China is an observer in SAARC.
3. The SAARC Charter allows bilateral issues to be discussed.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Charter excludes bilateral and contentious issues.

72.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Cantonment Boards are administered by the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Statement-II: The Twelfth Schedule lists 18 subjects for municipalities.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

Cantonment Boards work under the Ministry of Defence (Cantonments Act, 2006); the Twelfth Schedule has 18 subjects.

73.  

Consider the following pairs of discontinuities and the layers they separate:

1. Mohorovičić – between crust and mantle
2. Gutenberg – between mantle and core
3. Lehmann – between crust and upper mantle

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Lehmann discontinuity separates the outer core from the inner core.

74.  

Consider the following statements about the stores of water on the Earth (NCERT table):

I. The atmosphere holds more water than all the streams and rivers.

II. Soil moisture holds more water than the atmosphere.

III. The atmosphere holds more water than all the lakes.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Atmosphere 0.013 exceeds rivers 0.0017 million km³ and soil moisture 0.065 exceeds it; lakes, at 0.125, hold more.

75.  

Consider the following pairs of Articles and powers of the Supreme Court:

I. Article 131 – original jurisdiction

II. Article 143 – advisory jurisdiction

III. Article 137 – review of its own judgments

IV. Article 129 – power to do complete justice

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Article 129 makes the Supreme Court a court of record; complete justice is under Article 142.

76.  

Consider the following statements about the composition of the universe:

1. Dark energy forms about 68 per cent of the universe.
2. Dark matter forms about 27 per cent.
3. Ordinary matter forms about 5 per cent.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the universe is about 68 per cent dark energy, 27 per cent dark matter and 5 per cent ordinary matter.

77.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Cheras – Muziris

II. Cholas – Uraiyur

III. Pandyas – Korkai

IV. Karikala – Kallanai

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

the Chera port was Muziris, the Chola capital Uraiyur, the Pandya port Korkai, and Karikala built the Kallanai.

78.  

Which one of the following is the deepest of the lakes of the African Rift Valley?

Correct Answer: B [Tanganyika]

Explanation:

Lake Tanganyika is the deepest.

79.  

Consider the following statements about the President's ordinance-making power:

1. An ordinance can be given retrospective effect.
2. An ordinance can abridge Fundamental Rights.
3. An ordinance lapses six weeks after Parliament reassembles unless approved earlier.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

an ordinance has the same limits as a law of Parliament and cannot abridge Fundamental Rights.

80.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The 2026 amendment to the IT Rules requires synthetically generated information to be labelled.

Statement-II: The amendment gives platforms 36 hours to take down such content when flagged.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

the 2026 amendment (from 20 February 2026) set a three-hour takedown.

81.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Volcanic eruptions are a direct source of information about the interior of the Earth.

Statement-II: Lava brings up material from below the Earth's crust to the surface, where it can be examined.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

Both are correct, and the lava brought to the surface is why eruptions count as a direct source.

82.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The number of judges of the Supreme Court is fixed by Parliament by law.

Statement-II: The sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court was raised to 38 in 2026.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

Parliament has raised the strength from 8 (1950) to 34 (2019) and 38 (2026); the second statement is a use of the power, not its source.

83.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Payments banks – cannot lend

II. Small finance banks – credit to small units and small and marginal farmers

III. DICGC – deposit insurance cover raised to Rs 5 lakh in 2020

IV. NPA – interest overdue for more than 60 days

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

a loan becomes an NPA when overdue for more than 90 days.

84.  

Consider the following pairs of bodies and their chairpersons under the Disaster Management Act, 2005:

I. NDMA – Prime Minister

II. National Executive Committee – Union Home Secretary

III. SDMA – Chief Minister

IV. DDMA – Superintendent of Police

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the DDMA is chaired by the Collector, with the local-body head as co-chair.

85.  

Consider the following statements about the Paris Agreement:

1. It was adopted on 12 December 2015.
2. It entered into force on 4 November 2016.
3. Parties submit NDCs every five years.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three are features of the Paris Agreement.

