UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 3: Mock Test 2 – Standard Level (100 MCQs)

← Back

UPSC Prelims GS Mock Tests – Chapter 3: Mock Test 2 – Standard Level (100 MCQs) – 100 questions, subject: Prelims GS Mock Tests. Every question has the correct answer with a one-line explanation; tap "Show Answer". Free practice for TNPSC, UPSC, SSC, Bank and RRB exams – Shanmugam IAS Academy, Coimbatore.

Get daily current affairs & exam alerts – follow us YouTube WhatsApp Channel Telegram Channel Facebook Page Instagram
Share with friends & study groups
Link to this page from your website / blog (HTML code)
1.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: On a resolution of the State Assembly, Parliament can abolish the Legislative Council of that State by a law passed by a simple majority.

Statement-II: Such a law is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

because the law is outside Article 368, a simple majority of Parliament is enough.

2.  

Consider the following statements about MPLADS:

1. It was launched in 1993.
2. Each MP can recommend works of ₹5 crore a year.
3. Funds not used in a year lapse.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

MPLADS funds are non-lapsable.

3.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The new Consumer Price Index has the base year 2024.

II. The Wholesale Price Index covers services.

III. The RBI's inflation target is set in terms of the CPI.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the WPI has no services.

4.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Kanauj was the main prize of the Tripartite Struggle.

Statement-II: Nagabhata II, a Pala ruler, made Kanauj his capital.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

Kanauj, the old capital of Harsha, was the prize; Nagabhata II was a Pratihara, not a Pala.

5.  

The highest category of the Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar (2023), given for lifetime achievement, is:

Correct Answer: D [Vigyan Ratna]

Explanation:

Vigyan Ratna is the lifetime award.

6.  

Consider the following statements about the Barabar caves:

I. They are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.

II. They were excavated for the Ajivikas.

III. They are in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Barabar caves of the Mauryan period are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India, and Ashoka gave them to the Ajivikas; they are in the Barabar Hills of Bihar.

7.  

Consider the following pairs of cultures and sites:

I. Neolithic – Burzahom

II. Megalithic – Adichanallur

III. Jorwe Chalcolithic – Inamgaon

IV. Mesolithic – Mehrgarh

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Mehrgarh is the earliest farming village, a Neolithic site; microliths mark the Mesolithic.

8.  

Consider the following statements about air-quality standards in India:

1. The National Ambient Air Quality Standards of 2009 cover 12 pollutants.
2. The annual NAAQS limit for PM2.5 is 40 µg/m³.
3. The National Air Quality Index has six categories, from "Good" to "Severe".

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

NAAQS 2009 has 12 pollutants with PM2.5 at 40 (annual) and 60 (daily); the AQI has six categories, from Good to Severe.

9.  

Consider the following pairs of accountability tools and the places or bodies linked with them:

I. Citizen report card – Bengaluru

II. Participatory budgeting – Porto Alegre

III. People's Plan Campaign – Kerala

IV. Jan sunwai – MKSS

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

report cards began in Bengaluru (1993), participatory budgeting in Porto Alegre (1989), the People's Plan in Kerala (1996), and the MKSS used the jan sunwai.

10.  

With reference to the Mizo Accord, which one of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [It was signed with the Mizo National Front in 1986, and Mizoram became a State in 1987.]

Explanation:

the accord of 30 June 1986 with Laldenga's MNF ended the insurgency, and Mizoram became a State on 20 February 1987.

11.  

Consider the following statements about nanoparticles:

1. Nanoparticles also occur in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metal oxides are used in cosmetics.
3. All nanoparticles are safe for the environment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

titanium dioxide and zinc oxide are used in cosmetics; some nanoparticles are unsafe in the environment.

12.  

Consider the following statements about the PESA Act, 1996:

1. It was based on the recommendations of the Bhuria Committee.
2. It gives the Gram Sabha ownership of minor forest produce.
3. It requires the recommendation of the Gram Sabha for leases of major minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the Gram Sabha recommends leases of minor minerals, not major minerals.

