UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 2: Mock Test 1 – Standard Level (100 MCQs)

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UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 2: Mock Test 1 – Standard Level (100 MCQs) – 100 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

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1.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Junagadh inscription – Rudradaman

II. Allahabad pillar inscription – Chandragupta II

III. Hathigumpha inscription – Kharavela

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Allahabad pillar inscription records Samudragupta (composed by Harishena), not Chandragupta II.

2.  

The Department of Science and Technology of the Government of India was set up in:

Correct Answer: A [1971]

Explanation:

DST was set up in May 1971 as the nodal department for science and technology.

3.  

Organisms whose body temperature and osmotic concentration change with those of their surroundings, because they cannot maintain a constant internal environment, are called:

Correct Answer: D [conformers]

Explanation:

Conformers let their internal state follow the surroundings; NCERT says about 99 per cent of animals and nearly all plants conform.

4.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The cheetah was declared extinct in India in 1952.

II. Cheetahs brought from Namibia were released in Kuno National Park in September 2022.

III. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary received cheetahs in 2025.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

the cheetah was declared extinct in 1952, Namibian cheetahs were released in Kuno on 17 September 2022, and Gandhi Sagar received cheetahs in 2025.

5.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Brahmi was written from left to right.

II. Kharosthi was written from right to left.

III. James Prinsep deciphered the Brahmi script in 1837.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

Brahmi ran left to right, Kharosthi right to left, and Prinsep read Brahmi in 1837.

6.  

Consider the following statements about India's disaster risk profile:

I. About 59 per cent of the land is prone to earthquakes.

II. Over 40 million hectares are prone to floods.

III. About 68 per cent of the cultivable area is prone to drought.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

about 58.6 per cent of the land is prone to earthquakes, over 40 million hectares to floods and about 68 per cent of the cultivable area to drought.

7.  

Consider the following statements about the Buddhist councils:

1. The First Council at Rajagriha was held under Ajatashatru.
2. The Second Council at Vaishali was held under Ashoka.
3. The Fourth Council was held in Kashmir under Kanishka.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Rajagriha under Ajatashatru; Kashmir under Kanishka. Ashoka's council was the third, at Pataliputra.

8.  

Which of the following pairs of monuments and builders are correctly matched?

1. Humayun's Tomb – Bega Begum
2. Tomb of Itimad-ud-Daula – Nur Jahan
3. Bibi ka Maqbara – Shah Jahan

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Bibi ka Maqbara was built by Azam Shah in Aurangzeb's reign.

9.  

The Eight Degree Channel separates:

Correct Answer: A [Minicoy from the Maldives]

Explanation:

The Eight Degree Channel lies between Minicoy (India) and the Maldives.

10.  

Which of the following pairs of projects and rivers are correctly matched?

1. Tehri – Bhagirathi
2. Nagarjuna Sagar – Godavari
3. Hirakud – Mahanadi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Tehri is on the Bhagirathi and Hirakud on the Mahanadi; Nagarjuna Sagar is on the Krishna.

11.  

Consider the following pairs of painting traditions and States:

I. Phad – Rajasthan

II. Cheriyal – Telangana

III. Pithora – Odisha

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Pithora painting belongs to Gujarat.

12.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Bay of Bengal is less saline than the Arabian Sea.
2. The Baltic Sea is less saline than the Red Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

large river inflow keeps the Bay of Bengal less saline than the Arabian Sea, and the Baltic (often 10‰ or less) is far less saline than the Red Sea (about 40‰).

13.  

Consider the following statements about the criteria for horizontal devolution of the Sixteenth Finance Commission:

1. Income distance has a weight of 42.5 per cent.
2. Population has a weight of 17.5 per cent.
3. Tax effort has been retained as a criterion.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the 16th FC dropped tax effort and added contribution to GDP (10 per cent).

14.  

The 'Pashupati' seal of the Harappan civilisation was found at:

Correct Answer: D [Mohenjo-daro]

Explanation:

The Pashupati seal, showing a horned figure among animals, was found at Mohenjo-daro.

15.  

The fundamental duty to develop the scientific temper was added to the Constitution by the:

Correct Answer: A [42nd Amendment, 1976]

Explanation:

Article 51A(h) came with the 42nd Amendment in 1976.