86.  

Consider the following pairs of sources and features of the Constitution:

I. Ireland – Directive Principles

II. Canada – Concurrent List

III. Australia – Concurrent List

IV. Weimar Germany – Fundamental Duties

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Canada gave the strong Centre and residuary powers, while the Concurrent List came from Australia; the Fundamental Duties came from the USSR, and Weimar Germany gave the suspension of Fundamental Rights in an emergency.

87.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Battle of Plassey – 1757

II. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760

III. Battle of Buxar – 1764

IV. Treaty of Seringapatam – 1792

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

Plassey 1757, Wandiwash 1760, Buxar 1764 and Seringapatam 1792 (end of the Third Mysore War).

88.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Wards Committees – population of 3 lakh or more

II. Metropolitan area – population of 10 lakh or more

III. District Planning Committee – four-fifths elected

IV. Metropolitan Planning Committee – one-half elected

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

at least two-thirds of an MPC are elected.

89.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Disaster management is an entry in the Concurrent List.

Statement-II: The Disaster Management Act was enacted in 2005.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

disaster management is not in any of the three Lists; Parliament enacted the DM Act in 2005.

90.  

Consider the following pairs:

1. National Commission for Backward Classes – Article 338B
2. National Commission for Minorities – statutory body
3. Jains – notified as a minority in 2014

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the NCBC is constitutional (338B, 2018); the NCM is statutory (1992 Act); Jains were notified in 2014.

91.  

In the Sangam age, vadakkiruttal referred to:

Correct Answer: B [a defeated king fasting to death facing north]

Explanation:

vadakkiruttal was the practice of a defeated king fasting to death facing north.

92.  

Consider the following pairs of movements and leaders:

1. Ulgulan – Birsa Munda
2. Rampa rebellion – Alluri Sitarama Raju
3. Eka movement – Baba Ramchandra

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Eka movement (1921–22) was led by Madari Pasi; Baba Ramchandra led the Awadh Kisan Sabha.

93.  

Consider the following pairs:

1. Bombay Plan – 1944
2. People's Plan – M.N. Roy
3. Gandhian Plan – S.N. Agarwal

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the Bombay Plan (1944), M.N. Roy's People's Plan (1945) and S.N. Agarwal's Gandhian Plan (1944) are all correctly matched.

94.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Jharia – coking coal

II. Neyveli – lignite

III. Digboi – oldest refinery

IV. Kudankulam – India's first nuclear power plant

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

India's first nuclear power plant was Tarapur (1969).

95.  

Champion and Seth (1968) classified India's forests into how many type groups?

Correct Answer: B [16]

Explanation:

Champion and Seth recognised 16 type groups.

96.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. PNGRB – downstream petroleum and natural gas

II. CERC – Electricity Act, 2003

III. UDAY – turnaround of DISCOMs

IV. PM Surya Ghar – rooftop solar for one crore homes

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

all four are correctly matched.

97.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The SHANTI Act, 2025 repealed the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010.

Statement-II: The three-stage nuclear power programme was proposed by Homi J. Bhabha in 1954.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are true, but Bhabha's three-stage plan of 1954 is not the reason for the 2025 repeal.

98.  

Consider the following pairs of dances and their features:

1. Kathakali – pacha make-up
2. Kuchipudi – dancing on a brass plate
3. Manipuri – rapid chakkars

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

chakkars are typical of Kathak; Manipuri dancers do not even wear ankle bells.

99.  

Under Article 243T, the share of seats reserved for women in a municipality, including seats for SC and ST women, is:

Correct Answer: B [not less than one-third]

Explanation:

Article 243T reserves not less than one-third of the seats for women.

100.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Part IXA – Municipalities

II. Part XVIII – Emergency provisions

III. Part XX – Amendment of the Constitution

IV. Part XIV – Elections

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Part XIV deals with services; elections are in Part XV.

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