13.  

Arrange the following events in chronological order:

1. Albuquerque takes Goa from Bijapur
2. The English set up a factory at Surat
3. The French found Pondicherry
4. The English obtain land for Madras

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [1-2-4-3]

Explanation:

Goa 1510, Surat 1613, Madras 1639, Pondicherry 1674.

14.  

How many of the following are part of India's foreign exchange reserves?

I. Foreign currency assets

II. Gold

III. Special Drawing Rights

IV. Reserve tranche position in the IMF

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

the reserves are foreign currency assets, gold, SDRs and the reserve tranche position; loans such as World Bank loans are not reserves.

15.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Diseases caused by mutations in mitochondrial DNA are passed on through the mother.

Statement-II: The mitochondria of an embryo come almost entirely from the egg.

Statement-III: Pronuclear transfer can prevent the passing on of mitochondrial disease.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are correct, but only Statement-II explains Statement-I: mitochondria come from the egg, so the disease passes through the mother; pronuclear transfer is only a way to prevent it.

16.  

Consider the following pairs of rock systems and resources:

I. Gondwana – coal

II. Dharwar – petroleum

III. Tertiary – lignite of Neyveli

IV. Vindhyan – Panna diamonds

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Dharwar rocks hold metallic minerals such as iron, manganese and gold; petroleum is in Tertiary rocks.

17.  

Consider the following statements about the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM):

1. It was launched in 2021.
2. Joining it is voluntary.
3. It is implemented by the National Health Authority.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

ABDM (2021) is voluntary, gives an ABHA number and is run by the National Health Authority.

18.  

In an ecosystem, the 'standing crop' refers to:

Correct Answer: A [the mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time]

Explanation:

NCERT defines standing crop as the mass of living material at a trophic level at a given time.

19.  

Consider the following statements about the Non-Cooperation Movement:

1. The Nagpur session of December 1920 was presided over by C. Vijayaraghavachariar.
2. The special session at Calcutta in September 1920 was presided over by Lajpat Rai.
3. The movement was withdrawn at Bardoli after the Chauri Chaura incident.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

Chauri Chaura (5 February 1922) was followed by withdrawal at Bardoli on 12 February 1922.

20.  

Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs):

I. There are 75 PVTGs.

II. Odisha has the largest number of PVTGs.

III. PM-JANMAN for PVTGs was launched in November 2023.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

75 PVTGs in 18 States and one UT; Odisha has the most; PM-JANMAN began on 15 November 2023.

21.  

The fourth global coral bleaching event was confirmed in:

Correct Answer: D [April 2024]

Explanation:

the fourth global event was confirmed in April 2024.

22.  

Which of the following are examples of public investment in agriculture?

1. Computerisation of PACS
2. Building cold storage
3. Farm loan waivers
4. Free electricity for farms

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

public investment leaves an asset; waivers and free power are subsidies.

23.  

Which one of the following is NOT one of the pollutants in India's National Air Quality Index?

Correct Answer: D [Carbon dioxide]

Explanation:

the AQI (2014) covers eight pollutants – PM10, PM2.5, NO₂, SO₂, CO, O₃, NH₃ and Pb – in six categories; CO₂ is not one of them.

24.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. National Clean Air Programme – 2019

II. Bharat Stage VI norms – 1 April 2020

III. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act – 1981

IV. Commission for Air Quality Management – 2014

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the CAQM was first set up by an ordinance in October 2020 and given statute by the CAQM Act, 2021; 2014 is the year of the AQI.

25.  

The main natural source of phosphorus in an ecosystem is:

Correct Answer: C [weathering of rocks]

Explanation:

phosphorus enters ecosystems mainly through the weathering of rocks.

26.  

Consider the following statements about the WMO Greenhouse Gas Bulletin figures for 2024:

I. The global average concentration of carbon dioxide was 423.9 ppm.

II. The global average concentration of methane was 1,942 ppb.

III. The global average concentration of nitrous oxide was above 400 ppb.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the WMO gave 423.9 ppm for carbon dioxide and 1,942 ppb for methane in 2024; nitrous oxide was 338.0 ppb.