16.  

Arrange the following in chronological order:

1. The hartal against the Rowlatt Act
2. The Champaran Satyagraha
3. The founding of Indian Opinion
4. The writing of Hind Swaraj

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [3-4-2-1]

Explanation:

1903, 1909, 1917, 1919.

17.  

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), applied from 25 May 2018, is a law of:

Correct Answer: D [the European Union]

Explanation:

the GDPR is a law of the European Union.

18.  

Consider the following pairs of hazards and agencies:

I. Naming of tropical cyclones over the north Indian Ocean – India Meteorological Department

II. Avalanche forecasting – Defence Geoinformatics Research Establishment

III. Monitoring of glacial lakes – India Meteorological Department

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

I (IMD, as RSMC New Delhi) and II are correct; III is wrong, because glacial lakes are monitored by the Central Water Commission.

19.  

In the Delhi Sultanate, the ariz-i-mamalik was in charge of:

Correct Answer: D [the army]

Explanation:

the ariz-i-mamalik headed the military department.

20.  

Under the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, a person is declared a fugitive economic offender by:

Correct Answer: A [a Special Court designated under the Prevention of Money-laundering Act]

Explanation:

Section 12 of the Act empowers the Special Court under the PMLA to make the declaration.

21.  

Under the UN Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (Palermo, 2000), an organised criminal group must consist of at least:

Correct Answer: D [three persons]

Explanation:

three or more persons; India ratified the Convention in 2011.

22.  

Consider the following statements about the Monetary Policy Committee:

1. It has six members.
2. The Governor of the RBI chairs it and has a casting vote.
3. The inflation target it works to is 4 per cent CPI inflation with a band of 2 to 6 per cent.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the MPC has six members, the Governor chairs it with a casting vote, and the target is 4 per cent with a 2–6 per cent band.

23.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The secretariat of the Indian Ocean Rim Association is in Mauritius.
2. The Indian Ocean Naval Symposium, a voluntary forum of navies, began in 2008.
3. The secretariat of the Colombo Security Conclave is in Colombo.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the IORA secretariat is in Mauritius, IONS began in 2008 and the CSC secretariat is in Colombo.

24.  

Jan Aushadhi Kendras, run under the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana, mainly sell:

Correct Answer: D [quality generic medicines at affordable prices]

Explanation:

Jan Aushadhi Kendras sell quality generic medicines at prices well below those of branded equivalents.

25.  

Which one of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bio-input?

Correct Answer: A [Azotobacter]

Explanation:

Azotobacter is a free-living nitrogen-fixing bacterium used as a biofertiliser.

26.  

Consider the following pairs of reservoirs and States:

I. Isapur – Maharashtra

II. Kangsabati – Odisha

III. Pong – Himachal Pradesh

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Isapur (on the Penganga) is in Maharashtra and Pong (on the Beas) in Himachal Pradesh; Kangsabati is in West Bengal.

27.  

Consider the following statements about Scheduled Castes:

I. The list of Scheduled Castes for a State can be changed only by Parliament by law.

II. Persons professing Sikhism were included among Scheduled Castes in 1956.

III. Persons professing Buddhism were included among Scheduled Castes in 1990.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

Article 341(2); Sikhs 1956; Buddhists 1990.

28.  

Under the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, where an establishment has more than one trade union, a union is recognised as the sole negotiating union if it has the support of at least what share of the workers on the muster roll?

Correct Answer: B [51 per cent]

Explanation:

A union backed by at least 51 per cent of workers on the muster roll becomes the sole negotiating union.

29.  

Which of the following pairs of Vedanta schools and teachers are correctly matched?

1. Vishishtadvaita – Ramanuja
2. Dvaita – Nimbarka
3. Shuddhadvaita – Vallabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Nimbarka taught Dvaitadvaita.

30.  

Arrange the following trade unions in the order in which they were founded:

1. Centre of Indian Trade Unions
2. All India Trade Union Congress
3. Indian National Trade Union Congress
4. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [2-3-4-1]

Explanation:

AITUC 1920, INTUC 1947, BMS 1955, CITU 1970.

31.  

Under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016, the governing body of the National Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority is chaired by the:

Correct Answer: C [Union Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change]

Explanation:

Section 8(4) makes the Union Environment Minister the ex officio chairperson.