27.  

Consider the following statements about the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025:

I. A deposit account can have up to four nominees.

II. Nominations can be simultaneous or successive.

III. The provisions on nominees came into force on 1 April 2025.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the nominee provisions came into force on 1 November 2025.

28.  

Consider the following statements about the Indian monsoon:

1. The Indian Ocean Dipole compares the western and eastern parts of the Indian Ocean.
2. Rainfall between 96 and 104 per cent of the long period average is called normal.
3. The monsoon normally covers the whole country by about 15 July.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

the monsoon normally covers the whole country by about 8 July.

29.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The 103rd Amendment allows reservation of up to 10 per cent for economically weaker sections.

II. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 covers 21 disabilities.

III. The Mandal Commission was set up in 1953.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the Kalelkar Commission was set up in 1953; the Mandal Commission was set up in 1979 and reported in 1980 (27 per cent).

30.  

India is NOT a member of which one of the following export-control regimes?

Correct Answer: D [Nuclear Suppliers Group]

Explanation:

India is not a member of the NSG; it received a special waiver from the NSG in 2008.

31.  

Consider the following pairs of agencies and the ministries or departments they work under:

I. Enforcement Directorate – Department of Revenue

II. FIU-IND – Department of Revenue

III. Serious Fraud Investigation Office – Ministry of Corporate Affairs

IV. National Investigation Agency – Ministry of Finance

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the NIA is under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

32.  

As on 21 October 2026, how many of the following trade agreements of India were in force?

I. India–United Kingdom

II. India–New Zealand

III. India–European Union

IV. India–Oman

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Oman (1 June 2026), the UK (15 July 2026) and New Zealand (20 October 2026) were in force; the EU agreement had been concluded but was not yet in force.

33.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Under the Government of India Act, 1919, the provincial subjects were divided into reserved and transferred subjects.

Statement-II: Land revenue and police were transferred subjects under that Act.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

dyarchy divided the provincial subjects; justice, police and land revenue were reserved subjects.

34.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: North-western India receives some rain in winter.

Statement-II: Western disturbances from the Mediterranean region are brought to India by the westerlies.

Statement-III: The retreating monsoon brings winter rain to north-western India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Only one of Statement-II and Statement-III is correct and that explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

only Statement-II is correct, and the western disturbances it describes bring the winter rain that helps the rabi crop; the retreating monsoon gives rain mainly to the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu.

35.  

Consider the following statements about forest fires in India:

I. Most forest fires are man-made.

II. The fire season is mainly from February to June.

III. The National Action Plan on Forest Fires (2018) was issued by the NDMA.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the National Action Plan on Forest Fires was issued by the MoEFCC.

36.  

On 21 June, which one of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: D [The Arctic Circle has 24 hours of daylight.]

Explanation:

in June the Northern Hemisphere leans towards the Sun, so the Arctic Circle has 24 hours of daylight.

37.  

The Nako monastery is located in:

Correct Answer: C [Kinnaur]

Explanation:

Nako is in Kinnaur (Himachal Pradesh).

38.  

How many of the following are excluded from GDP?

I. Transfer payments

II. Imputed rent of owner-occupied houses

III. Sale of second-hand goods (other than the dealer's commission)

IV. Household services of homemakers

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

imputed rent is included; the other three are excluded.

39.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor.

Statement-II: The State Election Commissioner can be removed only in the manner and on the grounds of a judge of a High Court.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

both are true under Article 243K; one is about appointment, the other about security of tenure.

40.  

Consider the following statements about the International Criminal Court:

I. It tries individuals.

II. India is not a party to the Rome Statute that set it up.

III. It is one of the principal organs of the United Nations.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the ICC (Rome Statute, 1998) tries individuals and India has not joined it; it is an independent court, not a UN organ.

41.  

The International Date Line broadly follows the:

Correct Answer: A [180° meridian]

Explanation:

The Date Line runs roughly along the 180° meridian, bending to avoid land.