32.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The demand for a Giffen good rises when its price rises.

Statement-II: For a Giffen good, the negative income effect of a price rise is larger than the substitution effect.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

a Giffen good is an inferior staple with a large share of a poor household's budget; a price rise makes the household poorer, and this income effect outweighs the substitution effect, so more is bought.

33.  

The UNDP policy paper 'Governance for Sustainable Human Development', which defined governance as the exercise of economic, political and administrative authority to manage a country's affairs, was issued in:

Correct Answer: D [1997]

Explanation:

The UNDP policy paper on governance was issued in 1997.

34.  

Malware that secretly records a user's keystrokes in order to steal passwords and other data is called a:

Correct Answer: D [keylogger]

Explanation:

A keylogger records keystrokes so that passwords and other typed data can be stolen.

35.  

Consider the following statements about the Fifth Schedule:

1. The President declares an area to be a Scheduled Area.
2. The Governor reports on the administration of Scheduled Areas to the Union Home Minister.
3. A Tribes Advisory Council may have up to 20 members.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the Governor reports to the President.

36.  

Pangong Tso, a high-altitude lake shared with Tibet, lies in which part of India?

Correct Answer: D [Ladakh]

Explanation:

Pangong Tso lies in Ladakh, with its eastern part in Tibet.

37.  

Which of the following are listed in Article 51A of the Constitution?

I. To vote in public elections

II. To develop the scientific temper

III. To pay taxes

IV. To safeguard public property

How many of the above are listed?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

scientific temper is clause (h) and safeguarding public property is clause (i) of Article 51A; voting and paying taxes are not listed.

38.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian States.
2. The Standard Meridian of India passes through five States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

eight States on the Tropic of Cancer; five on 82°30′E.

39.  

In the usual risk equation of disaster management, which one of the following reduces risk?

Correct Answer: D [Capacity]

Explanation:

Risk = Hazard × Exposure × Vulnerability ÷ Capacity, so more capacity means less risk.

40.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea, the contiguous zone extends up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.

Statement-II: Under the same Convention, the territorial sea extends up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

the territorial sea extends up to 12 nautical miles (Article 3) and the contiguous zone up to 24 nautical miles (Article 33).

41.  

Kalgoorlie in Western Australia is known mainly for the mining of:

Correct Answer: D [gold]

Explanation:

Kalgoorlie, with its Super Pit, is Australia's best-known gold-mining centre.

42.  

The Mekong River enters the sea through its delta in:

Correct Answer: A [Vietnam]

Explanation:

The Mekong forms its delta in southern Vietnam and enters the South China Sea.

43.  

Under the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023, the highest penalty for a breach can be up to:

Correct Answer: C [₹250 crore]

Explanation:

the DPDP Act, 2023 allows penalties of up to ₹250 crore per breach.

44.  

The nodal agency for landslides in India is:

Correct Answer: D [the Geological Survey of India]

Explanation:

the GSI, under the Ministry of Mines, is the nodal agency for landslides.

45.  

The seventh draft notification on the Western Ghats Eco-Sensitive Area (27 July 2026) proposes an area of about:

Correct Answer: A [56,825.7 sq km]

Explanation:

the seventh draft covers 56,825.7 sq km.

46.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Article 371A – Nagaland

II. Article 371G – Goa

III. Article 371J – Karnataka

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Article 371G concerns Mizoram; Goa is under 371I.

47.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Bt cotton is the only genetically modified crop grown commercially in India.
2. The genes in GM mustard DMH-11 were introduced to give pest resistance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

DMH-11 uses the barnase–barstar system for producing hybrids, not for pest resistance.

48.  

Consider the following statements about State Councils of Ministers:

1. The total number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, must not exceed 15 per cent of the strength of the Legislative Assembly.
2. The number of ministers, including the Chief Minister, must not be less than 12.
3. These limits were introduced by the 91st Amendment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

the 91st Amendment, 2003.

49.  

How many of the following are used as nitrogen-fixing biofertilisers?

I. Rhizobium

II. Azolla

III. Trichoderma

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Rhizobium (with legumes) and the fern Azolla (with Anabaena, in paddy) fix nitrogen; Trichoderma is a fungus used for biological control of plant disease.