42.  

Which one of the following ecological pyramids can never be inverted?

Correct Answer: A [Pyramid of energy]

Explanation:

only about ten per cent of energy passes from one trophic level to the next, so each higher level always has less energy and the pyramid is always upright.

43.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Fullerene – discovered in 1985

II. Graphene – isolated in 2004

III. Quantum dots – Nobel Prize in 2023

IV. Metal-organic frameworks – Nobel Prize in 2010

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

MOFs won the Nobel Prize in 2025; the 2010 prize was for graphene.

44.  

An amendment of which of the following needs, besides a special majority, ratification by half of the States?

1. Article 54 (election of the President)
2. Representation of States in Parliament
3. Article 169 (creation or abolition of Legislative Councils)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

a law creating or abolishing a Council under Article 169 needs only a simple majority and is not an amendment under Article 368, so no ratification is needed.

45.  

Mount Ararat lies in:

Correct Answer: A [Türkiye]

Explanation:

Mount Ararat lies in eastern Türkiye, near the borders with Armenia and Iran.

46.  

The fifteenth Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species (2026) was held at:

Correct Answer: D [Campo Grande]

Explanation:

CMS COP15 met at Campo Grande, Brazil, in March 2026.

47.  

With reference to the Bharat Ratna and the Padma awards, which one of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: D [The Supreme Court has held that they are not titles within the meaning of Article 18(1).]

Explanation:

in Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India (1995) the Court held that the awards are not titles under Article 18(1), but they must not be used as a prefix or suffix to a name.

48.  

The Tropic of Capricorn passes through how many of the following countries?

I. Paraguay

II. Botswana

III. Madagascar

IV. Chile

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

the Tropic of Capricorn crosses Chile, Argentina, Paraguay, Brazil, Namibia, Botswana, South Africa, Mozambique, Madagascar and Australia.

49.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Net factor income from abroad is negative for India.

Statement-II: India's GNP is smaller than its GDP.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

GNP = GDP + NFIA; Statement-II is a result of Statement-I, not its explanation.

50.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The Index of Industrial Production is compiled by the NSO.

II. The Index of Industrial Production now has the base year 2022-23.

III. The Index of Eight Core Industries is compiled by the NSO.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the NSO compiles the IIP, which moved to the base year 2022-23 from April 2026; the core index is compiled by the Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT.

51.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Venkatamakhin – 72 melakartas

II. Bhatkhande – 10 thaats

III. Paluskar – Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lucknow

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Paluskar founded the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lahore in 1901.

52.  

With reference to a Bill to amend the Constitution under Article 368, which one of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: A [It must be passed by each House separately, so there is no joint sitting on it.]

Explanation:

Article 368 requires each House to pass the Bill by a special majority, so the joint sitting of Article 108 does not apply to it.

53.  

AGMARK, the certification mark for agricultural produce in India, is administered by:

Correct Answer: D [the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection]

Explanation:

the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection administers AGMARK under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937.

54.  

The doctrine of niyati (fate) is associated with:

Correct Answer: D [Makkhali Gosala]

Explanation:

Gosala led the Ajivikas, who held that everything is fixed by niyati.

55.  

Under the Marathas, sardeshmukhi was a levy of:

Correct Answer: B [one-tenth]

Explanation:

sardeshmukhi was one-tenth.

56.  

Consider the following statements about the atmosphere:

I. The troposphere is about 18 km thick at the equator and about 8 km at the poles.

II. The ozone layer lies within the stratosphere.

III. The ionosphere reflects radio waves.

IV. Temperature falls with height in the stratosphere.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

temperature rises with height in the stratosphere because ozone absorbs ultraviolet rays.

57.  

Consider the following statements about negotiable warehouse receipts:

1. They can be pledged to obtain a bank loan.
2. They can be transferred by endorsement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

a negotiable warehouse receipt under the Warehousing (Development and Regulation) Act, 2007 can be transferred by endorsement, which is what makes it useful as security for a loan.