50.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In the rainy season, the Tonle Sap river in Cambodia reverses its flow and the Tonle Sap lake grows much larger.

Statement-II: In the monsoon months the Mekong rises so high that its water is pushed back up the Tonle Sap river into the lake.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

the flood water of the Mekong backs up into the Tonle Sap river, which is why its flow reverses and the lake swells; Statement-II explains Statement-I.

51.  

Consider the following statements about the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023:

1. It applies to processing of digital personal data outside India if the processing is connected with offering goods or services to individuals in India.
2. It gives a Data Principal the right to nominate another person to exercise her rights in the event of death or incapacity.
3. It applies to personal data that exist only on paper and are never digitised.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Section 3(b) gives the Act reach abroad, and Section 14 gives the right to nominate.

52.  

Consider the following statements about the Charter Act of 1813:

1. It ended the East India Company's trade monopoly in India, except in tea and trade with China.
2. It set aside one lakh rupees a year for education.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

the Act ended the monopoly (except tea and the China trade) and set aside one lakh rupees a year for education.

53.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In amensalism, one species is harmed and the other is unaffected.

Statement-II: In commensalism, both the interacting species benefit.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

amensalism is (−, 0) and commensalism is (+, 0), as with an orchid growing on a mango branch; (+, +) is mutualism.

54.  

How many of the following States have tribal areas administered under the Sixth Schedule?

I. Assam

II. Manipur

III. Tripura

IV. Arunachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Sixth Schedule covers Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

55.  

How many of the following are flow variables?

I. Money supply

II. National income

III. Fiscal deficit

IV. Foreign exchange reserves

Select the correct answer:

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

national income and the fiscal deficit are measured over a period; money supply and reserves at a point of time.

56.  

Among the Khasi, the khatduh is:

Correct Answer: D [the youngest daughter]

Explanation:

the youngest daughter, who inherits the ancestral house.

57.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In tropical latitudes, the western parts of the oceans are warmer than the eastern parts.

Statement-II: In temperate latitudes, the eastern parts of the oceans are warmer than the western parts.

Statement-III: In tropical latitudes, warm currents flow along the western margins of the oceans and cold currents along the eastern margins.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but only Statement-III explains Statement-I: warm currents along the western margins (the east coasts of continents) make the western parts of tropical oceans warmer.

58.  

The term 'glocalisation' was popularised in sociology by:

Correct Answer: A [Roland Robertson]

Explanation:

Roland Robertson popularised 'glocalisation' for global products adapted to local cultures.

59.  

The permanent secretariat of BIMSTEC is located at:

Correct Answer: C [Dhaka]

Explanation:

the BIMSTEC secretariat is in Dhaka.

60.  

Consider the following pairs of leaders of the Revolt of 1857 and their areas:

I. Kunwar Singh – Bihar

II. Khan Bahadur Khan – Bareilly

III. Maulvi Ahmadullah – Kanpur

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Maulvi Ahmadullah led at Faizabad; Kanpur was led by Nana Saheb and Tantia Tope.

61.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The greater one-horned rhinoceros is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List.
2. Project Snow Leopard was launched in 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

The greater one-horned rhinoceros is Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List; Project Snow Leopard began in 2009.

62.  

Under the Unified Pension Scheme, in force from 1 April 2025, the assured pension after full service is:

Correct Answer: A [50 per cent of the average basic pay]

Explanation:

the UPS assures 50 per cent of the average basic pay of the last 12 months for 25 years of service.

63.  

The oldest of the central armed forces under the Ministry of Home Affairs is the:

Correct Answer: D [Assam Rifles]

Explanation:

raised in 1835.

64.  

In the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, 'Foreign affairs; all matters which bring the Union into relation with any foreign country' is:

Correct Answer: C [Entry 10 of the Union List]

Explanation:

Entry 10 of the Union List covers foreign affairs.

65.  

Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act, 1935:

1. It had 321 sections and 10 schedules.
2. It divided legislative powers into three lists.
3. It vested the residuary powers in the Federal Legislature.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the residuary powers were vested in the Viceroy (Governor-General), not the Federal Legislature.

66.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Indian Councils Act, 1909 gave Muslims separate electorates.

Statement-II: S. P. Sinha became the first Indian member of the Viceroy's Executive Council in 1909.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are true facts of 1909, unrelated as cause and effect.

67.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Vosges and the Black Forest are fold mountains.

Statement-II: Block mountains are formed when blocks of the crust are raised or lowered along faults.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

the Vosges and the Black Forest are block mountains (horsts) on either side of the Rhine rift valley; Statement-II correctly says how block mountains form.

68.  

India's 58th tiger reserve, notified in 2025, is:

Correct Answer: A [Madhav]

Explanation:

Madhav in Madhya Pradesh became the 58th tiger reserve in 2025.

69.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, bamboo is treated as minor forest produce.

Statement-II: The Forest Rights Act gives forest dwellers the right of ownership of minor forest produce.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are provisions of the Act; one does not explain the other.

70.  

In a welfare scheme, an exclusion error means that:

Correct Answer: D [an eligible household is left out]

Explanation:

an exclusion error leaves out an eligible household.

71.  

The Fifteenth Finance Commission was chaired by:

Correct Answer: C [N. K. Singh]

Explanation:

N. K. Singh chaired the Fifteenth Finance Commission (2021–26 award).

72.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The 2018 amendment to the Prevention of Corruption Act made bribe-giving a specific offence.

II. Section 17A requires prior approval before an inquiry into decisions taken by a public servant in official functions.

III. The Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014 is in force.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Whistle Blowers Protection Act, 2014 has not been brought into force; complaints go under the 2004 PIDPI Resolution.

73.  

Consider the following pairs of terms and the scientists linked with them:

I. Ecology – Ernst Haeckel

II. Ecosystem – Arthur Tansley

III. Competitive exclusion – Justus von Liebig

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

competitive exclusion is Gause's principle (1934); Liebig gave the law of the minimum.

74.  

MAHASAGAR, announced in 2025, builds on India's earlier SAGAR vision of 2015, which was first set out in:

Correct Answer: D [Mauritius]

Explanation:

SAGAR was first set out in Mauritius in 2015.

75.  

Which one of the following works of Kalidasa is a poem and not a play?

Correct Answer: D [Meghaduta]

Explanation:

the Meghaduta is a poem, like the Raghuvamsha and the Kumarasambhava.

76.  

Consider the following pairs of evacuation operations and countries:

I. Operation Ganga – Ukraine

II. Operation Kaveri – Sudan

III. Operation Ajay – Israel

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

Ganga (2022) was in Ukraine, Kaveri (2023) in Sudan and Ajay (2023) in Israel.

77.  

Consider the following statements about the National Capital Territory of Delhi:

1. Article 239AA was inserted by the 69th Amendment, 1991.
2. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the President.
3. Police, public order and land are outside the legislative power of the Delhi Assembly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

all three are features of the special status of Delhi under Article 239AA.

78.  

How many big cat species does the International Big Cat Alliance, launched at Mysuru in 2023, cover?

Correct Answer: C [Seven]

Explanation:

IBCA covers seven – tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard, cheetah, jaguar and puma.

79.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Fisheries is a subject in the State List.
2. Fishing beyond territorial waters is a subject in the Union List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

State List Entry 21; Union List Entry 57.

80.  

The High-Level Working Group on the Western Ghats headed by K. Kasturirangan proposed declaring about how much of the region as ecologically sensitive?

Correct Answer: B [37 per cent]

Explanation:

the Kasturirangan group proposed about 37 per cent of the Western Ghats as ecologically sensitive.

81.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: When the RBI buys government securities in the open market, liquidity in the banking system rises.

Statement-II: In an open market purchase, the RBI pays banks money in exchange for securities.

Statement-III: An open market purchase reduces the reserves that banks hold with the RBI.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

only Statement-II is correct, and the money the RBI pays for the securities is the added liquidity; a purchase raises, not reduces, bank reserves.

82.  

Consider the following pairs of protected areas and species:

I. Gahirmatha – olive ridley turtle

II. Bhitarkanika – saltwater crocodile

III. National Chambal Sanctuary – gharial

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

Gahirmatha is known for olive ridley nesting, Bhitarkanika for saltwater crocodiles and the Chambal for the gharial.

83.  