58.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction – 13 October

II. World Tsunami Awareness Day – 5 November

III. Secretariat of the CDRI – New Delhi

IV. Headquarters of UNDRR – New York

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

UNDRR is in Geneva; the CDRI was launched in New York in 2019, but its secretariat is in New Delhi.

59.  

Arrange the following events in chronological order:

1. Election of Dr Rajendra Prasad as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly
2. Adoption of the national anthem by the Constituent Assembly
3. Adoption of the Constitution
4. Publication of the Draft Constitution

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1-4-3-2]

Explanation:

11 Dec 1946; Draft Feb 1948; Constitution adopted 26 Nov 1949; anthem 24 Jan 1950.

60.  

Consider the following statements:

I. The 73rd Amendment came into force on 24 April 1993.

II. The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 subjects.

III. A State with a population not exceeding 20 lakh need not have the intermediate tier.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

all three are features of Part IX.

61.  

Consider the following statements about the Forest Rights Act, 2006:

1. The process of recognising rights is initiated by the Gram Sabha.
2. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal ministry for the Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Explanation:

the Gram Sabha initiates the process and the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Environment Ministry, is the nodal ministry; the District Level Committee takes the final decision.

62.  

The Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) is compiled by:

Correct Answer: A [the Labour Bureau]

Explanation:

CPI-IW is compiled by the Labour Bureau (base 2016).

63.  

Consider the following pairs of resource projects and countries:

I. Mangdechhu – Bhutan

II. Reko Diq – Pakistan

III. Mes Aynak – Afghanistan

IV. Rooppur – Sri Lanka

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

Rooppur nuclear power plant is in Bangladesh.

64.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Janani Suraksha Yojana – cash for institutional delivery

II. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram – free delivery

III. PMSMA – 9th of every month

IV. RKSK – children aged 0 to 18 years

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

RKSK covers adolescents of 10 to 19 years; RBSK covers children of 0 to 18 years.

65.  

In the hills, IMD's cold-wave criteria apply when the minimum temperature is:

Correct Answer: A [0 °C or less]

Explanation:

in the hills the base is 0 °C or less.

66.  

Which one of the following types of stem cells has the widest potency?

Correct Answer: A [Totipotent]

Explanation:

the order of potency is toti, pluri, multi, uni.

67.  

Consider the following statements about the Speaker of a State Legislative Assembly:

I. The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Assembly.

II. At least 14 days' notice must be given of a resolution to remove the Speaker.

III. On dissolution of the Assembly, the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the new Assembly.

IV. While a resolution for removal is under consideration, the Speaker may vote in the first instance but not when the votes are equal.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

Article 179(c) and its provisos give I, II and III; Article 181(2) gives IV.

68.  

Consider the following statements about Harsha:

1. His advance to the south was stopped on the Narmada by Pulakeshin II.
2. The Aihole inscription that records this was composed by Banabhatta.
3. He wrote the plays Nagananda, Ratnavali and Priyadarshika.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: C [1 and 3 only]

Explanation:

the Aihole inscription was composed by Ravikirti; Banabhatta wrote the Harshacharita.

69.  

The committee of 1977 that recommended a two-tier Panchayati Raj system was chaired by:

Correct Answer: B [Ashok Mehta]

Explanation:

the Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) proposed two tiers.

70.  

Consider the following statements about the Vijayanagara Empire:

I. It was founded by Harihara I and Bukka I in 1336.

II. The Battle of Talikota was fought in 1565.

III. The Aravidu was the first of its four dynasties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the dynasties were Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva and Aravidu; the Aravidu was the last.

71.  

Consider the following pairs of mines and minerals:

I. Malanjkhand – copper

II. Sukinda – chromite

III. Panchpatmali – bauxite

IV. Zawar – zinc

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

Malanjkhand (copper), Sukinda (chromite), Panchpatmali (bauxite) and Zawar (zinc) are all correctly matched.

72.  