Which of the following were developed or launched by the National Payments Corporation of India?

1. RuPay
2. UPI
3. IMPS

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

RuPay, UPI and IMPS were all developed or launched by the NPCI.

84.  

In 2025, the Indian Council of Agricultural Research announced the release of:

Correct Answer: D [genome-edited rice varieties]

Explanation:

in 2025 ICAR announced genome-edited rice varieties.

85.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural markets are regulated under State Agricultural Produce Market Committee Acts.
2. The e-NAM platform was launched in 2016 with the Small Farmers' Agribusiness Consortium as lead agency.
3. Every State has an APMC Act in force.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

Bihar repealed its APMC Act in 2006 and Keralam has none.

86.  

Consider the following statements:

1. The Indira Gandhi Canal mainly irrigates Gujarat.
2. The Ukai dam is built across the Tapi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: B [2 only]

Explanation:

The Ukai dam is on the Tapi in Gujarat; the Indira Gandhi Canal serves Rajasthan, not Gujarat.

87.  

Arrange the following bodies in the order in which they were set up:

1. Department of Biotechnology
2. Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
3. Indian Space Research Organisation
4. Defence Research and Development Organisation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [2-4-3-1]

Explanation:

CSIR 1942, DRDO 1958, ISRO 1969, DBT 1986.

88.  

Consider the following pairs of foreign travellers and the courts or kingdoms they described:

I. Nicolo Conti – Devaraya I

II. Abdur Razzaq – Devaraya II

III. Afanasy Nikitin – Krishnadevaraya

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Nikitin described the Bahmani kingdom, not Krishnadevaraya's court.

89.  

Consider the following statements about the G20:

1. It began in 1999 as a forum of finance ministers and central bank governors.
2. The African Union is a member.
3. The first summit of leaders was held in 2010.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the first leaders' summit was held in 2008.

90.  

Consider the following pairs of volcanoes and countries:

I. Taal – Philippines

II. Paricutin – Mexico

III. Etna – Greece

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Etna is in Italy (Sicily).

91.  

Consider the following pairs of national missions and their launch years:

I. National Supercomputing Mission – 2015

II. Deep Ocean Mission – 2021

III. IndiaAI Mission – 2019

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the IndiaAI Mission was approved in 2024.

92.  

The duty of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to a child between six and fourteen years was added by the:

Correct Answer: C [86th Amendment]

Explanation:

the 86th Amendment, 2002, added duty (k).

93.  

Consider the following pairs of indices and the bodies that publish them:

I. Worldwide Governance Indicators – World Bank

II. Corruption Perceptions Index – Transparency International

III. Good Governance Index – NITI Aayog

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Good Governance Index is published by the DARPG.

94.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: A digital signature shows whether an electronic document has been altered after signing.

Statement-II: A digital signature is created with the signer's public key.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

the signer's private key creates the signature; the public key verifies it.

95.  

C. P. Radhakrishnan, who became Vice-President of India in September 2025, is the:

Correct Answer: C [15th Vice-President]

Explanation:

C. P. Radhakrishnan became the 15th Vice-President in September 2025.

96.  

Consider the following statements about the planets:

1. Venus is the hottest planet.
2. Saturn is the densest planet.
3. Jupiter is the largest planet.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

Venus is the hottest planet and Jupiter the largest; Saturn is the least dense, not the densest.

97.  

Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India:

1. It began operations on 1 April 1935.
2. It was nationalised on 1 January 1949.
3. Its central office has always been in Bombay.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the central office moved to Bombay only in 1937.

98.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Mountbatten Plan was announced on 3 June 1947.

II. Referendums were held in the North-West Frontier Province and Sylhet.

III. Lord Mountbatten was the last Governor-General of independent India.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the last Governor-General was C. Rajagopalachari; Mountbatten was the first.

99.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Sikkim became a State of the Indian Union through the 36th Constitutional Amendment.
2. Goa became a State soon after Operation Vijay in December 1961.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 only]

Explanation:

Sikkim became the 22nd State in May 1975; Goa became a State only on 30 May 1987.

100.  

The Battle of Colachel (1741) was fought between:

Correct Answer: A [Travancore and the Dutch]

Explanation:

Martanda Varma of Travancore defeated the Dutch.

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