Consider the following pairs of reports and publishers:

I. World Economic Outlook – IMF

II. World Development Report – World Bank

III. Human Development Report – UNDP

IV. Global Gender Gap Report – World Bank

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the Global Gender Gap Report is published by the World Economic Forum.

73.  

India is a member of how many of the following groupings?

I. East Asia Summit

II. APEC

III. RCEP

IV. ASEAN Regional Forum

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

India is in the EAS and the ARF, but not in APEC or RCEP (it stayed out of RCEP in 2019).

74.  

Consider the following statements:

1. Disinvestment receipts are non-debt capital receipts.
2. DIPAM was created in April 2016.
3. Venture capital is short-term working capital given to established firms.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: A [1 and 2 only]

Explanation:

venture capital is long-term start-up capital for new entrepreneurs.

75.  

Sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆), a greenhouse gas with a 100-year GWP of over 20,000, comes mainly from:

Correct Answer: A [electrical switchgear]

Explanation:

SF₆ is used in electrical switchgear.

76.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India's Act East Policy was announced in 2014.

Statement-II: The Look East Policy, begun in 1991, had a mainly economic focus.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: B [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II does not explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

Act East (2014, Nay Pyi Taw) added a strategic focus to the economic Look East Policy (1991).

77.  

Consider the following statements:

I. India's Nano Mission began in 2007.

II. Nano Urea was introduced in 2021.

III. Nano DAP was introduced before Nano Urea.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Nano DAP came in 2023, after Nano Urea (2021).

78.  

Ilmenite and rutile are ores of:

Correct Answer: A [titanium]

Explanation:

ilmenite and rutile from beach sands are ores of titanium.

79.  

Which of the following are intangible assets of a firm?

1. Brand
2. Intellectual property
3. Inventory
4. Client lists

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: B [1, 2 and 4 only]

Explanation:

inventory is a tangible asset.

80.  

The idea of nanotechnology is traced to a 1959 lecture by:

Correct Answer: B [Richard Feynman]

Explanation:

Feynman's 1959 lecture first set out the idea.

81.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Materials at the nanoscale often behave differently from the same materials in bulk.

Statement-II: Nanoparticles have a very large surface area in relation to their volume.

Statement-III: At the nanoscale, quantum effects become important for the properties of matter.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I]

Explanation:

the large surface-to-volume ratio and quantum effects are the two main reasons why nanomaterials differ from bulk materials; both explain Statement-I.

82.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill failed in the Lok Sabha on 17 April 2026.

Statement-II: It received 298 votes for and 230 against, which was less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

two-thirds of the 528 members voting was 352; 298 fell short, so the Bill failed.

83.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Chemical Weapons Convention – OPCW, The Hague

II. International Atomic Energy Agency – Vienna

III. Biological Weapons Convention – verification body at Geneva

IV. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons – in force in 2021

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: C [Only three]

Explanation:

the BWC has no verification body.

84.  

Consider the following statements about tides:

1. Spring tides occur at new moon and full moon.
2. Neap tides occur when the Sun and the Moon are at right angles to the Earth.
3. The Moon is the main tide-producing body.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Correct Answer: D [1, 2 and 3]

Explanation:

spring tides come when the three bodies are in a line, neap tides when they are at right angles; the Moon is the main tide-maker.

85.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The members of the Constituent Assembly were directly elected by the people.

Statement-II: The members from the provinces were elected by the provincial assemblies by the single transferable vote.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

the election was indirect; princely members were nominated.

86.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The Sendai Framework has seven global targets.

Statement-II: The Hyogo Framework had four priorities for action.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: C [Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect]

Explanation:

Hyogo (2005–15) had five priorities; Sendai (2015–30) has seven targets and four priorities.

87.  

With reference to a State Legislative Council, which one of the following is correct?

Correct Answer: D [Its Chairman is chosen by the Council from among its members.]

Explanation:

under Article 182 the Council chooses two of its members to be Chairman and Deputy Chairman.

88.  

Which one of the following correctly gives a rank of India in the 2026 edition of an index?

Correct Answer: D [9th in the long-term (1995–2024) ranking of the Climate Risk Index 2026]

Explanation:

Germanwatch's CRI 2026 placed India 9th for 1995–2024; India was 176th in the EPI 2026 and 23rd in the CCPI 2026.

89.  

Consider the following statements about Jainism:

I. It holds that even rocks and water possess souls.

II. It teaches that karma can be ended by penance.

III. It accepts the authority of the Vedas.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Jainism sees jiva even in rocks and water and holds that karma is shed by penance; it rejects the authority of the Vedas.

90.  

The VB-G RAM G Act, 2025, which replaced MGNREGA from 1 July 2026, provides a legal guarantee of how many days of wage work?

Correct Answer: C [125 days]

Explanation:

the Act guarantees 125 days, with a 60-day seasonal pause.

91.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Annie Besant founded the Theosophical Society.

Statement-II: The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 by Blavatsky and Olcott.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

Besant led the Home Rule movement and became Congress President in 1917, but she did not found the Society.

92.  

Which one of the following days is observed in India as National Science Day?

Correct Answer: D [28 February]

Explanation:

28 February marks C.V. Raman's announcement of the Raman effect in 1928.

93.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Somatic cell nuclear transfer is used for the reproductive cloning of animals.

II. Dolly the sheep was cloned in 1996.

III. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 permits commercial surrogacy.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the 2021 Act permits only altruistic surrogacy.

94.  

How many of the following are detritivores?

I. Earthworms

II. Millipedes

III. Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Correct Answer: C [All three]

Explanation:

earthworms, millipedes and woodlice feed on detritus; bacteria and fungi are decomposers.

95.  

Consider the following statements:

I. Homi Bhabha founded the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research in 1945.

II. Vikram Sarabhai founded the Physical Research Laboratory in 1947.

III. The SLV-3 mission of 1980 was led by Satish Dhawan as project director.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

the SLV-3 project of 1980 was led by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam.

96.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Remittances from Indians abroad are recorded in the capital account of the balance of payments.

Statement-II: The current account includes the trade balance and invisibles.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: D [Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct]

Explanation:

remittances are transfers, a part of invisibles in the current account.

97.  

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Black soil covers much of the north-western Deccan.

Statement-II: The Deccan Traps are made of basalt.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Correct Answer: A [Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I]

Explanation:

black soil forms from the weathering of the basalt of the Deccan Traps.

98.  

The IPCC First Assessment Report of 1990 led to:

Correct Answer: A [the UNFCCC]

Explanation:

the 1990 report led to the UNFCCC of 1992.

99.  

Consider the following pairs:

I. Har Gobind Khorana – genetic code

II. S. Chandrasekhar – structure and evolution of stars

III. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan – ribosome

IV. J.C. Bose – crescograph

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Correct Answer: D [All four]

Explanation:

Khorana (1968), Chandrasekhar (1983) and Ramakrishnan (2009) won Nobel Prizes for this work; J.C. Bose made the crescograph. Do not confuse him with S.N. Bose (bosons, 1924).

100.  

Consider the following statements about the Constituent Assembly:

I. Its total strength was fixed at 389.

II. After partition its strength fell to 299.

III. Sachchidananda Sinha was its permanent President.

How many of the above statements are correct?

Correct Answer: B [Only two]

Explanation:

Sinha was the provisional President; Rajendra Prasad was elected President on 11 December 1946.

➤ Eight full-length GS tests with every option explained, blueprints, answer keys and error analysis – U26 · Prelims GS Mock Tests (UPSC book, ₹249): www.shanmugamiasacademy.in/study-materials/upsc-prelims-gs-mock-tests

📘 U26 · Prelims GS Mock Tests with Analysis – UPSC Civil Services (Prelims GS Paper I)
Here you get the answer with a one-line explanation. 8 full-length Prelims GS tests · 800 original questions · every option explained · blueprints, answer keys, error analysis
Get the book – ₹249 ₹499 →
Score: 0 Answered: 0 / 0